Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RITE > FEB 2019 YEAR II > Flashcards

FEB 2019 YEAR II Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is the recommended caloric restriction in elderly patient with BMI > 27?A. 5-10%
    B. 11-20%
    C. 21-30%
    D. 31-40%
A

A. 5-10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. A 46 y/M, presents with vomiting and diarrhea after alleged intake of unknown pesticide. PE: confused, small pupils, with muscles tremors. What is your primary treatment?A. Activated charcoal
    B. Atropine
    C. Barbiturates
    D. Sodium bicarbonate
A

B. Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. What is the specific treatment for cyanide poisoning?A. Hyperbaric oxygen
    B. Na bicarbonate
    C. Sodium nitrite
    D. Exchange transfusion
A

C. Sodium nitrite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. What is the mainstay treatment for severe angioedema?

A. Epinephrine
B. Hydrocortisone
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Ranitidine

A

A. Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Several types of infectious emboli can give rise to palpable purpura. What causes the irregular outline usually seen in these embolic lesions?

A. RBC diffusion from postcapillary venules
B. Cutaneous infarct
C. Perivascular lymphocytic inflammation
D. Thrombi formation

A

B. Cutaneous infarct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. A 68/M, presents with painful skin lesions which started as a high grade fever followed by a morbilliform eruption on his trunk, arms, and legs. On the day of consult, complains of sore throat and skin peeling off easily. He was recently started on warfarin for atrial fibrillation and allopurinol for gout. On PE, BP is 100/60, HR 120/min, RR ___ . There is widespread erythema, bullae, and sloughing off of the skin on the arms and legs. What is your diagnosis?

A. Warfarin necrosis
B. Toxic epidermal necrolysis
C. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
D. Erythema multiforme

A

B. Toxic epidermal necrolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. What skin condition is correctly matched to the findings under Wood’s lamp?

A. Erythasma : yellow fluorescence
B. Pseudomonas : pale blue
C. Tinea capitis : coral pink
D. Vitiligo : ash leaf spots

A

B. Pseudomonas : pale blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. 50/M presents with a scaling, erythematous plaques in the groin. KOH preparation shows pseudohyphae and budding. What is your diagnosis?

A. Dermatophytosis
B. Tinea versicolor
C. Lichenus pubis
D. Candidiasis

A

D. Candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. A 50/M, diabetic for 10years, consults for a chronic non-healing ulcer on the right ankle. He denies any trauma to the area, but experiences on and off bipedal edema associated with a dull ache that worsens with prolonged standing. PE shows shallow ulcer with irregular borders and a base of granulation at the medial malleolus. What test would confirm your diagnosis?

A. Venous duplex scan
B. Arteriography
C. Skin biopsy
D. Wound exudate culture

A

A. Venous duplex scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. What is the mainstay treatment in acute gouty arthritis complications?

A. Colchicine
B. Glucocorticoids
C. NSAIDS
D. Febuxostat

A

C. NSAIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Which precipitating factor associated with gouty arthritis?

A. Immunizations
B. Hypouricemic therapy
C. Dental infection
D. Excessive exercise

A

B. Hypouricemic therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. A 45/M, diagnosed to have acute gouty arthritis. Laboratories showed 9mg/dL (normal: 4-8.5); 24-hour urine uric acid 500mg (normal: 250-750) and creatinine 2.3mg/dL (normal 0.6 – 1.2). What is the best uric acid lowering agent to be used?

A. Febuxostat
B. Probenecid
C. Allopurinol
D. Benzbromarone

A

D. Benzbromarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. A 55/M, hypertensive, diabetic, with history of elevated serum uric acid level, is brought to the ER due to sudden onset of swelling of left knee with severe pain and one day intermittent fever. No history of trauma. CBC shows Hgb 120.0 g/L (normal: 120.0 – 140.0); WBC 16.23 x 10^9/L (normal: 5.00-10.00); platelet count 320 x 10^9/L (normal: 150-450) and ESR 110mm/hr (normal: 0-22). Urinalysis is normal. What is the best approach to this patient?

A. Start on Allopurinol therapy
B. Request for serum uric acid
C. Do immediate arthrocentesis
D. Immobilize the left leg

A

C. Do immediate arthrocentesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Which among the tests below is highly sensitive for SLE?

A. ANA
B. ANCA
C. Anti-dsDNA
D. Anti-Sm

A

A. ANA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. What ANA pattern is associated with ds-DNA that is highly specific for lupus

A. Diffuse
B. Peripheral
C. Speckled
D. Nucleolar

A

B. Peripheral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. A 35/F, presents with symmetrical and bilateral thickening of her fingers and dilated skin capillaries on her face and lips. CBC shows mild anemia. ANA shows a centromeric pattern. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Drug-induced lupus
B. SLE
C. Scleroderma
D. Polymyositis

A

C. Scleroderma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. A 35/F, presents with four months duration of morning stiffness and swelling of both hands lasting for more than one hour. No rashes, fever, and bipedal edema. PE reveals arthritis of PIPs and MCPs of both hands. What test would show an aggressive form of inflammatory arthritis?

A. Anti-Sm
B. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide
C. Anti-nuclear antibodies
D. Anti-dsDNA

A

B. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. A 50/F, presents with progressive difficulty in climbing steps and combing her hair; myalgia, and joint pains. On PE, malar rash is noted on her face and erythematous rash on her knuckles. Laboratory results: CBC reveals anemia, ESR is elevated and (+) anti-U1RNP. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Sjogren’s disease
B. Dermatomyositis
C. Polymyositis
D. Mixed Connective Tissue Disease

A

D. Mixed Connective Tissue Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. What is the hallmark of aneurysmal rupture?

A. Blood in the CSF
B. Third cranial nerve palsy
C. Hydrocephalus
D. Headache

A

A. Blood in the CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. What is the common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage excluding head trauma?

A. Rupture of a saccular aneurysm
B. Arteriovenous malformation
C. Dural arteriovenous fistula
D. Primary intracerebral hemorrhage

A

A. Rupture of a saccular aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. A 36/F. diagnosed with myasthenia gravis presents with muscle weakness, fatigue, difficulty chewing and dysarthria with intact reflexes, sensory and other neurological function. Coincidentally, she has cough with occasional rales on the left lower lung area. You plan to give antibiotics. Which drug will you give?

A. Azithromycin
B. Levofloxacin
C. Tobramycin
D. Cefixime

A

D. Cefixime

22
Q
  1. Which drug is often the initial therapy chosen for Guillian-Barre Syndrome?

A. Anti-viral drug
B. IV Immunoglobulin
C. Glucocorticoids
D. Pyrodostigmine

A

B. IV Immunoglobulin

23
Q
  1. What is the duration of seizure which would prompt the acute use of anti-convulsant therapy for generalized convulsive status epilepticus?

A. > 5 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 3 minutes
D. 2 minutes

A

A. > 5 minutes

24
Q
  1. What is the preferred imaging evaluation for acute stroke?

A. CT scan
B. MRI
C. PET Scan
D. Cerebral Angiography

A

A. CT scan

25
Q
  1. Which imaging study reliably documents the extent and location of infarcted areas of the brain, including the posterior fossa and cortical surface?

A. Cerebral Angiography
B. CT Scan
C. MRI
D. PET Scan

A

C. MRI

26
Q
  1. A 43/M, presents with limb weakness and spasticity with blurring of vision and was subjected to repetitive nerve stimulation. How many percent rapid reduction in the amplitude (3Hz) must be present in order to say the myasthenia gravis is probable in this case?

A. > 1%
B. > 5%
C. > 10%
D. > 15%

A

D. > 15%

27
Q
  1. PA, 38/F, presents with weakness of the limbs accompanied by spasticity, hyperreflexia and Babinski signs typical of Multiple Sclerosis. What is the definitive diagnostic test for this condition?

A. MRI
B. Evoked Potential Testing
C. CSF Analysis
D. No definitive test

A

D. No definitive test

28
Q
  1. A 45/F, with breast carcinoma, presents with dyspnea and right pleural effusion. What will you do?

A. Administer chemotherapy
B. Do therapeutic thoracentesis
C. Insert a pigtail catheter
D. Do tube thoracostomy with instillation of sclerosing agent

A

B. Do therapeutic thoracentesis

29
Q
  1. A patient with squamous cell CA of the lungs complains of facial and neck swelling and dyspnea. What is the primary treatment for this patient?

A. Diuretics
B. Chemotherapy
C. IV Glucocorticoids
D. Radiation therapy

A

D. Radiation therapy

30
Q
  1. Which tumor marker would help assess the response to treatment in Ovarian Ca?

A. CA-125
B. CA 15-3
C. CA 19-9
D. CEA

A

A. CA-125

31
Q
  1. A 35/M, on ABVD (Adriamycin, Bleomycin, Vinblastine, Dacarbazine) regimen for Hodgkin’s lymphoma, suddenly develops non-productive cough with low-grade fever. Which among these chemotherapeutic agents causes this toxicity?

A. Adriamycin
B. Bleomycin
C. Vinblastine
D. Dacarbazine

A

B. Bleomycin

32
Q
  1. What is the mainstay in the treatment for acute severe exacerbation of asthma?

A. Inhaled corticosteroids
B. Inhaled SABA
C. Inhaled MgSO4
D. Inhaled anticholinergics

A

B. Inhaled SABA

33
Q
  1. Which laboratory finding best describes an exudative pleural effusion?

A. Pleural fluid LDH/serum LDH > 0.5
B. Pleural fluid LDH more than 2/3 the normal upper limit for serum LDH
C. Serum protein and pleural fluid gradient >31 g/L
D. Pleural fluid protein/serum protein < 0.5

A

B. Pleural fluid LDH more than 2/3 the normal upper limit for serum LDH

34
Q
  1. Which spirometry result is diagnostic of an obstructive ventilatory defect?

A. Low FEV1/FVC RATIO
B. Low FVC
C. High FEV1/FVC ratio
D. High FVC

A

A. Low FEV1/FVC RATIO

35
Q
  1. What is the imaging modality of choice for confirming bronchiectasis?

A. Routine radiography
B. Chest ultrasound
C. Magnetic resonance imaging
D. Chest CT Scan

A

D. Chest CT Scan

36
Q
  1. A 20/F, presents with hypertension and grade 2 pedal edema. She was treated for skin infection 3 weeks ago. Lab results: decreased C3; normal C4; increased titer for ASO anti-DNAse. What is likely diagnosis?

A. Lupus nephritis
B. IgA nephropathy
C. Minimal change disease
D. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

D. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

37
Q
  1. Which condition will give a positive ANCA result?

A. Alport’s syndrome
B. Amyloidosis
C. Good Pasture’s Syndrome
D. Anti-Phospholipid Syndrome

A

C. Good Pasture’s Syndrome

38
Q
  1. Which finding is sufficient in the absence of other symptoms or signs of sleep apnea to carry out a sleep study for diagnosis?

A. Chronic snoring
B. Observed apneas
C. Narrowed pharyngeal airway
D. Excessive daytime sleepness

A

D. Excessive daytime sleepness

39
Q
  1. Which individual has high risk for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) and must be screened for OSA symptoms?

A. 49/M with BMI 29kg/m2
B. 56/F with current pneumonia
C. 62/M with congestive heart failure
D. 78/M with essential hypertension who had a recent fall

A

C. 62/M with congestive heart failure

40
Q
  1. A 60/M is having his periodic health maintenance. He denies any symptoms except than his “usual fatigue”; PE is unremarkable except for BMI 33kg/m2. What should you include during this visit?A. STOP Questionnaire
    B. Berlin Questionnaire
    C. IPAG Questionnaire
    D. Multivariate Apnea Prediction Questionnaire
A

B. Berlin Questionnaire

41
Q
  1. In which scenario would you order a follow-up polysomnogram?

A. One month after CPAP is initiated
B. Two weeks surgical treatment for mild to moderate OSA
C. Refractory hypertension in patient with moderate OSA
D. Substantial weight gain with return of symptoms while on CPAP

A

D. Substantial weight gain with return of symptoms while on CPAP

42
Q
  1. What treatment strategy has evidence of benefit for patients with obstructive sleep apnea?

A. Paroxetine
B. Oxygen supplementation
C. Buteyko breathing exercises
D. Positional therapy (lateral/non-supine)

A

D. Positional therapy (lateral/non-supine)

43
Q
  1. Which advice should you give a patient with mild obstructive sleep apnea in considering treatment options?

A. Treatment may be withheld for mild OSA and symptoms just monitored
B. CPAP is superior to dental appliances in reducing events during sleep
C. Surgery (uvulopalatopharyngoplasty) is offered for those with low surgical risk
D. CPAP does not reduce insulin resistance and CV risk in those with OSA

A

B. CPAP is superior to dental appliances in reducing events during sleep

44
Q
  1. What is the gold standard in the diagnosis of Leptospirosis?

A. Dark-field microscopy
B. Indirect Fluorescent Antibody Test
C. Microscopic Agglutination Test
D. Radioimmunoassay

A

C. Microscopic Agglutination Test

45
Q
  1. What is the antibiotic of choice for moderate-severe Leptospirosis?

A. Ampicillin
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Doxycycline
D. Penicillin G

A

D. Penicillin G

46
Q
  1. What is the cause of hypokalemia in patients with AKI due to Leptospirosis?

A. Glomerular damage
B. Tubular dysfunction
C. Tubulo-interstitial nephritis
D. Vasculitis

A

B. Tubular dysfunction

47
Q
  1. A 25/F, volunteered to help in the relief program in the recent typhoon Usman in Bicol. She was one of the first responders. What is the recommended post-exposure prophylaxis for her?

A. Doxycycline 200mg single dose within several hours from exposure
B. Doxycycline 200mg single dose within 24 to 72 hours from exposure
C. Docycyline 200mg once daily for 3-5 days to be started within 24 to 72 hours from exposure
D. Doxycycline 200mg once weekly until the end of exposure

A

D. Doxycycline 200mg once weekly until the end of exposure

48
Q
  1. What is the iron deficiency anemia of CKD patient with serum ferritin of <200ng/mL and TSAT of <20%?

A. Absolute iron deficiency
B. Functional iron deficiency
C. Indeterminate
D. Normal

A

A. Absolute iron deficiency

49
Q
  1. A 35/M, case of CKD Stage 3 secondary to Chronic Glomerulonephritis, complains of headache. He has uncontrolled blood pressure ranging from 160-180/100-110 despite intake of Amlodipine 10mg and Clonidine 75mg BID. His latest eGFR is 45mL/min/1.73m2, 24-hour urinary protein excretion = 5grams/24hr, Na+: 138 mEq/L, K+: 4.0 mmol/L. What combined anti-hypertensive drug is preferred?

A. ARB + thiazide
B. ARB + spironolactone
C. Amlodipine + metoprolol
D. Metoprolol + clonidine

A

A. ARB + thiazide

50
Q
  1. A 55/M, case of CKD Stage 4 secondary to diabetic kidney disease, has his monthly follow-up with the following laboratory results: Creatinine 2.5mg/dL; BUN 35mg/dL; Na+ 136mEq/L; K+ 4.3mmol/L; Ca++ 9.0mg/dL; Phosphorus 3.5 mg/dL; Hgb 10g/dL. He is maintained on Erythropoietin Stimulating Agent and ACEI. For his next month’s follow-up, the following laboratory tests are necessary, EXCEPT?

A. Calcium, phosphorus
B. CBC
C. Creatinine
D. Potassium

A

A. Calcium, phosphorus

RITE (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions