Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

FE Conceptual Review > FE Questions 1 > Flashcards

FE Questions 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which method is used to find the minimum and maximum value of a function in calculus

A

Optimization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the primary purpose of a confidence interval in statistics

A

To estimate the population mean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a type 1 error in statistics

A

when you reject a null hypothesis that is actually true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a type 2 error in statistics

A

When you fail to reject a null hypothesis that is actually false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what type of function is a binomial distribution

A

discrete probability function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the primary uses of the determinant of a matrix

A

Determining weather the matrix is singular or non-singular
Determining linear independence
Calculating the area of a parallegram or volume of a parallelepiped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the distribution of the central limit theorem

A

the distribution of the sample mean approaches a normal distribution as the sample size increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In probability what does the permutation consider

A

arrangements in a specific order

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In probability what does the combination consider

A

combinations that don’t take order into account

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In statistics what is a hypothesis test

A

a statistical test which is used to determine if there is enough evidence to reject a null hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

As a professional engineer what should be prioritized when making decisions

A

Ensuring the safety, health, and welfare of the public

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the main purpose of code of ethics for the professional engineers

A

to establish guidelines for acceptable professional conduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The payback period is the length of time required for an investment to recover its what

A

initial cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name three components of cash flow

A

operating cost, investment cost, salvage cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name two factors that affect the value of money over time

A

inflation rates, interest rates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a sunk cost

A

costs that have already been paid and cannot be recovered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe depreciation

A

the decrease in the value of an asset over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

define moment of inertia

A

the measure of an object’s resistance to rotational motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the coefficient of friction between two surfaces

A

the ratio of force of friction to the normal force between the surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name three conditions that must be met for an object to be in static equilibrium

A
  1. The net torque must be zero
  2. The net force must be zero
  3. The object must be at rest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define Normal Force

A

the force exerted by a surface perpendicular to the point of contact with an object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name three conditions for a rigid body to be in equilibrium

A
  1. The body is at rest or moving with constant velocity
  2. The sum of all forces acting on the body is zero
  3. The sum of all moments acting on the body are zero
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does the principle of superposition state

A

The total force on a body is equal to the sum of all the individual forces acting on it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The principal of virtual work states that the virtual work done by all focres and moments acting on a body is what

A

zero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe the work done by forces acting on a body and the changes in its energy

A

The work done by all the external forces acting on a body is equal to change in kinetic energy of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Define impulse

A

The change in momentum of an object due to an applied force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What type of force is a frictional force

A

a non-conservative force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Give examples of a conservative force

A

gravitational force, elastic force in a spring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the difference between axial stress and bending stess

A

Axial stress is caused by an axial load while the bending stress is caused by a transverse load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Describe what happens to ductile materials

A

They deform before fracturing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Describe what happens to brittle materials

A

They fracture without significant deformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Define the modulus of elasticity

A

The ratio of stress to strain within the elastic range of a material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Define elastic deformation

A

the deformation that occurs within the elastic range of a material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Define plastic deformation

A

occurs beyond the elastic range of material, where permanent deformation occurs and the material does not return to its orginal shape after the applied force is removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The flexural stress of a beam is directly proportional to the the what

A

distance from the neutral axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the neutral axis

A

an imaginary line within a beam that experiences no stress when subjected to bending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In a rectangular cross-section beam subjected to a bening moment, where does the maximum shear stress occur?

A

At the center of the beam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the relationship between the maximum bending moment and the maximum deflection in a beam

A

They are directly proportional to each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is ultimate strenght

A

Ultimate strength is the maximum stress a material can sustain before fracturing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is yield strenght

A

the stress at which material starts to deform pemanently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Name three mechanical properties of a material

A

hardness, decutility, tensile strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the most commonly used reinforcement material in composite materials

A

Carbon Fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What does adding particulate composites to composite materials do

A

Made by adding small particles to improve strength or other properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does adding laminate composites to composite materials do

A

layering two or more materials together to create a stronger and more durable materal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does adding metal matrix composites to composite materials do

A

adding small particles of metal to another metal to improve its strenght and othe properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What does the Charpy test measure in a material

A

Impact toughness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is Atomic Force Microscopy used for

A

provide information about the surface topography and mechanical properties of a material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is hardness testing used for

A

determining the resistance of a material to indenttion, scratching or abrasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is X-Ray diffraction used for

A

determining the composition of a material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What measures a fluid’s resistance to flow

A

viscosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What measures a fluid’s tendency to resist a change in its state of motion

A

inertia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What does a oscilloscope do

A

to visualize and measure electonic signals, such as voltage or current

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does a venturi meter do

A

to meaure fluid pressure and flow rate in a pipe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What does a thermometer do

A

to measure temperture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does a spectrophotometer do

A

to meaure the absorption or transmission of light by a substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does a manometer measure

A

to measure fluid pressure and flow rate in pipes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is a common type of pump used in fluid systems

A

positive displacement pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What does a compressor pump do

A

used to compress gases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What does a turbine pump do

A

a centrifugal pumpe that uses a turbine like impeller to move fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What does a venturi pump do

A

uses the pressure differential created by a venturi tube to draw fluid into the pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Base on Darcy-Weisbach equaiton, what factors influence the friction factor in pipe flow

A

Reynold’s number and pipe surface roughness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Define Mach number

A

ratio of an object’s speed to the speed of sound in a surrounding fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Define Froude number

A

compares the inertial and gravitational foreces acting on a fluid, primarily used in open channel flow and wave propagation problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Define Reynold’s number

A

dimensionless number used to predict the onset of turbulences in a fluid flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Define Weber number

A

ratio of inertial forces to surface tension forces and is used to describe the behavior of fluid interfaces and multiphase flows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What does level distance measure

A

the shortest distance along a horizontal planed while taking into account any changes in elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What does Offset distanc measure

A

the perpendicular distance between a point and a line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What does verical distance measure

A

the height difference between two points measure along a vertical plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What does horizontal distance measure

A

the measure of the shotest distance between two points on a horizontal plane, without considering elevation changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What common type of surveying instrument is used to measure angles

A

Theodolite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Describe Chain surveying measure

A

used for directly measuring the distance between two points on the ground using a tape meaure, chain, or similar linear measuring instrument

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Describe Theodolite surveying measure

A

focusing on measuring angles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Describe GPS measure

A

provides coordinates through signals from satellites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Describe electronic distance measurement measure

A

uses electronic methods to measure distance with high precision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is precision with respect to surveying

A

a measure of the consistency and repeatability measurements taken by a surveying instrument

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Describe Traverse closure error

A

A type of error that is checked when calculating the sum of latitudes and departures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Describe Linear misclosure

A

the difference between the lengths of two lines or features in a survey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Describe Systematic error

A

consistant, predictable errors that can result from instrument biases, environmental factors, or measurement techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Describe angular error

A

discrepancies in angle measurements, which can be caused by instrument inaccuracies, misalignment, or operator errors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the slope of a mass haul diagram curve called and how is it calculated

A

The slope ratio, calculated as rise/run x100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

In plane surveying which coordinate system is most commonly used?

A

Cartesian coordinate system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Name three common methods for treating drinking water on a large scale

A

coalgulation, flocculation, chlorination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the typical pH range of unpolluted rainwater

A

5.0-5.6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Name three common methods of treating wastewater

A

aeration, sedimentation, activated sludge process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the name of the process of water moving through soil and rock

A

percolation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Name three factors that affect the rate of evapotranspiration

A

wind speed, humidity, temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Describe Desalination

A

the process of removing dissolved ions, such as salts and minerals, from water sources like seawater or brackish water.

88
Q

Describe activated slude process

A

a biological wastewater treatment method that uses microorganisms to break down organic matter and pollutants in waste water.

89
Q

Describe filtration

A

a physical process used in water treatment to remove suspended solids, particles, and sometimes microorganisms from water by passing it through a porous medium, such as and or a membrane

90
Q

Describe titration

A

a lab technique used to determine the concentration of a substnace or a solution.

91
Q

What is the primary function of a coagulant in water treatment

A

to remove suspended solids

92
Q

Which process involves introducing oxygen into wastewater to promote the growth of aerobic bacteria

A

Aeration

93
Q

Which process involves adding an acid or a base to achieve a neutral pH of 7

A

Neutralization

94
Q

Describe precipitation process

A

involves the formation of a solid precipitate from a solution due to the chemical reaction of two or more substance.

95
Q

Describe alkalinity adjustment

A

a process of adding chemical to adjust the pH of a solution to be more basic or alkaline.

96
Q

Which factor has the greates impact on the hydrological cycle

A

precipitation patterns

97
Q

Which water treatment process is most effective in removing pathogens such as baceria and viruses

A

Disinfection

98
Q

Name three static loads and one dynamic load

A

Static: Dead, live, snow
Dynamic: Wind

99
Q

What are the primary reasons to use prestressed concrete

A

To reduce the deflection of a structure, and to increase the tensile strength of the concrete

100
Q

According to the ACI, for columns with rectangular ties, what is the minimum thickness of a reinforced concrete column

A

10 inches

101
Q

According to the ACI, the minimum reinforcement ratio for a concrete beam should be

A

0.002

102
Q

Name three factors that can influence the maximum allowable stress in a concrete compression member

A

Concrete compressive strenght, reinforcement ratio, load duration and type

103
Q

According to the ACI what is the minimum thickness for a reinfoced concrete slab made of of normal weight concrete

A

4 inches

104
Q

In linear buckling analysis of a structure, what is the significance of the eigenvalue obtained from the analysis

A

the eigenvalue represents the critical load factor at which buckling occurs

105
Q

Name three factors that contribute to the deflection of a beam under an applied load

A

Elastic modulus of the material, moment of inertia of the cross-section, length of the beam

106
Q

What is the force method used for

A

analyzing statically indeterminate structures.

107
Q

What is the Slope-deflection method used for

A

analyzing continuous beams that have varying cross-sectional properties

108
Q

What is the moment distribution method used for

A

analyzing continuous beams with constant cross-sectional properties

109
Q

What is the conjugate beam method used for

A

used for solving beam deflection problems

110
Q

Name three effects that are condsidered when designing a reinforced concrete column

A

Cracking, shrinkage, creep

111
Q

What adjustment to a steel beam leads to a higher design moment capacity

A

increasing the flange thickness

112
Q

What is the approximate value of the at rest coefficient of lateral earth pressure for a cohesionless soil

A

0.4

113
Q

What does the triaxial test measure

A

shear strength paramters of soil

114
Q

What does the penetration test measure

A

evaluate soil properties like density, consistency, and stratification

115
Q

What does the direct shear test measure

A

shear strength parameters of soils, but not as well as the triaxial test

116
Q

What does the consolidation test measure

A

the compressibility and consolidation characteristics of soils, particularly for fine-grained soils like clays

117
Q

Name three factors that affect the settlement of a foundation

A

soil density, soil type, soil mositure content

118
Q

What type of soil has the highest plasticity index

A

clay

119
Q

What does the permeability test measure

A

the soil’s ability to allow water to flow through it

120
Q

What is the minimum recommended factor of safety for a slope subjected to stability analysis

A

1.5

121
Q

What is the minimum recommended factor of safety for a shallow foundation subjected to bearing capacity analysis

A

2

122
Q

Describe a sand cone test

A

the most appropiate method for determining the in-situ density of soil. It measures the density of the soil in its natural state

123
Q

Describe a proctor test

A

aka the compaction test, is used to determine the optimal moisture content and maximum dry desnisty of a soil when it is compacted.

124
Q

Describe an Atterberg Limits test

A

used to determine the consistency and behavior of fine-grained soils at different moisture contents

125
Q

Describe a standard penetration test

A

used to estimate the relative density and strength of granualr soils

126
Q

Which soil classification system is based on particle size and plasticity characteristics

A

USCS classification

127
Q

What type of foundation is recommended for a structure built on expansive soils to minimize the risk of foundation damage

A

mat foundation with reinforced concrete

128
Q

Describe erosion

A

the process of transportion and deposition of soil particles by the action of water or wind

129
Q

Describe saltation

A

a specific type of the erosian process where soil particles are lifted into the wind or water and then travel short distances before settling back down

130
Q

Describe suspension

A

a specific type of the erosion process where fine soil particles are carried within a fluid, such as water or air, without settling down

131
Q

Describe creep in regards to erosian

A

the slow, continuous movement of soil particles down a slope, primarily caused by gravity.

132
Q

What is the design speed of a freeway

A

65 mph

133
Q

What is the typical range of lengthes for a Bus Rapid Transit (BRT) system

A

10-20 miles

134
Q

According to AAHSTO, what is the maximum allowable grade for a highway on rolling terrain

A

6%

135
Q

According to the Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices (MUTCD), what is the minimum width required for a marked pedestrian crossing?

A

10 ft

136
Q

Name three characteristics that affect the level of service on a roadway

A

Flow rate, speed, density

137
Q

What geometric design element is critical in reducing the entry speed of vehicles at a roundabout

A

entry angle

138
Q

Name a mandatory standard in the MUTCD

A

The color of regulatory signs

139
Q

Name factors to be considered in the design of a horizontal curve on a roadway

A

Superelevation, curve radius, speed limit, sight distance, roadway width, roadway grade, roadway alignment, traffic volume

140
Q

What is the purpose of a channelized turn lane in intersection design

A

to separate conflicting movements

141
Q

What is the pupose of a vertical curve in road design

A

to provide a smooth transition between different grades of a roadway

142
Q

Name three types of traffic control devices that regulates traffice movement on a roadway

A

traffic signal, yield sign, pavement markings

143
Q

Which project management technique is used to define project activities and their dependencies to determine the project schedule

A

critical path method

144
Q

What is the most common type of insulation used in construction

A

fiberglass

145
Q

Describe a bid solicatation

A

a document that outlines the requirements for prospective bidders to participate in the bidding process for a construction project

146
Q

Describe instructions for bidders

A

a document that provides information on how to prepare and submit a bid for a construction project

147
Q

Describe specificaitons

A

a document that outlines the requirements for the project work and materials, including the quality and quantity of materials, construction methods, and performance standards

148
Q

Describe drawings

A

graphical representations of the construction project, showing the layout, dimensions, and details of the various elements

149
Q

Describe a lump sum contract

A

Fixed price contract

150
Q

Describe a unit price contract

A

typically used for a construction project that involves significant excavation work or other work that may result in unforeseen subsurface conditions. Payment is based on the quantity and type of work preformed

151
Q

Describe a cost plus percentage contract

A

the contractor is paid for the actual cost of the work, plus a percentage markup to cover overhead and profit.

152
Q

Describe a guaranteed maximum price contract

A

the contractor agrees to complete the project for a set maximum price, with any cost overruns borne by the contractor.

153
Q

Describe a Design-bid-build

A

the owner contracts a designer to create the design documents and a construction contractor to execute the construction based on those design documents. This method does NOT have a construction manager

154
Q

Describe a Design-build

A

the owner contracts a single entity that is responsible for both the design and construction of the project.

155
Q

Describe a integrated project delivery

A

involves collaboration between the owner, designer, and contractor, where they work together as a team from the beginning of the project to deliver the project

156
Q

Describe construction management at risk

A

The owner hires a construction manager to oversee the construction process and act as the owner’s representative, and the owner contracts separately with a designer to create the design documents and a construction contractor to execute the construction based off those documents

157
Q

When must emplyers provide fall protection

A

elevations of 6 feet or greater

158
Q

What is the maximum allowable noise expoure level for an employee in an 8-hour workday

A

85 decibels

159
Q

What is the primary purpose of a crawler dozer

A

pushing and grading materials

160
Q

What is the primary purpose of an excavator

A

excavating on slopes and in loose soil conditions

161
Q

Describe the purpose of a silt fence

A

a barrier made of geotextile fabric that is designed to filter sediment and other pollutants from stormwater runoff

162
Q

Describe the purpose of riprap

A

intercept and slow down the flow of stormwater runoff

163
Q

Describe the purpose of straw bale barriers

A

designed to slow down the flow of stormwater runoff (not as effective as rip rap) and filter sediment

164
Q

Describe the purpose of vegetative buffer

A

planted areas designed to filter and slow down stormwater runoff (but not as effective as riprap in preventing erosion)

165
Q

Describe hydroseeding

A

process of spraying a mixture of grass seed, fertilizer, and mulch onto bare soil surfaces to promote the growth of vegetation and stablize the soil

166
Q

Describe sediment basins

A

a structure designed to capture sediment and other pollutants from stormwater runoff

167
Q

Describe geotextile fabric

A

a permeable barrier used to filter sediment and other pollutants from stormwater runoff

168
Q

Which tunneling method is suitable for soft ground conditions and high water tables

A

Bored tunneling using a Tunnel Boring Machine

169
Q

What is hydraulic residence time

A

detention time

170
Q

What is grit responsible for

A

removing inert dense material to prevent wear on wastwater equipment

171
Q

What is rack responsible for

A

removes large materials like logs

172
Q

What is filtration responsible for

A

removes fine particles

173
Q

What is coagulation responsible for

A

adds chemicals to make particles stick and sink to remove through sedimentation

174
Q

Describe equalization (wastewater)

A

process of balancing or stabilizing the flow and composition of wastewater before it undergoes further treatment

175
Q

Describe sedimentation (wastewater)

A

removal of suspended solids by letting them settle

176
Q

Describe pump (wastewater)

A

to add sufficient head for wastewater treatment

177
Q

Describe flocculation (wasterwater)

A

helps with the removal of suspended solids, creates large flocs that improve settling and filitration

178
Q

What step is done in the first step of the secondary wastewater treatment plant

A

Thickening

179
Q

What is the activated sludge procss

A

A biological wasterwater treatment process

180
Q

How does the activated sludge process work

A

It decomposes organics compounds by using microorganisms

181
Q

What happens to BOD after waste water treatment

A

decreases

182
Q

What are the biological processes for wastewater treatment

A

Trickling filter
Stabilization ponds
Rotating biological reactors
Activated sludge process

183
Q

What is the intermediate zone between aerobic and anaerobic ponds

A

Facultative bacteria

184
Q

What is the top zone between aerobic and anaerobic ponds

A

aerobic bacterica

185
Q

What is the bottom zone between aerobic and anaerobic ponds

A

organic solids

186
Q

What does MLSS stand for

A

mixed liquor suspended solid

187
Q

What are some examples of community water systems when it comes to the type of public water systems

A

same population throughout the year (i.e. homes)

188
Q

What are some examples of transietn non-community water systems when it comes to the type of public water systems

A

people don’t stay a long time (i.e. gas stations)

189
Q

What are some examples of non-transient non-community water systems when it comes to the type of public water systems

A

same population for at least six month period (i.e. schools)

190
Q

More flexable materials are what

A

ductile

191
Q

Materials that break quickly are what

A

brittle

192
Q

What are the three types of primary bonding

A

ionic, covalent, metallic

193
Q

What does young’s modulus represent

A

slope

194
Q

What does hardness measure

A

a material’s ability to resist localized plastic deformation

195
Q

What are the three types of failure

A

Fracture, Fatigue, Creep

196
Q

Descibe the fracture

A

two steps, crack formation and propagation
two types, ductile and brittle

197
Q

Describe fatigue

A

caused by repeated dynamic and cyclic stress

198
Q

Describe creep

A

depends on time and permanent deformation when subjected to static constant stress and pressure

199
Q

Describe thoughness

A

amount of energy absorbed at failure

200
Q

Describe resilience

A

amount of energy absorbed at elastic deformation

201
Q

Descrbie Ductility

A

measure resistance to fracture

202
Q

Describe neckin

A

when speciman has a reduction in area before fraction

203
Q

A high hardness index will have what

A

After Brinell test, the metal will have a small indentation
the metal will have a high tensile strength

204
Q

A low hardness index will have what

A

After Brinell test, the metal will have a large indentation
the metal will have a low tensile strength

205
Q

Describe Charpy test

A

deals with fracture, measure the energy that is required to fracture the speciman

206
Q

Describe Brinell test

A

determines a materials resistance to localized plastic deformation or resistance to penetration, spere indentation, hardness

207
Q

Describe Rockwell test

A

determines a materials resistance to localized plastic deformation or resistance to penetration, diamond cone indentation, hardness

208
Q

Describe Tensile test

A

measures materials response to stress

209
Q

What are the three types of thermal processing that change the physical and mechanical properties

A

Quenching, Annealing, Tempering

210
Q

Describe hot working (rolling process)

A

elevated temperature, typically above their recrystallization temperature, improved ductility reduces hardness

211
Q

describe cold working (rolling process)

A

increases the strength of steel, but decreases ductility

212
Q

describe tempering (rolling process)

A

improves hardened stell, reduces hardness and increases toughness

213
Q

describe annealing (rolling process)

A

heat treatment process designed to improve the mechanical properties of metals and alloys

214
Q

Describe hot working for a metal

A

treatment takes place at tempature above recrystallization temperature
hardness and yield strenght decrease
ductility increase
less energy required for deformation

215
Q

Describe Anode reactions

A

they loss electrons, e- on right side of equation

216
Q

Describe reduction reactions

A

they gain electrons, e- on left side of equation

FE Conceptual Review (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions