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FE Review > FE Exam Flashcards > Flashcards

FE Exam Flashcards

1
Q

If a pipe’s fluid velocity doubles, by what factor does the volumetric flow rate change?
A) Remains the same
B) Doubles
C) Quadruples
D) Halves

A

B) Doubles

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2
Q

A pump adds 50 Kpa to a system with an initial pressure of 100 Kpa. What’s the final pressure?
A) 50 Kpa
B) 200 Kpa
C) 150 Kpa
D) 250 Kpa

A

C) 150 Kpa

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3
Q

In a velocity-time graph of a piston movement, the area under the curve between t = 2s and t = 4s represents what physical quantity?
A) Distance
B) Acceleration
C) Force
D) Momentum

A

A) Distance

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4
Q

What is the main advantage of using linear interpolation to estimate a value within an existing data set?
A) Quick and simple calculations
B) High accuracy for complex functions
C) Considers all data points
D) Eliminates the need for data

A

A) Quick and simple calculations

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5
Q

For modeling pressure at different depths in a fluid, which math analysis is most appropriate?
A) Trigonometric functions
B) Linear regression
C) Polynomial Functions
D) Exponential Functions

A

D) Exponential Functions

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6
Q

You find 1 in 50 parts defective in manufacturing. What’s the best statistical model?
A) Normal distribution
B) Poisson distribution
C) Binomial distribution
D) Uniform distribution

A

B) Poisson distribution

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7
Q

Which method is best for modeling mechanical bearing failure rates?
A) Chi-Squared test
B) Weibull distribution
C) Median test
D) Gaussian mixture model

A

B) Weibull distribution

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8
Q

Which test determines if a new motor’s lifetime exceeds the industry standard?
A) t-Test
B) Z-test
C) F-test
D) Chi-squared test

A

A) t-Test

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9
Q

If a machine has a 5% rate of making flawed parts, what’s the best statistical model to use?
A) Normal
B) Poisson
C) Binomial
D) Uniform

A

C) Binomial

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10
Q

Which statistical measure best represents the average failure time when analyzing the failure times of a mechanical system?
A) Mean
B) Mode
C) Median
D) Standard Deviation

A

A) Mean

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11
Q

You discover a critical flaw in a project design but your boss insists it’s not an issue. What’s your best ethical move?
A) Ignore it
B) Tell your boss only
C) Correct it secretly
D) Report it higher up

A

D) Report it higher up

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12
Q

You notice a colleague taking shortcuts in calculations to meet deadlines. What is your ethical responsibility?
A) Ignore and focus on your work
B) Confront the colleague privately
C) Report to management immediately
D) Correct their calculations yourself

A

C) Report to management immediately

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13
Q

A client pressures you to approve a design that you haven’t fully reviewed. How should you proceed?
A) Approve it. Client satisfaction is key
B) Delcine and request more time to review
C) Pass it to a colleague for quick approval
D) Only review the critical parts and approve

A

B) Delcine and request more time to review

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14
Q

You find a flaw in a finished project that isn’t immediately dangerous but could cause faster degradation. What’s your next step?
A) Stay quiet, it’s done
B) Inform the client privately
C) Announce the flaw publicly
D) Secretly repair it without notification

A

B) Inform the client privately

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15
Q

Which method does not discount future cash flows to present value?
A) Net present value (NPV)
B) Internal rate of return (IRR)
C) Payback period
D) Benefit-cost ratio (B/C)

A

C) Payback period

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16
Q

What does the equivalent annual worth (EAW) method do?
A) Discounts cash flows to start
B) Annualizes a project’s NPV
C) Considers only initial investments
D) Measures investment recovery time

A

B) Annualizes a project’s NPV

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17
Q

Which factor is irrelevant when assessing a machine upgrade’s economic feasibility?
A) Salvage value
B) Annual operating costs
C) Coffee brew time in a break room
D) Current interest rate

A

C) Coffee brew time in a break room

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18
Q

In evaluating a new production line’s worth, what best describes the “sunk cost”?
A) New equipment cost
B) Loan interest rate
C) Previous feasibility study cost
D) Future maintenance cost

A

C) Previous feasibility study cost

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19
Q

Which term refers to the rate at which money’s purchasing power decreases over time?
A) Inflation rate
B) Discount rate
C) Interest rate
D) Payback period

A

A) Inflation rate

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20
Q

Which factor is crucial for the proper operation of an AC electromagnetic motor?
A) Air resistance
B) AC power frequency
C) Motor color
D) Gravitational pull

A

B) AC power frequency

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21
Q

A coil’s galvanometer deflects when a nearby switch is toggled. What causes this?
A) Joule heating
B) Electromagnetic induction
C) Capacitive reactance
D) Ohmic resistance

A

B) Electromagnetic induction

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22
Q

A changing current in one coil induces a voltage in a nearby coil. What principle is this?
A) Ohm’s law
B) Kirchoff’s law
C) Electromagnetic induction
D) Coulomb’s law

A

C) Electromagnetic induction

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23
Q

A metal rod moved through a magnetic field causes a voltmeter to show a reading. What principle is at work?
A) Faraday’s law
B) Lenz’s law
C) Ohm’s law
D) Ampere’s law

A

A) Faraday’s law

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24
Q

In an electromagnetic wave, when electric field peaks, what does the magnetic field do?
A) Peaks
B) Zeros out
C) Opposes direction
D) Half of its peak value

A

A) Peaks

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25
Q

For a cantilever beam with a load at its free end, what moment forms at the fixed end?
A) Zero
B) Counter-clockwise
C) Clockwise
D) Indeterminate

A

C) Clockwise

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26
Q

A ladder leaning against a wall is in equilibrium. What keeps it from sliding?
A) Friction only
B) Normal force only
C) Both friction and normal force
D) Gravity only

A

C) Both friction and normal force

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27
Q

A beam is supported at both ends. Where should a load be placed so each support feels half the weight?
A) 1/4 length from one end
B) At the midpoint
C) Anywhere on the beam
D) 3/4 length from one end

A

B) At the midpoint

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28
Q

What happens to the angle a ladder makes with the ground when its base is pushed towards the wall?
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Stays the same
D) Unpredictable

A

B) Decreases

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29
Q

When a body is in equilibrium under the action of three forces, what is a necessary condition for equilibrium?
A) Forces must be equal
B) Forces must be in the same line of action
C) Forces must be concurrent
D) None of the above

A

C) Forces must be concurrent

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30
Q

Which curve best represents a pendulum’s displacement during simple harmonic motion?
A) Linear
B) Parabolic
C) Sine wave
D) Exponential Decay

A

C) Sine wave

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31
Q

A pendulum’s maximum displacement is 10 cm. At a 5 cm displacement, what percentage of its maximum potential energy does it have?
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 100%

A

B) 50%

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32
Q

Why does a driver feel pushed sideways during a sharp turn?
A) Gravity
B) Friction
C) Centripetal force
D) Inertia

A

D) Inertia

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33
Q

A child on a swing reaches the highest point. At this instant, which force is zero?
A) Gravitational force
B) Tension in the chain
C) Centripetal force
D) Normal force

A

C) Centripetal force

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34
Q

How does external damping affect a consistently swinging pendulum’s deflection angle over time?
A) Remains constant
B) Increases
C) Decreases
D) Doubles

A

C) Decreases

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35
Q

A beam is subjected to a bending moment. Which region of the beam experiences the highest tensile stress?
A) Top surface
B) Bottom surface
C) Neutral axis
D) It’s the same at all points

A

B) Bottom surface

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36
Q

What is the primary function of a material’s yield strength in mechanics?
A) To define its limit for elastic deformation
B) To determine its brittleness
C) To indicate its elasticity
D) To measure its hardness

A

A) To define its limit for elastic deformation

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37
Q

What property measures a material’s ability to resist deformation under load?
A) Density
B) Elastic modulus
C) Thermal conductivity
D) Refractive index

A

B) Elastic modulus

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38
Q

What is the primary factor that determines whether a material will experience brittle or ductile fracture?
A) Density
B) Hardness
C) Temperature
D) Deformation mechanism

A

D) Deformation mechanism

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39
Q

What is the main purpose of calculating the moment of inertia in mechanics of materials?
A) Determine the yield strength
B) Assess elasticity
C) Analyze thermal conductivity
D) Evaluate resistance to bending

A

D) Evaluate resistance to bending

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40
Q

What property quantifies a material’s resistance to deformation under load, often represented by young’s modulus?
A) Density
B) Hardness
C) Elasticity
D) Conductivity

A

C) Elasticity

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41
Q

Which material property measures its resistance to indentation or scratching?
A) Density
B) Toughness
C) Hardness
D) Elasticity

A

C) Hardness

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42
Q

What term describes the ratio of change in length to the original length of a stretched metal rod?
A) Shear strain
B) Young’s modulus
C) Axial stress
D) Axial strain

A

D) Axial strain

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43
Q

Which heat-treating process for steel involves rapid cooling in water or oil?
A) Normalizing
B) Tempering
C) Annealing
D) Quenching

A

D) Quenching

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44
Q

Which polymer property is crucial for high-temperature applications?
A) Elongation at break
B) Melt temperature
C) Tensile strength
D) Density

A

B) Melt temperature

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45
Q

Which factor enables a pump to lift water vertically against gravity?
A) Kinematic viscosity
B) Surface tension
C) Hydrostatic pressure
D) Dynamic head

A

D) Dynamic head

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46
Q

What is a primary concern when a pipeline has a sudden enlargement, causing reduced flow velocity?
A) Vapor pressure increases
B) Cavitation
C) Formation of vortices
D) Increased turbulent flow

A

C) Formation of vortices

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47
Q

If a venturimeter’s throat diameter is decreased, how is the pressure difference between the inlet and throat affected?
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Remains unchanged
D) Becomes zero

A

A) Increases

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48
Q

For a fully developed, compressible flow in a rough pipe, which factor most directly influences the friction factor?
A) Fluid density
B) Average velocity
C) Pipe diameter
D) Relative roughness

A

D) Relative roughness

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49
Q

How does the jet velocity change if the water height in a vertical tank with a bottom orifice is doubled?
A) Remains the same
B) Increases
C) Halves
D) Quadruples

A

B) Increases

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50
Q

In an isothermal process involving an ideal gas, if the volume is halved, what happens to the pressure?
A) Remains the same
B) Doubles
C) Halves
D) Quadruples

A

B) Doubles

51
Q

If a heat engine’s low-temperature reservoir cools further, what happens to its efficiency?
A) Efficiency decreases
B) Efficiency increases
C) Efficiency remains the same
D) Work output becomes zero

A

B) Efficiency increases

52
Q

A refrigerator door is left open in a sealed room. Over time, what would expect to happen to the room’s temperature?
A) Temperature increases
B) Temperature decreases
C) Remains unchanged
D) Experiences fluctuating temperatures

A

A) Temperature increases

53
Q

In an isolated system with decreasing internal energy that does work on its surroundings, what’s the heat exchange?
A) Transferred into the system
B) Transferred out of the system
C) No heat exchange
D) Inconsistent exchange

A

A) Transferred into the system

54
Q

During adiabatic expansion of air in a piston-cylinder, what happens to its temperature?
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Remains constant
D) Becomes erratic

A

B) Decreases

55
Q

Which heat transfer method primarily occurs in a metal rod with one end hot and the other cold?
A) Convection
B) Radiation
C) Conduction
D) Evaporation

A

C) Conduction

56
Q

In a car radiator, which method of heat transfer primarily helps in cooling the engine coolant?
A) Conduction
B) Radiation
C) Convection
D) Advection

A

C) Convection

57
Q

Which heat transfer method primarily causes a heated metal rod’s other end to also become hot?
A) Radiation
B) Convection
C) Advection
D) Conduction

A

D) Conduction

58
Q

When placing ice on a burn, what heat transfer method primarily cools the skin?
A) Radiation
B) Convection
C) Advection
D) Conduction

A

D) Conduction

59
Q

To enhance heat transfer between two fluids in a tube, what should you modify?
A) Tube diameter
B) Tube thickness
C) Tube roughness
D) Tube conductivity

A

B) Tube thickness

60
Q

In a control system, which instrument is used to compare the desired output to the actual output?
A) Actuator
B) Transducer
C) Comparator
D) Controller

A

C) Comparator

61
Q

A technician wishes to measure strain on a bridge. Which instrument is best suited?
A) Manometer
B) Tachometer
C) Strain gauge
D) Anemometer

A

C) Strain gauge

62
Q

Which sensor would be most appropriate for detecting the position of a mechanical arm in a production line?
A) Thermocouple
B) Potentiometer
C) Photoresistor
D) Pressure transducer

A

B) Potentiometer

63
Q

In a feedback control system, which component compares the setpoint to the measured process variable to generate an error signal?
A) Actuator
B) Sensor
C) Controller
D) Transmitter

A

C) Controller

64
Q

Why is the cold junction of a thermocouple maintained at a known temperature?
A) To reduce noise
B) To amplify voltage
C) To increase response time
D) For a reference point

A

D) For a reference point

65
Q

Which failure theory is suitable for ductile materials under combined stress?
A) Shear stress
B) Normal stress
C) Mohr’s circle
D) Strain energy

A

A) Shear stress

66
Q

A steel beam is subjected to repeated loading. Which design approach helps prevent failure due to fatigue?
A) Critical load analysis
B) Stress concentration factor
C) S-N curve
D) Euler’s formula

A

C) S-N curve

67
Q

A shaft under torsion experiences the highest shear stress at which location?
A) At the center
B) At the surface
C) At 1/4th the radius
D) At 1/2 the radius

A

B) At the surface

68
Q

Which theory best predicts flat plate failure due to bending?
A) Shear stress
B) Distortion energy
C) Mohr’s circle
D) Normal stress

A

D) Normal stress

69
Q

A shaft is subjected to torsion and axial loading. Which theory is ideal for predicting its failure?
A) Maximum shear stress
B) von Misses
C) Maximum normal stress
D) Mohr’s circle

A

B) von Misses

70
Q

The Euler formula for columns deals with:
A) Relative short columns
B) Shear stress
C) Tensile stress
D) Elastic buckling

A

D) Elastic buckling

71
Q

If an aluminum crimp connector were used to connect a copper wire to a battery, what would you expect to happen?
A) Only the copper wire will corrode
B) Only the aluminum connector will corrode
C) Both will corrode
D) Nothing

A

B) Only the aluminum connector will corrode

72
Q

When a metal is cold-worked, all of the following generally occur except:
A) Recrystallization temperature decreases
B) Ductility decreases
C) Grains become equiaxed
D) Slip or twinning takes places

A

C) Grains become equiaxed

73
Q

Archimede’s principle states that:
A) The sum of the pressure, velocity, and elevation heads is constant
B) Flow passing two points in a stream is equal at each point
C) The buoyant force on a body is equal to the volume displaced by the body
D) A floating body displaces a weight of a fluid equal to its own weight

A

D) A floating body displaces a weight of a fluid equal to its own weight

74
Q

Buoyancy’s principle states that:
A) The sum of the pressure, velocity, and elevation heads is constant
B) Flow passing two points in a stream is equal at each point
C) The buoyant force on a body is equal to the volume displaced by the body
D) A floating body displaces a weight of a fluid equal to its own weight

A

C) The buoyant force on a body is equal to the volume displaced by the body

75
Q

What is an isothermal process?
A) During which the system’s volume does not change
B) During which no heat is transferred to or from the system
C) During which the system’s temperature remains constant
D) During which the system’s pressure does not change

A

C) During which the system’s temperature remains constant

76
Q

What is an adiabatic process?
A) During which the system’s volume does not change
B) During which no heat is transferred to or from the system
C) During which the system’s temperature remains constant
D) During which the system’s pressure does not change

A

B) During which no heat is transferred to or from the system

77
Q

What is an isochoric process?
A) During which the system’s volume does not change
B) During which no heat is transferred to or from the system
C) During which the system’s temperature remains constant
D) During which the system’s pressure does not change

A

A) During which the system’s volume does not change

78
Q

What is an isobaric process?
A) During which the system’s volume does not change
B) During which no heat is transferred to or from the system
C) During which the system’s temperature remains constant
D) During which the system’s pressure does not change

A

D) During which the system’s pressure does not change

79
Q

The sum of all costs divided by the number of units produced gives:
A) Sunk cost
B) Incremental cost
C) Average cost
D) Marginal cost

A

C) Average cost

80
Q

A company is considering launching a new product line. The cost of purchasing new equipment is an example of:
A) Incremental cost
B) Average cost
C) Sunk cost
D) Marginal cost

A

A) Incremental cost

81
Q

Which cost should be considered when evaluating a new project’s profitability:
A) Incremental cost
B) Average cost
C) Historical cost
D) Marginal cost

A

A) Incremental cost

82
Q

If a company decides to produce one additional unit of a product, the cost associated with that decision is:
A) Sunk cost
B) Average cost
C) Incremental cost
D) Marginal cost

A

C) Incremental cost

83
Q

A company incurred research and development expenses for a project that was eventually abandoned. These expenses are an example of:
A) Sunk cost
B) Average cost
C) Incremental cost
D) Marginal cost

A

A) Sunk cost

84
Q

Which type of cost remains constant regardless of the level of production:
A) Average cost
B) Sunk cost
C) Incremental cost
D) Variable cost

A

B) Sunk cost

85
Q

An opportunity cost refers to:
A) The cost of sunk investments
B) The cost of producing an additional unit
C) The potential benefit foregone by choosing one option over another
D) The total historical cost

A

C) The potential benefit foregone by choosing one option over another

86
Q

Which costs should be subtracted from the total benefits when evaluating project profitability?
A) Sunk costs
B) Historical costs
C) Marginal costs
D) Incremental costs

A

D) Incremental costs

87
Q

What does “opportunity cost” measure?
A) The cost of sunk investments
B) The change in cost for an additional unit
C) The potential benefit foregone by choosing an alternative
D) The historical cost of production

A

C) The potential benefit foregone by choosing an alternative

88
Q

If a company wants to analyze the impact of increasing production, it should consider:
A) Sunk costs
B) Average cost
C) Incremental costs
D) Fixed cost

A

C) Incremental costs

89
Q

What is the purpose of calculating opportunity costs?
A) To determine the total historical cost
B) To evaluate future costs
C) To compare potential benefits between options
D) Incremental cost

A

C) To compare potential benefits between options

90
Q

What type of cost refers to expenses that remain constant regardless of the production level?
A) Variable cost
B) Sunk cost
C) Fixed cost
D) Incremental cost

A

C) Fixed cost

91
Q

An engineering firm is considering two projects with different initial investments and cash flows. To compare their economic viability, which method should be used?
A) Net Present Value (NPV)
B) Internal Rate of Return (IRR)
C) Payback Period
D) Return on Investment (ROI)

A

A) Net Present Value (NPV)

92
Q

A company is considering purchasing new machinery that costs $100,000. The new machinery is expected to save $20,000 in operating costs each year. Calculate the payback period for this investment.
A) 5 years
B) 4 years
C) 10 years
D) 2 years

A

A) 5 years

93
Q

Future value of investment or a sum of money is calculated by the process of:
A) Discounting
B) Compounding
C) Amortization
D) Present Value Analysis

A

B) Compounding

94
Q

Interest rate used to discount future cash flows to their present value is called:
A) Discount Rate
B) Nominal Interest Rate
C) Effective Interest Rate
D) Compound Interest Rate

A

A) Discount Rate

95
Q

Incremental costs refer to:
A) Costs that remain constant regardless of production changes
B) Costs that change when production levels change
C) Costs that are associated with past decisions
D) Costs that are already incurred and cannot be recovered

A

B) Costs that change when production levels change

96
Q

What is the key characteristic of sunk costs?
A) They are relevant for decision-making
B) They change with changes in production levels
C) They are incurred in the past and cannot be changed
D) They are variable costs

A

C) They are incurred in the past and cannot be changed

97
Q

Average cost is calculated by:
A) Dividing total fixed costs by the number of units produced
B) Dividing total variable costs by the number of units produced
C) Dividing total costs by the number of units produced
D) Dividing total revenue by the number of units produced

A

C) Dividing total costs by the number of units produced

98
Q

Which type of cost includes both direct and indirect costs associated with producing a product?
A) Variable cost
B) Sunk cost
C) Total cost
D) Opportunity cost

A

C) Total cost

99
Q

Opportunity cost refers to:
A) The cost of a product that changes with production levels
B) The cost of the next best alternative foregone when a decision is made
C) Costs that have already been incurred and cannot be recovered
D) The average cost of production

A

B) The cost of the next best alternative foregone when a decision is made

100
Q

A beam is in equilibrium. If three forces are acting on the beam, two of them must be:
A) Colinear
B) Coplanar
C) Concurrent
D) Convergent

A

B) Coplanar

101
Q

What is the internal force in a rigid frame that is equilibrium and supported by multiple legs?
A) Tension
B) Compression
C) Shear
D) None of the above

A

D) None of the above

102
Q

In a truss, which member is primarily responsible for carrying tension?
A) Strut
B) Tie
C) Beam
D) Column

A

B) Tie

103
Q

A truss is a structure composed of triangular units that are connected by pin joints. How many support reactions are required to keep a simple truss in equilibrium?
A) 2 reactions
B) 3 reactions
C) 4 reactions
D) 6 reactions

A

B) 3 reactions

104
Q

The internal forces within a rigid body can be determined using:
A) Shear and moment diagrams
B) External force analysis
C) Free-body diagram
D) Centroid analysis

A

A) Shear and moment diagrams

105
Q

Concurrent forces are forces that:
A) Act at a single point but in different directions
B) Are applied at different locations along an object
C) Share a common line of action
D) Have no effect on equilibrium

A

A) Act at a single point but in different directions

106
Q

The entropy of a system approaches a constant value as the temperature ____:
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Approaches absolute zero
D) None of the options

A

C) Approaches absolute zero

107
Q

The measurement of energy in a thermodynamic system is referred to as ______:
A) Enthalpy
B) Entropy
C) Equilibrium
D) None of the options

A

A) Enthalpy

108
Q

What is the relationship between impulse and the change in momentum of an object?
A) Impulse is equal to the change in momentum
B) Impulse is the product of mass and velocity
C) Impulse is the rate of change of momentum
D) Impulse is inversely proportional to momentum

A

A) Impulse is equal to the change in momentum

109
Q

A body collides with another body, causing both bodies to move apart. What can be said about the total momentum of the system before and after the collision?
A) The total momentum remains the same
B) The total momentum increases
C) The total momentum decreases
D) The total momentum becomes zero

A

A) The total momentum remains the same

110
Q

If an object is in uniform circular motion, what can be said about its speed and velocity?
A) Speed and velocity are both constant
B) Speed is constant, but velocity changes
C) Speed changes, but velocity is constant
D) Both speed and velocity change

A

B) Speed is constant, but velocity changes

111
Q

In a simple harmonic motion, where is the maximum acceleration of the object?
A) At the equilibrium position
B) At the maximum displacement from equilibrium
C) At the midpoint between the equilibrium and maximum displacement
D) Acceleration remains constant throughout

A

B) At the maximum displacement from equilibrium

112
Q

A system has a constant non-zero net force applied to it. What will happen to its velocity?
A) It will increase
B) It will decrease
C) It will remain constant
D) It will change direction

A

D) It will change direction

113
Q

The amplitude of a wave is a measure of its:
A) Wavelength
B) Frequency
C) Energy
D) Maximum displacement from equilibrium

A

D) Maximum displacement from equilibrium

114
Q

In which type of deformation does the material experience significant plastic deformation before breaking?
A) Brittle deformation
B) Elastic deformation
C) Ductile deformation
D) Creep deformation

A

C) Ductile deformation

115
Q

What is the term used to describe a temporary increase in deformation of a material when exposed to a constant load over time?
A) Elastic deformation
B) Plastic deformation
C) Creep deformation
D) Yield deformation

A

C) Creep deformation

116
Q

A simply supported beam is subjected toa uniformly distributed load. How is the bending moment at the midpoint of the beam affected?
A) The bending moment is zero
B) The bending moment is positive
C) The bending moment is negative
D) The bending moment is constant

A

B) The bending moment is positive

117
Q

A beam is subjected to a uniformly distributed load. Which of the following statements about the area under the shear force diagram is true?
A) The area is zero
B) The area is proportional to the length of the beam
C) The area is proportional to the magnitude of the distributed load
D) The area represents the maximum bending moment

A

D) The area represents the maximum bending moment

118
Q

A slender column is subjected to an axial load. What can be said about the critical buckling load for the column?
A) The critical buckling load is proportional to the length of the column
B) The critical buckling load is inversely proportional to the length of the column
C) The critical buckling load is independent of the length of the column
D) The critical buckling load is equal to the applied axial load

A

B) The critical buckling load is inversely proportional to the length of the column

119
Q

A beam is subjected to a concentrated load at its center. Which of the following statements about the shear force diagram for this beam is true?
A) The shear force is constant along the length of the beam
B) The shear force increases linearly from the ends to the center
C) The shear force decreases linearly from the ends to the center
D) The shear force is zero at the center

A

D) The shear force is zero at the center

120
Q

The shear diagram of a beam represents the variation in _____ along the length of the beam?
A) Bending moment
B) Shear force
C) Deflection
D) Axial force

A

B) Shear force

121
Q

A state of stress on a plane is described by normal stress = 100 MPa, shear stress = 50 MPa. What is the magnitude of the maximum shear stress on the plane?
A) 100 MPa
B) 50 MPa
C) 150 MPa
D) 70.71 MPa

A

D) 70.71 MPa

122
Q

Poisson’s ratio is defined as the ratio of:
A) Change in length to the change in width
B) Change in width to the change in length
C) Change in thickness to the change in length
D) Change in volume to the change in length

A

C) Change in thickness to the change in length

123
Q

When a tensile load is applied to a material, it experiences:
A) Tensile stress and compressive strain
B) Compressive stress and tensile strain
C) Tensile stress and tensile strain
D) Compressive stress and compressive strain

A

C) Tensile stress and tensile strain

124
Q

The polar moment of inertia (J) is used to calculate the:
A) Bending stress in a beam
B) Torsional shear stress in a shaft
C) Normal stress in a column
D) Shear stress in a beam

A

B) Torsional shear stress in a shaft

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