Feb ’22 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the result of a Fourth Amendment violation?

A

Suppression of evidence.

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2
Q

What does the Fourth Amendment protect persons from?

A

Unreasonable search and seizure.

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3
Q

When can police make an arrest without a warrant?

A

When police have probable cause to believe the person has committed a crime.

Considering the totality of the circumstances, probable cause exists if police have knowledge that would warrant a reasonably prudent person to believe that a person has committed or is committing a crime.

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4
Q

If information is received anonymously, what is required for it to be reliable for probably cause purposes?

A

Corroboration.

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5
Q

The Fourth Amendment protects against unreasonable search and seizure from whom?

A

Government. Not private actors.

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6
Q

Searches without a warrant are?

A

Presumptively unreasonable.

One exception is automobile searches because vehicles are inherently movable and thus subject to disappearing (police must still have probable cause that tue vehicle contains contraband or other evidence of a crime).

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7
Q

Searches incident to arrest are limited to what area?

A

The wingspan of the arrestee.

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8
Q

Which Amendment protects against self-incrimination?

A

The Fifth.

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9
Q

Under Miranda, once a person is in custody they must…

A

…be informed of their right to remain silent before interrogation is commenced.

Applies to any police action designed to elicit a response.

A person is in custody once their freedom of movement is restrained.

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10
Q

An ___ extends a security interest to…

A

after-acquired collateral clause.

…all current and future inventory.

Generally valid.

Ineffective as to consumer goods acquired more than 10 days after the creditor has given value.

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11
Q

When a debtor is a corporation organized under VA law, the usual means of perfecting a security interest is…

A

…filling a financing statement with the State Corporation Commission.

[from July ’20:] Debtor need not sign (purpose of perfection is to put others on notice).

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12
Q

When two parties with perfected security interests are competing for the same collateral, priority normally goes to the one who was…

A

…either first to perfect or first to file a valid financing statement.

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13
Q

In some circumstances, a ___ will have super priority even if it is not first to file or perfect.

A

A purchase money security interest.

Where collateral is inventory, a PMSI will have super priority if, before handing over possession of the inventory to the debtor, the creditor (1) sends a special written notice to the other security interest holders and (2) takes steps to assure that its PMSI will be perfected at the time the debtor receives possession.

A PMSI is perfected automatically upon attachment where the collateral is a consumer good.

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14
Q

A ___ takes free of a security interest created by its seller.

A

Buyer in the ordinary course of business (buying from a merchant of goods of the kind).

Knowledge of an existing financing statement does not defeat such a buyer unless they know their purchase violates the terms of the original financing agreement.

Does not include mere donees who give no consideration or buyers outside the normal course of business. Such donees become debtors subject to Article 9 remedies, including repossession.

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15
Q

Federal courts have SMJ over ___ under 28 U.S.C. § 1331.

A

Claims that assert federal law as the basis for the claim and relief sought. Although a plaintiff does not need to cite the specific statutory basis for federal question jurisdiction, she must plead sufficient facts to establish jurisdiction.

[Feb ‘16:] E.g., although the Federal Declaratory Judgment Act is a federal statute, it merely creates a remedy and thus cannot on its own serve as a basis for subject matter jurisdiction.

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16
Q

In federal court, citizenship of an LLC for diversity purposes is determined by…

A

…the citizenship of each member of the LLC.

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17
Q

A federal court has supplemental jurisdiction over claims…

A

…arising from the same common nucleus of operative fact as a claim over which the court has proper SMJ.

18
Q

How can a case be sent to state court under the federal removal statute?

A

If the case originated in state court, was removed to federal court, and was remanded to state court due to defective removal.

(Removal only goes from state to federal.)

19
Q

Under Rule ___, a defending party can move to dismiss for failure to join an ___ party.

A

12 (failure to join party under Rule 19); indispensable.

Under Rule 19:
A party subject to service of process whose joinder will not defeat SMJ must be joined if:

-in its absence, the court cannot accord complete relief among existing parties, or
-that party claims an interest relating to the subject of the action and is so situated that disposing of the action in its absence may impair or impede its ability to protect the interest or may leave an existing party subject to substantial risk of incurring multiple or inconsistent obligations because of the interest.

Not waivable and can be raised at any time including trial.

20
Q

In diversity jdx and supplemental jdx over state-law claims, federal courts should use ___ model jury instructions.

A

Virginia.

21
Q

Can a lawyer represent co-plaintiffs?

A

Generally, a lawyer shall not represent a client if the representation involves a concurrent conflict of interest.

A concurrent conflict of interest exists if:

-the representation of one client will be directly adverse to another client; or
-there is significant risk that the representation of one or more clients will be materially limited by the lawyer’s responsibilities to another client.

Simultaneous representation of parties whose interests in litigation may conflict, such as co-plaintiffs, is proper if

-the risk of adverse effect is minimal and:
-the lawyer reasonably believes that the lawyer will be able to provide competent and diligent representation to each affected client;
-the representation is not prohibited by law;
-the representation does not involve the assertion of a claim by one client against another client represented by the lawyer in the same litigation or other proceeding before a tribunal; and
-the consent from the client is memorialized in writing.

A client consultation for such a representation should include:

-a discussion of any limitations on the scope of the representation made necessary as a result of the common representation;
-that as between commonly represented clients, the attorney-client privilege does not attach; and
-that should a conflict arise, the attorney must withdrawfrom representation from at least one, if not both, of the parties.

22
Q

What is the PR rule on access to evidence for another party?

A

A lawyer shall not obstruct another party’s access to evidence or alter, destroy, or conceal material having potential evidentiary value for the purpose of obstructing a party’s access to evidence; or counsel or assist another person to do any such act.

23
Q

A lawyer has a duty to communicate and keep clients…

A

reasonably informed about the status of the matter, and to promptly inform each client of any decision or circumstance requiring the client’s informed consent.

24
Q

A lawyer shall not counsel a client to engage, or assist a client, in conduct the lawyer knows is criminal or fraudulent, but a lawyer may…

A

…discuss the legal consequences of any proposed course of conduct with a client and may counsel or assist a client to make a good faith effort to determine the validity, scope, meaning, or application of the law.

25
Q

Once a client become a former client, the lawyer must not represent…

A

…another person in the same or a substantially related matter, if their interests in the matter are materially adverse to those of the former client.

26
Q

What are the statutory classes of beneficiaries who are entitled to recover for a wrongful death?

A

(In successive order; no one can is entitled to compensation where a member of the previous class is alive)

  1. Spouse (not divorced), children (including legally adopted), or children of a deceased child;
  2. Parent, surviving siblings, or half-siblings
    [list not nearly complete.]
27
Q

The business judgement rule shields corporate leadership from liability for…

A

good faith decisions, reasonably believed to be in the best interests of the corporation.

28
Q

Acting agains the best interests of a corporation is a violation of…

A

…the duty of loyalty.

29
Q

Virginia ___ allow corporations to cap liability of leadership in articles of incorporation.

A

Does.

But does not apply to willful misconduct.

30
Q

Who can bring an action for breach of fiduciary duty of loyalty by corporate leadership?

A

The corporation or shareholders via a derivative action on behalf of the corporation.

This is true even if small and closely held.

31
Q

Virginia is a ___ recording jurisdiction.

A

Race-notice.

A subsequent purchaser must take without notice and must record their interest first.

32
Q

Under the real estate doctrine of merger…

A

…provisions in a contract for sale are extinguished and merged into the deed. Therefore, if a buyer has a claim against a seller, then the basis of the claim must be based on the covenants in the deed, if any, and not on the contract itself.

However, provisions which are collateral to the passage of title and not covered by the deed are not merged into the deed and survive its execution. Such agreements are considered collateral to the sale if they are distinct agreements made in connection with the sale of the property:
-if they do not affect the title to the property,
-if they are not addressed in the deed, and
-if they do not conflict with the deed.

[From July ’18:] Collateral agreements don’t merge even where the parties have expressly agreed in the land sale contract that representations and warranties shall be merged into the deed. E.g. “the foregoing warranty shall be deemed merged into the deed at closing, and shall not survive” is not sufficient to make a warranty unrelated to title merge.

33
Q

To establish fraud, P must prove:

A

-false representation
-of a material fact
-made knowingly by D,
-with the intent to mislead and
-be relied upon by P
-to their detriment.

The element of misrepresentation can also be established by proving a concealment of a material fact.

Reliance may not be justified, however, when a potential buyer undertakes investigation regarding a matter at issue because the buyer is charged with knowledge that the investigation reveals or knowledge that would have been revealed had the investigation been pursued diligently.

34
Q

The statute of limitations for breach of contract is…

A

…(1) three years if unwritten or written and unsigned by the party to be charged and (2) five years if written.

Four years for UCC sale of goods.

35
Q

The statue of limitations for defamation is…

A

…one year.

36
Q

A party gets ___ nonsuit ___, until…

A

One; as a matter of right.

…the jury retires, the action is submitted to the court for decisions, or a motion to strike evidence has been granted.

37
Q

To establish a bailment, P must prove…

A

…that goods were delivered to the bailee and that the bailee took physical control of the goods with intent to exercise that control.

38
Q

The duty of care for bailment is…

A

…gross negligence if for the benefit of the bailor, ordinary care if for mutual benefit, and slight negligence if for the benefit of the bailee.

39
Q

To be an effective disclaimer or limitation of liability, the bailor must…

A

…know of, or should have known of, and assent to the contractual limitation.

E.g., not a claim ticket with fine text.

40
Q

Entrusting goods to a merchant who deals in goods of the kind gives the merchant…

A

…power to transfer all rights of the entruster to a buyer in the ordinary course of business.

A buyer in the ordinary course of business is one who buys in good faith and without knowledge of the violation of ownership rights of a third party.