FE Questions 1 Flashcards
(216 cards)
1
Q
Which method is used to find the minimum and maximum value of a function in calculus
A
Optimization
2
Q
What is the primary purpose of a confidence interval in statistics
A
To estimate the population mean
3
Q
What is a type 1 error in statistics
A
when you reject a null hypothesis that is actually true
4
Q
What is a type 2 error in statistics
A
When you fail to reject a null hypothesis that is actually false
5
Q
what type of function is a binomial distribution
A
discrete probability function
6
Q
What are the primary uses of the determinant of a matrix
A
Determining weather the matrix is singular or non-singular
Determining linear independence
Calculating the area of a parallegram or volume of a parallelepiped
7
Q
Describe the distribution of the central limit theorem
A
the distribution of the sample mean approaches a normal distribution as the sample size increases
8
Q
In probability what does the permutation consider
A
arrangements in a specific order
9
Q
In probability what does the combination consider
A
combinations that don’t take order into account
10
Q
In statistics what is a hypothesis test
A
a statistical test which is used to determine if there is enough evidence to reject a null hypothesis
11
Q
As a professional engineer what should be prioritized when making decisions
A
Ensuring the safety, health, and welfare of the public
12
Q
What is the main purpose of code of ethics for the professional engineers
A
to establish guidelines for acceptable professional conduct
13
Q
The payback period is the length of time required for an investment to recover its what
A
initial cost
14
Q
Name three components of cash flow
A
operating cost, investment cost, salvage cost
15
Q
Name two factors that affect the value of money over time
A
inflation rates, interest rates
16
Q
What is a sunk cost
A
costs that have already been paid and cannot be recovered
17
Q
Describe depreciation
A
the decrease in the value of an asset over time
18
Q
define moment of inertia
A
the measure of an object’s resistance to rotational motion
19
Q
What is the coefficient of friction between two surfaces
A
the ratio of force of friction to the normal force between the surfaces
20
Q
Name three conditions that must be met for an object to be in static equilibrium
A
- The net torque must be zero
- The net force must be zero
- The object must be at rest
21
Q
Define Normal Force
A
the force exerted by a surface perpendicular to the point of contact with an object
22
Q
Name three conditions for a rigid body to be in equilibrium
A
- The body is at rest or moving with constant velocity
- The sum of all forces acting on the body is zero
- The sum of all moments acting on the body are zero
23
Q
What does the principle of superposition state
A
The total force on a body is equal to the sum of all the individual forces acting on it
24
Q
The principal of virtual work states that the virtual work done by all focres and moments acting on a body is what
A
zero
25
Describe the work done by forces acting on a body and the changes in its energy
The work done by all the external forces acting on a body is equal to change in kinetic energy of the body
26
Define impulse
The change in momentum of an object due to an applied force
27
What type of force is a frictional force
a non-conservative force
28
Give examples of a conservative force
gravitational force, elastic force in a spring
29
What is the difference between axial stress and bending stess
Axial stress is caused by an axial load while the bending stress is caused by a transverse load
30
Describe what happens to ductile materials
They deform before fracturing
31
Describe what happens to brittle materials
They fracture without significant deformation
32
Define the modulus of elasticity
The ratio of stress to strain within the elastic range of a material
33
Define elastic deformation
the deformation that occurs within the elastic range of a material
34
Define plastic deformation
occurs beyond the elastic range of material, where permanent deformation occurs and the material does not return to its orginal shape after the applied force is removed
35
The flexural stress of a beam is directly proportional to the the what
distance from the neutral axis
36
What is the neutral axis
an imaginary line within a beam that experiences no stress when subjected to bending
37
In a rectangular cross-section beam subjected to a bening moment, where does the maximum shear stress occur?
At the center of the beam
38
What is the relationship between the maximum bending moment and the maximum deflection in a beam
They are directly proportional to each other
39
What is ultimate strenght
Ultimate strength is the maximum stress a material can sustain before fracturing
40
What is yield strenght
the stress at which material starts to deform pemanently
41
Name three mechanical properties of a material
hardness, decutility, tensile strength
42
What is the most commonly used reinforcement material in composite materials
Carbon Fiber
43
What does adding particulate composites to composite materials do
Made by adding small particles to improve strength or other properties
44
What does adding laminate composites to composite materials do
layering two or more materials together to create a stronger and more durable materal
45
What does adding metal matrix composites to composite materials do
adding small particles of metal to another metal to improve its strenght and othe properties
46
What does the Charpy test measure in a material
Impact toughness
47
What is Atomic Force Microscopy used for
provide information about the surface topography and mechanical properties of a material
48
What is hardness testing used for
determining the resistance of a material to indenttion, scratching or abrasion
49
What is X-Ray diffraction used for
determining the composition of a material
50
What measures a fluid's resistance to flow
viscosity
51
What measures a fluid's tendency to resist a change in its state of motion
inertia
52
What does a oscilloscope do
to visualize and measure electonic signals, such as voltage or current
53
What does a venturi meter do
to meaure fluid pressure and flow rate in a pipe
54
What does a thermometer do
to measure temperture
55
What does a spectrophotometer do
to meaure the absorption or transmission of light by a substance
56
What does a manometer measure
to measure fluid pressure and flow rate in pipes
57
What is a common type of pump used in fluid systems
positive displacement pump
58
What does a compressor pump do
used to compress gases
59
What does a turbine pump do
a centrifugal pumpe that uses a turbine like impeller to move fluid
60
What does a venturi pump do
uses the pressure differential created by a venturi tube to draw fluid into the pump
61
Base on Darcy-Weisbach equaiton, what factors influence the friction factor in pipe flow
Reynold's number and pipe surface roughness
62
Define Mach number
ratio of an object's speed to the speed of sound in a surrounding fluid
63
Define Froude number
compares the inertial and gravitational foreces acting on a fluid, primarily used in open channel flow and wave propagation problems
64
Define Reynold's number
dimensionless number used to predict the onset of turbulences in a fluid flow
65
Define Weber number
ratio of inertial forces to surface tension forces and is used to describe the behavior of fluid interfaces and multiphase flows
66
What does level distance measure
the shortest distance along a horizontal planed while taking into account any changes in elevation
67
What does Offset distanc measure
the perpendicular distance between a point and a line
68
What does verical distance measure
the height difference between two points measure along a vertical plane
69
What does horizontal distance measure
the measure of the shotest distance between two points on a horizontal plane, without considering elevation changes
70
What common type of surveying instrument is used to measure angles
Theodolite
71
Describe Chain surveying measure
used for directly measuring the distance between two points on the ground using a tape meaure, chain, or similar linear measuring instrument
72
Describe Theodolite surveying measure
focusing on measuring angles
73
Describe GPS measure
provides coordinates through signals from satellites
74
Describe electronic distance measurement measure
uses electronic methods to measure distance with high precision
75
What is precision with respect to surveying
a measure of the consistency and repeatability measurements taken by a surveying instrument
76
Describe Traverse closure error
A type of error that is checked when calculating the sum of latitudes and departures
77
Describe Linear misclosure
the difference between the lengths of two lines or features in a survey
78
Describe Systematic error
consistant, predictable errors that can result from instrument biases, environmental factors, or measurement techniques
79
Describe angular error
discrepancies in angle measurements, which can be caused by instrument inaccuracies, misalignment, or operator errors
80
What is the slope of a mass haul diagram curve called and how is it calculated
The slope ratio, calculated as rise/run x100%
81
In plane surveying which coordinate system is most commonly used?
Cartesian coordinate system
82
Name three common methods for treating drinking water on a large scale
coalgulation, flocculation, chlorination
83
What is the typical pH range of unpolluted rainwater
5.0-5.6
84
Name three common methods of treating wastewater
aeration, sedimentation, activated sludge process
85
What is the name of the process of water moving through soil and rock
percolation
86
Name three factors that affect the rate of evapotranspiration
wind speed, humidity, temperature
87
Describe Desalination
the process of removing dissolved ions, such as salts and minerals, from water sources like seawater or brackish water.
88
Describe activated slude process
a biological wastewater treatment method that uses microorganisms to break down organic matter and pollutants in waste water.
89
Describe filtration
a physical process used in water treatment to remove suspended solids, particles, and sometimes microorganisms from water by passing it through a porous medium, such as and or a membrane
90
Describe titration
a lab technique used to determine the concentration of a substnace or a solution.
91
What is the primary function of a coagulant in water treatment
to remove suspended solids
92
Which process involves introducing oxygen into wastewater to promote the growth of aerobic bacteria
Aeration
93
Which process involves adding an acid or a base to achieve a neutral pH of 7
Neutralization
94
Describe precipitation process
involves the formation of a solid precipitate from a solution due to the chemical reaction of two or more substance.
95
Describe alkalinity adjustment
a process of adding chemical to adjust the pH of a solution to be more basic or alkaline.
96
Which factor has the greates impact on the hydrological cycle
precipitation patterns
97
Which water treatment process is most effective in removing pathogens such as baceria and viruses
Disinfection
98
Name three static loads and one dynamic load
Static: Dead, live, snow
Dynamic: Wind
99
What are the primary reasons to use prestressed concrete
To reduce the deflection of a structure, and to increase the tensile strength of the concrete
100
According to the ACI, for columns with rectangular ties, what is the minimum thickness of a reinforced concrete column
10 inches
101
According to the ACI, the minimum reinforcement ratio for a concrete beam should be
0.002
102
Name three factors that can influence the maximum allowable stress in a concrete compression member
Concrete compressive strenght, reinforcement ratio, load duration and type
103
According to the ACI what is the minimum thickness for a reinfoced concrete slab made of of normal weight concrete
4 inches
104
In linear buckling analysis of a structure, what is the significance of the eigenvalue obtained from the analysis
the eigenvalue represents the critical load factor at which buckling occurs
105
Name three factors that contribute to the deflection of a beam under an applied load
Elastic modulus of the material, moment of inertia of the cross-section, length of the beam
106
What is the force method used for
analyzing statically indeterminate structures.
107
What is the Slope-deflection method used for
analyzing continuous beams that have varying cross-sectional properties
108
What is the moment distribution method used for
analyzing continuous beams with constant cross-sectional properties
109
What is the conjugate beam method used for
used for solving beam deflection problems
110
Name three effects that are condsidered when designing a reinforced concrete column
Cracking, shrinkage, creep
111
What adjustment to a steel beam leads to a higher design moment capacity
increasing the flange thickness
112
What is the approximate value of the at rest coefficient of lateral earth pressure for a cohesionless soil
0.4
113
What does the triaxial test measure
shear strength paramters of soil
114
What does the penetration test measure
evaluate soil properties like density, consistency, and stratification
115
What does the direct shear test measure
shear strength parameters of soils, but not as well as the triaxial test
116
What does the consolidation test measure
the compressibility and consolidation characteristics of soils, particularly for fine-grained soils like clays
117
Name three factors that affect the settlement of a foundation
soil density, soil type, soil mositure content
118
What type of soil has the highest plasticity index
clay
119
What does the permeability test measure
the soil's ability to allow water to flow through it
120
What is the minimum recommended factor of safety for a slope subjected to stability analysis
1.5
121
What is the minimum recommended factor of safety for a shallow foundation subjected to bearing capacity analysis
2
122
Describe a sand cone test
the most appropiate method for determining the in-situ density of soil. It measures the density of the soil in its natural state
123
Describe a proctor test
aka the compaction test, is used to determine the optimal moisture content and maximum dry desnisty of a soil when it is compacted.
124
Describe an Atterberg Limits test
used to determine the consistency and behavior of fine-grained soils at different moisture contents
125
Describe a standard penetration test
used to estimate the relative density and strength of granualr soils
126
Which soil classification system is based on particle size and plasticity characteristics
USCS classification
127
What type of foundation is recommended for a structure built on expansive soils to minimize the risk of foundation damage
mat foundation with reinforced concrete
128
Describe erosion
the process of transportion and deposition of soil particles by the action of water or wind
129
Describe saltation
a specific type of the erosian process where soil particles are lifted into the wind or water and then travel short distances before settling back down
130
Describe suspension
a specific type of the erosion process where fine soil particles are carried within a fluid, such as water or air, without settling down
131
Describe creep in regards to erosian
the slow, continuous movement of soil particles down a slope, primarily caused by gravity.
132
What is the design speed of a freeway
65 mph
133
What is the typical range of lengthes for a Bus Rapid Transit (BRT) system
10-20 miles
134
According to AAHSTO, what is the maximum allowable grade for a highway on rolling terrain
6%
135
According to the Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices (MUTCD), what is the minimum width required for a marked pedestrian crossing?
10 ft
136
Name three characteristics that affect the level of service on a roadway
Flow rate, speed, density
137
What geometric design element is critical in reducing the entry speed of vehicles at a roundabout
entry angle
138
Name a mandatory standard in the MUTCD
The color of regulatory signs
139
Name factors to be considered in the design of a horizontal curve on a roadway
Superelevation, curve radius, speed limit, sight distance, roadway width, roadway grade, roadway alignment, traffic volume
140
What is the purpose of a channelized turn lane in intersection design
to separate conflicting movements
141
What is the pupose of a vertical curve in road design
to provide a smooth transition between different grades of a roadway
142
Name three types of traffic control devices that regulates traffice movement on a roadway
traffic signal, yield sign, pavement markings
143
Which project management technique is used to define project activities and their dependencies to determine the project schedule
critical path method
144
What is the most common type of insulation used in construction
fiberglass
145
Describe a bid solicatation
a document that outlines the requirements for prospective bidders to participate in the bidding process for a construction project
146
Describe instructions for bidders
a document that provides information on how to prepare and submit a bid for a construction project
147
Describe specificaitons
a document that outlines the requirements for the project work and materials, including the quality and quantity of materials, construction methods, and performance standards
148
Describe drawings
graphical representations of the construction project, showing the layout, dimensions, and details of the various elements
149
Describe a lump sum contract
Fixed price contract
150
Describe a unit price contract
typically used for a construction project that involves significant excavation work or other work that may result in unforeseen subsurface conditions. Payment is based on the quantity and type of work preformed
151
Describe a cost plus percentage contract
the contractor is paid for the actual cost of the work, plus a percentage markup to cover overhead and profit.
152
Describe a guaranteed maximum price contract
the contractor agrees to complete the project for a set maximum price, with any cost overruns borne by the contractor.
153
Describe a Design-bid-build
the owner contracts a designer to create the design documents and a construction contractor to execute the construction based on those design documents. This method does NOT have a construction manager
154
Describe a Design-build
the owner contracts a single entity that is responsible for both the design and construction of the project.
155
Describe a integrated project delivery
involves collaboration between the owner, designer, and contractor, where they work together as a team from the beginning of the project to deliver the project
156
Describe construction management at risk
The owner hires a construction manager to oversee the construction process and act as the owner's representative, and the owner contracts separately with a designer to create the design documents and a construction contractor to execute the construction based off those documents
157
When must emplyers provide fall protection
elevations of 6 feet or greater
158
What is the maximum allowable noise expoure level for an employee in an 8-hour workday
85 decibels
159
What is the primary purpose of a crawler dozer
pushing and grading materials
160
What is the primary purpose of an excavator
excavating on slopes and in loose soil conditions
161
Describe the purpose of a silt fence
a barrier made of geotextile fabric that is designed to filter sediment and other pollutants from stormwater runoff
162
Describe the purpose of riprap
intercept and slow down the flow of stormwater runoff
163
Describe the purpose of straw bale barriers
designed to slow down the flow of stormwater runoff (not as effective as rip rap) and filter sediment
164
Describe the purpose of vegetative buffer
planted areas designed to filter and slow down stormwater runoff (but not as effective as riprap in preventing erosion)
165
Describe hydroseeding
process of spraying a mixture of grass seed, fertilizer, and mulch onto bare soil surfaces to promote the growth of vegetation and stablize the soil
166
Describe sediment basins
a structure designed to capture sediment and other pollutants from stormwater runoff
167
Describe geotextile fabric
a permeable barrier used to filter sediment and other pollutants from stormwater runoff
168
Which tunneling method is suitable for soft ground conditions and high water tables
Bored tunneling using a Tunnel Boring Machine
169
What is hydraulic residence time
detention time
170
What is grit responsible for
removing inert dense material to prevent wear on wastwater equipment
171
What is rack responsible for
removes large materials like logs
172
What is filtration responsible for
removes fine particles
173
What is coagulation responsible for
adds chemicals to make particles stick and sink to remove through sedimentation
174
Describe equalization (wastewater)
process of balancing or stabilizing the flow and composition of wastewater before it undergoes further treatment
175
Describe sedimentation (wastewater)
removal of suspended solids by letting them settle
176
Describe pump (wastewater)
to add sufficient head for wastewater treatment
177
Describe flocculation (wasterwater)
helps with the removal of suspended solids, creates large flocs that improve settling and filitration
178
What step is done in the first step of the secondary wastewater treatment plant
Thickening
179
What is the activated sludge procss
A biological wasterwater treatment process
180
How does the activated sludge process work
It decomposes organics compounds by using microorganisms
181
What happens to BOD after waste water treatment
decreases
182
What are the biological processes for wastewater treatment
Trickling filter
Stabilization ponds
Rotating biological reactors
Activated sludge process
183
What is the intermediate zone between aerobic and anaerobic ponds
Facultative bacteria
184
What is the top zone between aerobic and anaerobic ponds
aerobic bacterica
185
What is the bottom zone between aerobic and anaerobic ponds
organic solids
186
What does MLSS stand for
mixed liquor suspended solid
187
What are some examples of community water systems when it comes to the type of public water systems
same population throughout the year (i.e. homes)
188
What are some examples of transietn non-community water systems when it comes to the type of public water systems
people don't stay a long time (i.e. gas stations)
189
What are some examples of non-transient non-community water systems when it comes to the type of public water systems
same population for at least six month period (i.e. schools)
190
More flexable materials are what
ductile
191
Materials that break quickly are what
brittle
192
What are the three types of primary bonding
ionic, covalent, metallic
193
What does young's modulus represent
slope
194
What does hardness measure
a material's ability to resist localized plastic deformation
195
What are the three types of failure
Fracture, Fatigue, Creep
196
Descibe the fracture
two steps, crack formation and propagation
two types, ductile and brittle
197
Describe fatigue
caused by repeated dynamic and cyclic stress
198
Describe creep
depends on time and permanent deformation when subjected to static constant stress and pressure
199
Describe thoughness
amount of energy absorbed at failure
200
Describe resilience
amount of energy absorbed at elastic deformation
201
Descrbie Ductility
measure resistance to fracture
202
Describe neckin
when speciman has a reduction in area before fraction
203
A high hardness index will have what
After Brinell test, the metal will have a small indentation
the metal will have a high tensile strength
204
A low hardness index will have what
After Brinell test, the metal will have a large indentation
the metal will have a low tensile strength
205
Describe Charpy test
deals with fracture, measure the energy that is required to fracture the speciman
206
Describe Brinell test
determines a materials resistance to localized plastic deformation or resistance to penetration, spere indentation, hardness
207
Describe Rockwell test
determines a materials resistance to localized plastic deformation or resistance to penetration, diamond cone indentation, hardness
208
Describe Tensile test
measures materials response to stress
209
What are the three types of thermal processing that change the physical and mechanical properties
Quenching, Annealing, Tempering
210
Describe hot working (rolling process)
elevated temperature, typically above their recrystallization temperature, improved ductility reduces hardness
211
describe cold working (rolling process)
increases the strength of steel, but decreases ductility
212
describe tempering (rolling process)
improves hardened stell, reduces hardness and increases toughness
213
describe annealing (rolling process)
heat treatment process designed to improve the mechanical properties of metals and alloys
214
Describe hot working for a metal
treatment takes place at tempature above recrystallization temperature
hardness and yield strenght decrease
ductility increase
less energy required for deformation
215
Describe Anode reactions
they loss electrons, e- on right side of equation
216
Describe reduction reactions
they gain electrons, e- on left side of equation
