FCTM

Question 1

what is the purpose of FCTM?

Answer 1

The Flight Crew Techniques Manual (FCTM) provides complementary information to the Flight Crew
Operating Manual (FCOM).
The FCTM provides the flight crew with:
. The general Airbus operational philosophy (e.g. design and utilization principles, golden rules for
pilots)
. Additional information to the FCOM procedures (the “why” to do and the “how” to do)
. Best practices, operating techniques on maneuvers, and handling
. Information on situation awareness.
If the FCTM data differs from the FCOM data, the FCOM remains the reference.

Question 2

what are the sections of FCTM?

Answer 2

GENERAL INFORMATION
AIRBUS OPERATIONAL PHILOSOPHY
AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS
PROCEDURES
PREVENTING IDENTIFIED RISKS

Question 3

ABCU

Answer 3

Alternate Braking Control Unit

Question 4

ACARS

Answer 4

ARINC Communication Addressing and Reporting System

Question 5

ACSC

Answer 5

Air Conditioning System Controller

Question 6

ADIRS/ADIRU

Answer 6

Air Data Inertial Reference System/Unit

Question 7

AEVC

Answer 7

Avionic Equipment Ventilation Controller

Question 8

BCL

Answer 8

Battery Charge Limiter

Question 9

BMC

Answer 9

Bleed Monitoring Computer

Question 10

BSCU

Answer 10

Braking Steering Control Unit

Question 11

CDL

Answer 11

Configuration Deviation List

Question 12

CDFS

Answer 12

Centralized Fault Display System

Question 13

ECAM

Answer 13

Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring

Question 14

ECP

Answer 14

ECAM Control Panel

Question 15

EEC

Answer 15

Electronic Engine Computer

Question 16

EFIS

Answer 16

Electronic Flight Instruments System

Question 17

ELAC

Answer 17

Elevator Aileron Computer

Question 18

EVMU

Answer 18

Engine Vibration Monitoring Unit

Question 19

FAC

Answer 19

Flight Augmentation Computer

Question 20

FADEC

Answer 20

Full Authority Digital Engine Control System

Question 21

FCDC

Answer 21

Flight Control Data Concentrator

Question 22

FIDS

Answer 22

Fault Isolation and Detection System

Question 23

IDG

Answer 23

Integrated Drive Generator

Question 24

IGGS

Answer 24

Inert Gas Generation System

Question 25

ISIS

Answer 25

Integrated Standby Instrument System

Question 26

LGCIU

Answer 26

Landing Gear Control Interface Unit

Question 27

NAI

Answer 27

Engine Nacelle Anti-Ice

Question 28

PBE

Answer 28

Protective Breathing Equipment

Question 29

ROPS

Answer 29

Runway Overrun Prevention System

Question 30

RPCU

Answer 30

Residual Pressure Control Unit

Question 31

SDAC

Answer 31

System Data Acquisition Concentrator

Question 32

SDCU

Answer 32

Smoke Detection Control Unit

Question 33

SEC

Answer 33

Spoiler Elevator Computer

Question 34

SFCC

Answer 34

Slat/Flap Control Computer

Question 35

THS

Answer 35

Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer

Question 36

TRU

Answer 36

Transformer Rectifier Unit

Question 37

VBV

Answer 37

Variable Bypass Valve

Question 38

VSV

Answer 38

Variable Stator Vane

Question 39

what is the control law?

Answer 39

The relationship between the pilot input on the sidestick, and the aircraft response, is called the
control law.

Question 40

At high altitude, descend to a lower altitude to increase the margin to buffet. Descending by
approximately ____ ft below REC MAX ALT reduces significantly the occurrence of stall warning
in turbulence.

Answer 40

4000 ft

Question 41

The flight crew can also decide to refer

to the QRH, in order to perform both the _____ and _____ procedures.

Answer 41

Preliminary Cockpit Preparation & Securing the Aircraft

Question 42

For Supplementary Procedures, the flight crew should use the following task-sharing:
If the procedure is related to engine start, it is recommended to read the entire
procedure first, and then:

Answer 42

‐ The PM reads the actions, and

‐ The PF acts on the controls.

Question 43

Whatever the status of the AP, the PF and the PM must perform their onside _____ selections.

Answer 43

EFIS CP

Question 44

ECAM procedures, are triggered automatically in response to an abnormal behavior of the
systems monitored by the _____

Answer 44

Flight Warning System (FWS)

Question 45

In the case of abnormal or emergency situations, the flight crew should apply the procedures in the
following sequence, as appropriate:

Answer 45

‐ MEMORY ITEMS or OEB immediate actions
‐ OEB
‐ ECAM
‐ QRH

Question 46

If red LAND ASAP is part of the procedure, land as soon as possible at the nearest airport at which a _____ can be made.

Answer 46

safe landing; Red LAND ASAP information is applicable to a time-critical situation.

Question 47

If amber LAND ASAP is part of the procedure, consider landing at the _____.

Answer 47

nearest suitable airport; The suitability criteria should be defined in accordance with the Operator’s policy.

Question 48

In flight, the PF and PM must crosscheck before any action on the following controls:

Answer 48

‐ ENG MASTER lever
‐ IR MODE selector
‐ All guarded controls
‐ Cockpit C/Bs.

Question 49

If the flight crew inadvertently operates a black guarded control, the subsequent effect is _____ and _____ when the flight crew operates red guarded controls.

Answer 49

reversible/irreversible

Question 50

To perform any action requested by a procedure, the PM should indicate the related panel and
control and announce in sequence:

Answer 50

‐ The name of the system
‐ The name of the control, or system reset
‐ The action

E.g. “AIR, XBLEED, CLOSE”.

Question 51

After the selection of a control, the PM should check the _____ , in order to verify that the selected action was performed

Answer 51

SD page

Question 52

For takeoff or

go around, the flight crew should delay READ & DO actions until the aircraft reaches a minimum of _____ ft AGL.

Answer 52

400 ft

Question 53

The PM should check/inspect the _____ and/or _____, in order to analyze and confirm the failure,
before they take any action.

Answer 53

overhead panel/associated SD

Question 54

In all cases, the flight crew must stop the ECAM actions before reading the STATUS page, in order
to:

Answer 54

‐ Perform the After Takeoff/Climb C/L or any normal C/L, if applicable.
‐ Consider any system reset.
‐ Consider application of the ENG RELIGHT procedure after an engine failure with no damage.

Question 55

If an ECAM warning disappears while a procedure is being applied, the warning can be considered _____.

Answer 55

no longer applicable; For example, during the
application of an engine fire procedure, if the fire is successfully extinguished with the first fire
extinguisher bottle, the ENG 1(2) FIRE warning disappears and the procedure no longer applies.

Question 56

Any spurious caution can be deleted with the _____ ;

deletes both the aural alert, and the caution for the remainder of the flight.

Answer 56

EMER CANC pb/indicated on the

STATUS page, by the “CANCELLED CAUTION” title.

Question 57

The QRH summaries are QRH procedures created to help the flight crew to perform actions in the
case of an _____ or _____.

Answer 57

ELEC EMER CONFIG/a dual hydraulic failure

Question 58

The QRH summaries are divided into four sections:

Answer 58

CRUISE, APPROACH, LANDING, and

GO-AROUND

Question 59

Golden Rules for Pilots are:

Answer 59

1. Fly. Navigate. Communicate: In this order and with appropriate task-sharing.
2. Use the appropriate level of automation at all times.
3. Understand the FMA at all times.
4. Take action if things do not go as expected.

Question 60

The attitude flight reference should be used for _____, for example, _____.

Answer 60

dynamic manoeuvres/take-off or

go-around

Question 61

The bird is computed from _____ and is affected by _____. The bird is also computed from _____.

Answer 61

IRS data/inertial errors/static pressure information

Question 62

When using the “bird”, the flight crew should first change attitude, and then

Answer 62

check the result with reference to the “bird”.

Question 63

When flying visual circuits, on the downwind leg, the
flight crew should position the wings of the “bird” on the _____, in order to maintain level flight. The _____ should be set on the FCU.

Answer 63

horizon/downwind track

Question 64

A standard 3 ° approach path is indicated, when the top of the bird’s tail is immediately _____, and the bottom of the “bird” is immediately _____.

Answer 64

below the horizon/above the 5 ° nose down marker

Question 65

If the target approach speed symbol moves upward, this indicates that there is _____. If
the “bird” drifts to the right, this indicates that there is _____.

Answer 65

headwind gust/wind from the left

Question 66

For the go-around, the appropriate flight reference is the attitude, because:

Answer 66

go-around is a dynamic maneuver; there is inevitably
some lag between the pilot’s raising the nose to commence the go-around and the aircraft’s
responding by changing its trajectory; when performing a go-around, regardless of the previously-selected flight
reference, upon selection of TOGA, the FD bars are automatically restored in SRS/GA TRACK
modes, and the “bird” is automatically removed.

Question 67

The _____ and _____ assist the flight crew to fly the aircraft within the normal flight.

Answer 67

Flight Director (FD)/Auto Pilot (AP)

Question 68

When the aircraft reaches THR RED ALT, the flight crew sets the thrust levers back to the CLB
detent. This activates _____.

Answer 68

A/THR

Question 69

On final approach, it usually gives more accurate
speed control, although in turbulent conditions the actual airspeed may vary from the target speed,
by as much as _____.

Answer 69

five knots

Question 70

If the pilot is going to make the
landing using manual thrust, he should disconnect the A/THR by the time he has reached _____
on the final approach.

Answer 70

1 000 ft

Question 71

The recommended technique for setting A/THR to off is:

Answer 71

‐ Return the thrust levers to approximately the current thrust setting, by observing the TLA symbol
on the thrust gauge
‐ Press the I/D pb.
This technique minimizes thrust discontinuity, when setting A/THR to off.

Question 72

If thrust levers are set to IDLE, A/THR is set to _____.

Answer 72

off

Question 73

In flare, the “RETARD” aural alert will occur at _____, except
in the case of autoland, where it occurs at _____.

Answer 73

20 ft/10 ft

Question 74

An ECAM caution and an FMA message trigger during thrust lock:

Answer 74

‐ THR LK appears on the FMA
‐ The AUTO FLT A/THR OFF ECAM alert is triggered
‐ The ENG THRUST LOCKED ECAM alert is triggered, if the thrust levers are not moved within
5 s.

Question 75

When the aircraft’s angle-of-attack goes beyond the ALPHA FLOOR threshold, this means that the
aircraft has decelerated significantly (below _____): A/THR activates automatically
and orders TOGA thrust, regardless of the thrust lever position.

Answer 75

ALPHA PROT speed

Question 76

ALPHA floor is available, when:

Answer 76

flight controls are in NORMAL LAW, from liftoff to 100 ft RA at
landing. It is inhibited in some cases of engine failure.

Question 77

A/THR should be monitored via the:

Answer 77

‐ FMA – SPEED / SPEED TREND on the PFD

‐ N1/N1 command (EPR) on the ECAM E/WD

Question 78

NAVIGATION ACCURACY CROSSCHECK TECHNIQUE principle consists:

Answer 78

comparing the FMS position with the RADIO position. The flight crew inserts a radio ident in MCDU PROG page (which provides a bearing/distance
relative to FMS position). Then, the flight crew compares these values with raw data received from
the NAVAID that indicates the real position of the aircraft . This enables to quantify the error ε.

Question 79

“CHECK A/C POSITION, FM1/FM2 POS MISMATCH”, the aircraft position may be updated on the MCDU
PROG page. Two techniques are available:

Answer 79

The recommended technique is to carry out a FMS update over a beacon by pressing the
UPDATE prompt once estimating that the aircraft overflies the beacon using the associated
needle. The potential error induced is approximately 4 to 5 NM. When the position update is
achieved, the EPE is automatically set to a higher value and the navigation accuracy is low.
The second technique consists in updating the FM position when flying over a
Point/Bearing/Distance (P/B/D) with reference to beacon raw data (Needle + Distance) rather than
the beacon itself. The potential for error is far less when the distance is greater than 60 NM. The
flight crew will keep in mind the potential 180 ° error on bearing.

Question 80

GW and CG values FM computed are used for:

Answer 80

• FM predictions and speeds
• ECAM (GW)
• MCDU (GW and CG)
• Computation of characteristic speeds (VLS, F, S, GD) for display on PFD

Question 81

‐ GW and CG values FAC computed are used for:

Answer 81

• Flight control laws

Question 82

The FMGC computes the GW and CG from:

Answer 82

‐ The ZFW, ZFWCG inserted in the MCDU INIT B page
‐ The fuel quantities from the Fuel Quantity Indicator (FQI)
‐ The Fuel Flow from the FADEC.

Question 83

The FAC computes its own GW and CG from _____.

Answer 83

aerodynamic data

Question 84

If the GW FM computed and FAC computed differs from a given threshold, a _____ message appears on the MCDU scratchpad.

Answer 84

“CHECK

GW”

Question 85

If the pilot enters erroneous ZFW on MCDU INIT B page, this will affect as follows:

Answer 85

GW and, to a lesser degree, CG, computed by FM are erroneous.

Question 86

Erroneous ZFW on MCDU INIT B page, induces the following

consequences:

Answer 86

• The FM predictions and speeds are erroneous
• Incorrect GW and CG on MCDU FUEL PRED page
• Incorrect GW displayed on ECAM
• Characteristic speeds on PFD are erroneous
• SRS mode guidance is affected if computed VLS is above V2 as inserted in the MCDU PERF
TAKE-OFF page.
‐ GW FAC computed, which is based on GW FM computed on ground, will be updated only once
airborne through a specific slow calculation using AOA information.

Question 87

ERRONEOUS FUEL ON BOARD ENTRY, once the engines are started, the fuel figures are updated and
downstream data update accordingly; the FOB on ECAM is correct since it is provided from _____.

Answer 87

FQI data

Question 88

In flight, the rudder controls the yaw, and the vertical stabiliser ensures _____ stability.

Answer 88

directional

Question 89

At \_\_\_\_\_ (i.e. slats retracted), thrust asymmetry (eg. due to an engine failure)
does not have a significant effect on the yaw control of the aircraft. The rudder
deflection required to counter an engine failure and center the sideslip is small.

Answer 89

high speed

Question 90

The flight crew may also use the rudder pedals in some abnormal situations. For example:

Answer 90

‐ Loss of both yaw damper systems
‐ Rudder trim runaway
‐ Landing with an abnormal landing gear position

Question 91

THE RUDDER SHOULD NOT BE USED:

Answer 91

‐ To induce roll

‐ To counter roll, induced by any type of turbulence

Question 92

TA shall be selected in the case of:

Answer 92

‐ Engine failure
‐ Known nearby traffic, which is in visual contact
‐ Flight with landing gear down
‐ Operations at specific airports

Question 93

The flight crew should comply with the vertical speed limitations during the last _____ of a climb
or descent

Answer 93

2 000 ft; the flight crew should limit vertical speeds to 1 500 ft/min during the last
2 000 ft of a climb or descent, especially when they are aware of traffic that is converging in altitude
and intending to level off 1 000 ft above or below the flight crew’s assigned altitude.

Question 94

If a TA is generated:

Answer 94

‐ The PF announces: “TCAS, I have control”.

‐ No evasive maneuver should be initiated, only on the basis of a TA.

Question 95

If a RA is generated:

Answer 95

‐ The flight crew must always follow the TCAS RA orders in the correct direction, even:
• If the TCAS RA orders are in contradiction with the ATC instructions
• At the maximum ceiling altitude with CLIMB, CLIMB or INCREASE CLIMB, INCREASE CLIMB
TCAS RA orders
• If it results in crossing the altitude of the intruder.
‐ The PF disconnects the AP, and smoothly and firmly follows the Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI)
green sector within 5 s, and requests that both FDs be disconnected.
Note: Both FDs must be disconnected once APs are disconnected:
‐ To ensure autothrust speed mode
‐ To avoid possible confusion between FD bar orders and, TCAS aural and VSI orders
‐ The PM disconnects both FDs, but will not try to see intruders.
‐ The PF will avoid excessive maneuvers, and keep the Vertical Speed outside the red area of the
VSI and within the green area. If necessary, the PF must use the full speed range between Valpha
max and Vmax.
‐ The PM must notify ATC.
‐ The flight crew should never maneuver in the opposite direction of the RA, because TCAS
maneuvers are coordinated.
‐ In final approach, i.e. “CLIMB”, “CLIMB NOW”, “INCREASE CLIMB”, the flight crew will initiate a
go-around.
When clear of conflict:
‐ The flight crew must resume normal navigation, in accordance with ATC clearance, and using the
AP, as required.

Question 96

AP/FD TCAS MODE ENGAGEMENT/ If an RA is triggered, the AP/FD TCAS mode automatically, and immediately, _____.
The PF announces the AP/FD TCAS mode engagement, like any other FMA changes.
If the FDs are disengaged, they automatically _____.

Answer 96

engages/engage

Question 97

AP/FD TCAS MODE ENGAGEMENT/ The FD pitch bar _____, and

the triple click aural alert ______.

Answer 97

does not flash/does not sound

Question 98

AP/FD TCAS MODE ENGAGEMENT/ If the A/THR is disconnected, it automatically becomes _____.
If APs and FDs are OFF when the RA is triggered, _____ automatically engages.

Answer 98

armed or active/HDG

Question 99

If for any reason during an RA, the aircraft vertical speed does not reach the
green area of the vertical speed scale:

Answer 99

the PF should disconnect the AP, and
override the FD orders, in order to lead the aircraft vertical speed out of the
red area of the vertical speed scale.

Question 100

STERILE COCKPIT RULE

Answer 100

When the aircraft is below 10 000 ft, any conversation that is not essential should be avoided.

Question 101

NORMAL CHECKLIST are of a _____ type

Answer 101

“non-action”; (i.e. all actions should be completed from memory before the flight crew performs the checklist)

Question 102

The NORMAL CHECKLIST actions are referred to as _____ -type actions.

Answer 102

“challenge/response”

Question 103

During preliminary cockpit preparation, The RCL pb is pressed for at least ___ to display the cautions and warnings from the previous flight.

Answer 103

3 s

Question 104

To check the liquid levels i.e. oil, hydraulic and oxygen pressure using:

Answer 104

• The HYD pb is pressed to check the hydraulic level
• The ENG pb is pressed to check engine oil level (Refer to FCOM/PRO-NOR-SOP-04 Before
Walkaround - ECAM Pages)
• The DOOR pb is pressed, to check the oxygen pressure level

Question 105

Some odors may be perceived in the cabin, once the APU Bleed is set to ON. This is due to _____.

Answer 105

the possible presence of oil traces in the APU air-duct, , the APU Bleed may be selected 3 minutes after APU start. This APU warm-up time enables the seals to reach their optimum performance and eliminates oil traces in the APU airduct.

Question 106

When the ECAM DOOR/OXY SD oxygen pressure is below a defined threshold,

Answer 106

an amber half box highlights the value.

Question 107

The IRS alignment or realignment includes following two steps:

Answer 107

‐ Alignment:
Gyro and accelerometers prepare for the NAV computation. ‐ Position Initialization:
Navigation starting point is set.

Question 108

COMPLETE IRS ALIGNMENT:

Answer 108

IRSs use gravity and the earth’s rotation to determinate the aircraft attitude and true heading, and IRSs estimate a current aircraft latitude.
The IR mode selectors must be OFF for more than 5 s. Then, the flight crew sets the IR mode selectors to the NAV mode.
Note: The ON BAT light comes on during 5 s.

Question 109

FAST IRS ALIGNMENT:

Answer 109

IRSs reset the ground speed and some internal filters to 0, but IRSs do not estimate the aircraft position.
The flight crew sets the IR mode selectors to OFF then, back to the NAV mode within 5 s.

Question 110

The flight crew must verify Takeoff shift:

Answer 110

This ensures that the flight crew took into account the right intersection

Question 111

The flight crew must verify Greendot speed:

Answer 111

This indirectly ensures that the GW values are consistent.

Question 112

FMGS PREPARATION; Green fields are:

Answer 112

used for FMS generated data, and cannot be changed

Question 113

INIT B should not be filled immediately after INIT A, because

Answer 113

FMGS would begin to compute F-PLN predictions. These computations would slow down the entry procedure.

Question 114

When the flight crew enters or modifies the origin airport (FROM) or the CO RTE, the MCDU INIT coordinates are reset to the _____.

Answer 114

Airport Reference Point (ARP)

Question 115

The one-engine-out acceleration altitude must:

Answer 115

• Be at least 400 ft above airport altitude
• Ensure that the net flight path is 35 ft above obstacles
• Ensure that the maximum time for takeoff thrust is not exceeded.

Question 116

TAKEOFF BRIEFING, In case of failure after V1:

Answer 116

continue TO, no actions before 400 ft AGL except gear up reaching 400 ft AGL, ECAM actions
reaching EO ACC altitude
‐ If the engine is secured, level off, accelerate and clean up
‐ Otherwise continue climbing until the engine is secured (but not above EO maximum acceleration altitude)
at green dot: OP CLB, MCT, resume ECAM, after TO C/L, status ENG OUT routing: EOSID, SID, radar vector, immediate return …

Question 117

The PM should also check the triple brake indicator to ensure that brake pressure drops to zero because:

Answer 117

indicates a successful changeover to the normal braking system (green pressure has taken over yellow pressure).

Question 118

A “spongy” pedal is felt during taxi because:

Answer 118

this indicates a degraded performance of the alternate braking system.

Question 119

Carbon brake wear depends on:

Answer 119

number of brake applications and on brake temperature; does not depend on the applied pressure, or the duration of the braking.

Question 120

On long, straight taxiways, and with no ATC or other ground traffic constraints, the PF should allow the aircraft to accelerate to ___, and should then use one smooth brake application to decelerate to ___.

Answer 120

30 kt/10 kt

Question 121

The maximum brake temperature limitation for takeoff ensures:

Answer 121

in the case of a hydraulic leak, any hydraulic fluid that touches the brake units does not ignite in the wheel well after the landing gear retraction.

Question 122

If the ACCU PRESS drops below _____, the flight crew should be aware that the Parking Brake can, quite suddenly, become less efficient.

Answer 122

1 500 PSI

Question 123

Before takeoff, if the fans are running, the flight crew should refer to the indicated brake temperature. When the indicated brake temperature is above ___, takeoff must be delayed.

Answer 123

150 °C

Question 124

Brake fans should not be used during takeoff:

Answer 124

to avoid Foreign Object Damage to fans and brakes

Question 125

Before taxi, check that the amber “NWS DISC” ECAM message is off, to ensure _____.

Answer 125

steering is fully available

Question 126

When the seating position is correct, the cut-off angle is ___, and the visual ground geometry provides an obscured segment of ___.

Answer 126

20 °/42 ft (12.5 m)

Question 127

With one tire deflated, the aircraft speed is limited to ___ and nosewheel steering can be used. With two tires deflated, the aircraft speed is limited to ___ and nosewheel steering angle should be limited to 30 °.
For turns of 90 ° or more, the aircraft speed should be less than ___.

Answer 127

7 kt/3 kt/10 kt

Question 128

LAST DATA CHANGES BEFORE TAKEOFF

Answer 128

‐ The runway in use changes, or
‐ The runway condition deteriorates, or
‐ The use of a new intersection shortens the runway length, or ‐ The wind or the temperature changes.

Question 129

How to check a global consistency of FMGC entries:

Answer 129

Set the ND in ARC or NAV mode with a range 10 NM.

Question 130

The Electronic Engine Control (EEC) computer prevents the engine stabilising between an _____ of _____, in order to protect against fan flutter.

Answer 130

Keep-Out-Zone range/60 to 74 % N1

Question 131

The PM must check that the thrust is set by ___ and must announce “Thrust Set”.

Answer 131

80 kt

Question 132

On a normal takeoff, the PF should apply half forward or full forward side-stick, the input should be gradually reduced to be zero by ___.

Answer 132

100 kt

Question 133

When the rotation is initiated, the flight crew achieves a rotation rate of approximately ___ resulting in a continuous pitch increase.

Answer 133

3 °/s

Question 134

During the rotation, the aircraft liftoff occurs at approximately ___ of pitch, typically around ___ after the initiation of the rotation.

Answer 134

10 °/4 to 5 s

Question 135

A slow rotation rate or an under rotation (below takeoff pitch target) has an impact on takeoff performance

Answer 135

‐ The takeoff run and the takeoff distance increase

‐ The obstacle clearance after takeoff decreases.

Question 136

At the _____, the FD pitch mode changes from SRS to CLB or OP CLB mode.

Answer 136

acceleration altitude

Question 137

At the acceleration altitude, the speed target jumps:

Answer 137

• Either to the managed target speed e.g. speed constraint, speed limit or ECON climb speed
• Or to the preselected climb speed (entered by the pilot on the MCDU PERF CLB page before
takeoff).

Question 138

If take-off is carried out at heavy weight, two protections may intervene:

Answer 138

‐ The Automatic Retraction System (ARS)

‐ The Alpha Lock function

Question 139

While in CONF 1+F and IAS reaches 210 kt:

Answer 139

THE AUTOMATIC RETRACTION SYSTEM is activated, which automatically retracts flaps to 0 °. If IAS decreases below VFE CONF1+F, the flaps will not extend back to 1+F.

Question 140

The slats alpha/speed lock function will prevent slat retraction at _____ at the moment the flap lever is moved from Flaps 1 to Flaps 0. _____ pulses above the E/WD Slat indication.

Answer 140

high AOA or low speed/”A. LOCK”

Question 141

VMAX value displayed on the PFD speed scale is based on the _____.

Answer 141

Slats/Flaps control lever position; OVERSPEED WARNING is based on the actual Slats/Flaps surface position. The flight crew must report any type of overspeed event.

Question 142

If the aircraft is required to level off below the acceleration altitude,

Answer 142

ALT* engages and target speed goes to initial climb speed

Question 143

Whenever V/S is used, pilots should pay particular attention to the speed trend as:

Answer 143

V/S takes precedence over speed requirements.

Question 144

The EXPED mode is used to climb with maximum vertical gradient i.e.

Answer 144

the target speed becomes green dot. Its use should be avoided above FL 250.

Question 145

SMALL ALTITUDE CHANGES; The use of low values of V/S, e.g. less than 1 000 ft/min, may be appropriate for small altitude changes as

Answer 145

makes the guidance smoother and needs less thrust variation

Question 146

The managed climb speed, computed by the FMGS, provides

Answer 146

the most economical climb profile

Question 147

If necessary, the climb speed can be either pre-selected on ground prior to take-off on:

Answer 147

MCDU PERF CLIMB page or selected on the FCU

Question 148

The speed to achieve the maximum rate of climb, i.e. to reach a given altitude in the shortest time, lies between

Answer 148

ECON climb speed and green dot; As there is no indication of this speed on the PFD, a good rule of thumb is to use turbulence speed to achieve maximum rate.

Question 149

The speed to achieve the maximum gradient of climb, i.e. to reach a given altitude in a shortest distance,

Answer 149

green dot; The MCDU PERF CLB page displays the time and distance required to achieve the selected altitude by climbing at green dot speed.

Question 150

When IAS is selected in lower altitude, there is an automatic change to Mach at:

Answer 150

crossover altitude

Question 151

UNDUE ACTIVATION OF GO-AROUND PHASE situation:

Answer 151

After takeoff if the aircraft is above the ACC ALT and the flight crew sets the thrust levers to TOGA detent with at least CONF 1.

Question 152

UNDUE ACTIVATION OF GO-AROUND PHASE; activate the CLIMB phase:

Answer 152

‐ Insert a NEW DEST (different from the current DEST), or

‐ Select the ALTN destination.

Question 153

When at cruise FL, the AP altitude control is:

Answer 153

Soft. This means that the AP will allow small altitude variation around the cruise altitude (typically ± 50 ft) to keep cruise Mach before a readjustment of thrust occurs. This optimizes the fuel consumption in cruise.

Question 154

Wind entries should be made at waypoints when there is a difference of:

Answer 154

30 ° or 30 kt for the wind data and 5 °C for temperature deviation. This will ensure that the FMS fuel and time predictions are as accurate as possible.

Question 155

Each time an ETP is sequenced, the crew should insert the next _____.

Answer 155

suitable diversion airfield

Question 156

The ETP should be inserted in the SEC F-PLN as:

Answer 156

PD (Place/Distance) and the route to diversion airfield should be finalized.

Question 157

CLOSEST AIRPORT page which provides valuable fuel/time estimates to:

Answer 157

four closest airports from the aircraft position, as well as to an airport the crew may define

Question 158

The Cost Index (CI) is used to take into account the relationship between

Answer 158

fuel and time related costs in order to minimize the trip cost. The CI is calculated by the airline for each sector. From an operational point of view, the CI affects the speeds (ECON SPEED/MACH) and cruise altitude (OPT ALT). CI=0 corresponds to maximum range whereas the CI=999 corresponds to minimum time.

Question 159

The optimum cruise Mach number value depends on:

Answer 159

‐ CI
‐ Cruise flight level
‐ Temperature deviation
‐ Weight
‐ Headwind component

Question 160

optimum Mach number will optimum Mach number will +50 kt head wind equates to:

Answer 160

M +0.01

Question 161

If the constraint can be met within a tolerance, a _____ asterix will be displayed on the MCDU; if the constraint cannot be met, an _____ asterix will be displayed.

Answer 161

magenta/amber

Question 162

At high altitude, the speed should not be reduced below _____ as this may create a situation where it is impossible to maintain speed and/or altitude as the increased drag may exceed the available thrust.

Answer 162

GREEN DOT

Question 163

FACTORS THAT CAUSE A SPEED DECAY DURING CRUISE:

Answer 163

‐ A large and continuous increase in tailwind or decrease in headwind, in addition to an increase in the Outside Air Temperature (OAT), that results in a decrease of the REC MAX FL
‐ A large downdraft, when the flight crew flies (parallel and) downwind in a mountainous area, due to orographic waves. The downdraft may have a negative vertical speed of more than 500 ft/min. Therefore, if the aircraft is in a downdraft, the flight crew must climb in order to maintain altitude, and the pitch angle and the thrust value increase. Without sufficient thrust margin, the flight crew may notice that aircraft speed decays, but the REC MAX FL is not modified.

Question 164

The REC MAX FL indicated in the PROG page of the MCDU decreases when the _____.

Answer 164

OAT increases

Question 165

The optimum lift/drag speed is the:

Answer 165

GD speed

Question 166

If aircraft speed is below GD speed and continues to decrease, even with the maximum available thrust in use, if the flight crew maintains the current altitude, the angle of attack will further _____.

Answer 166

increase

Question 167

If aircraft speed goes below GD speed, with the maximum available thrust in use, the only way for the flight crew to avoid a dangerous increase in the angle of attack is to _____.

Answer 167

descend

Question 168

REC MAX FL reflects the _____ and does not take into account the _____.

Answer 168

present engine and wing performance/cost aspect

Question 169

REC MAX FL provides a ___ buffet margin

Answer 169

0.3 g

Question 170

If the crew inserts a FL higher than REC MAX into the MCDU, it will be accepted only if it provides a buffet margin greater than ___.

Answer 170

0.2 g

Question 171

OPT FL displayed on the MCDU is the cruise altitude for _____ is flown and should be followed whenever possible

Answer 171

minimum cost when ECON MACH

Question 172

For each Mach number, there will be a different OPT FL. Should an FMGS failure occur, the crew should refer to the _____ to determine the OPT FL. FCOM and QRH charts are only provided for ___ different Mach numbers.

Answer 172

FCOM or QRH/two

Question 173

This technique referred to as a Step Climb is:

Answer 173

it is better to climb to a higher cruise altitude when aircraft weight permits, because the optimum altitude increases when fuel is consumed during the flight

Question 174

The OPT STEP computation is accurate if the flight crew accurately entered the _____.

Answer 174

vertical wind profile

Question 175

It can be advantageous to request an initial cruise altitude _____ the OPT FL, if altitude changes are difficult to obtain on specific routes.

Answer 175

above; This minimizes the possibility of being held at a low altitude and in high fuel consumption condition for long periods of time.

Question 176

Fuel freeze refers to:

Answer 176

formation of wax crystals suspended in the fuel, which can accumulate when fuel temperature is below the freeze point (-47 °C for jet A1) and can prevent proper fuel feed to the engines.

Question 177

If fuel temperature approaches the minimum allowed, the ECAM outputs a caution. Consideration should be given to achieving a higher TAT:

Answer 177

• Descending or diverting to a warmer air mass may be considered. Below the tropopause, a
4 000 ft descent gives a 7 °C increase in TAT. In severe cases, a descent to as low as 25 000 ft
may be required.
• Increasing Mach number will also increase TAT. An increase of M 0.01 produces approximately
0.7 °C increase in TAT.

Question 178

In case of strong or gusty crosswind greater than 20 kt, VAPP should be at least ___; increment may be increased up to ___ at the flight crew’s discretion.

Answer 178

VLS +5 kt/15 kt

Question 179

The VAPP function of

Answer 179

aircraft landing weight, slats/flaps configuration, wind conditions, use of A/THR, icing conditions.

Question 180

Managed speed should be used for final approach as it provides _____, even when the VAPP has been manually inserted.

Answer 180

Ground Speed mini guidance

Question 181

VAPP value is the sum of

Answer 181

VLS and the APPRroach CORrection (APPR COR)

Question 182

The Airbus recommendation is to limit the sum (ΔVREF + APPR COR) to ___ in order not to increase indefinitely the approach speed as it has a direct impact on the landing distance.

Answer 182

20 kt; As a result, for a failure which increases the reference speed by more than 20 kt, there is no approach correction.

Question 183

Factors affect the life of carbon brakes:

Answer 183

‐ The wear of the disks
‐ The oxidation of the disks
The oxidation may degrade rapidly the carbon brakes and may cause the rupture of a brake disk. The main cause of oxidation is the repetitive high temperature of the brakes (particularly above 400 °C).

Question 184

The flight crew should obtain the latest information for landing (weather, runway state, braking action, etc, …) at the latest _____.

Answer 184

15 min prior to descent

Question 185

The FMGS calculates the T/D point backwards from a position _____ with speed at _____.

Answer 185

1 000 ft on the final approach/VAPP

Question 186

If the STAR includes a holding pattern, it is not considered for _____.

Answer 186

T/D or fuel computation; The descent path is computed as an idle segment

Question 187

Descent Profile Optimisation option (DPO)

Answer 187

the idle segment assumes a given managed speed flown at idle thrust. This gives less flexibility to keep the aircraft on the descent path if engine anti-ice is used or if winds vary. In case of use of engine anti-ice or increased tailwind, the use of speed brakes may be required to go back on the descent path.

Question 188

When DES mode is used, the descent is monitored using:

Answer 188

‐ The VDEV called “yoyo” on the PFD and the associated Latch symbol, and
‐ The VDEV digital value on the FMS PROG page, and ‐ The level arrow on the ND.

Question 189

When OP DES or V/S modes are used, the descent is monitored using the _____.

Answer 189

Energy Circle and the level arrow on the ND

Question 190

The managed descent profile from high altitude is approximately ___.

Answer 190

2.5 °

Question 191

When in DES mode, the FMGS gives priority to the _____ over the speed management.

Answer 191

vertical profile

Question 192

an early descent were required by ATC, DES mode would give _____, until regaining the computed profile.

Answer 192

1 000 ft/min rate of descent

Question 193

DES mode operates within a speed range which can goes up to ___ as upper limit and ___ as lower limit (limited by VLS).

Answer 193

VMO-5 kt/MANAGED SPD-20 kt

Question 194

The default hold speed is the lowest of the following:

Answer 194

‐ Maximum Endurance speed
‐ ICAO limit holding speed
‐ Speed constraint (if any).

Question 195

Maximum Endurance speed is approximately equal to

Answer 195

Green Dot and provides the lowest hourly fuel consumption

Question 196

Activation of the approach phase will initiate a deceleration towards _____.

Answer 196

VAPP or the speed constraint inserted at the Final Descent Point (FDP)

Question 197

DECELERATED APPROACH

Answer 197

an approach where the aircraft reaches 1 000 ft in the landing configuration at VAPP. In most cases, this equates to the aircraft being in CONF 1 and at S speed at the FDP.

Question 198

EARLY STABILIZED APPROACH

Answer 198

This technique refers to an approach where the aircraft reaches the FDP in the landing configuration at VAPP.
(LOC FPA, NAV FPA and TRK FPA)

Question 199

To achieve a constant deceleration and to minimise thrust variation, the crew should extend the next configuration when reaching the _____.

Answer 199

current configuration maneuvering speed +10 kt; when the speed reaches green dot +10 kt, the crew should select CONF 1. Using this technique, the mean deceleration rate will be approximately 10 kt/NM in level flight. This deceleration rate will be twice i.e. 20 kt/NM, with the use of the speedbrakes.

Question 200

speed below the manoeuvring speed of the present configuration may be selected provided it is above ___.

Answer 200

VLS+ 5 kt

Question 201

If the PF uses manual thrust for landing, he/she should disconnect the A/THR at _____ at the latest.

Answer 201

1 000 ft AAL

Question 202

If the ATC clears for approach at a significant distance, CAT 1 will be displayed on FMA till:

Answer 202

valid Radio Altimeter signal is received

Question 203

GLIDE SLOPE INTERCEPTION FROM ABOVE, to get the best rate of descent when cleared by ATC and below the limiting speeds, the flight crew should:

Answer 203

lower the landing gear and select flaps as required (at least CONF 2 should be selected to ensure that the aircraft speed will not increase).

Question 204

When cleared to intercept the glide slope, the flight crew should:

Answer 204

Select V/S 1 500 ft/min initially. V/S in excess of 2 000 ft/min will result in the speed increasing
towards VFE.

Question 205

DECISION HEIGHT

Answer 205

the wheel height above the runway elevation by which a go around must be initiated unless appropriate visual reference has been established and the aircraft position and the approach path have been assessed as satisfactory to continue the automatic approach and landing safely. The DH is based on RA.

Question 206

ALERT HEIGHT

Answer 206

the height above the runway, CATIII approach would be discontinued and a missed approach initiated if a failure occurred in one of the redundant parts of the automatic landing system (fail-operational automatic landing system); if a failure affecting the fail-operational criteria occurs below the AH, it would be ignored and the approach continued (except if AUTOLAND warning is triggered). The AH concept is relevant when CAT 3 DUAL is displayed on FMA.
On single aisle Airbus family, the AH =100 ft.

Question 207

CAT 3 SINGLE

Answer 207

the airborne systems are fail passive which means that a single failure will lead to the AP disconnection without any significant out of trim condition or deviation of the flight path or attitude. Manual flight is then required. This minimum DH is 50 ft.

Question 208

CAT 3 DUAL

Answer 208

the airborne systems are fail-operational. In case of a
single failure, the AP will continue to guide the aircraft on the flight path and the automatic landing system will operate as a fail-passive system. In the event of a failure below the AH, the approach, flare and landing can be completed by the remaining part of the automatic system. In that case, no capability degradation is indicated. Such a redundancy allows CAT III operations with or without DH.

Question 209

Crew refer to the QRH to establish the actual landing capability if some equipment are listed inoperative because:

Answer 209

A number of failures which affect the aircraft’s landing capability which are not monitored by the FMGS and, consequently, not reflected on the FMA

Question 210

An incorrect seating position which reduces the cut-off angle by 1 ° reduces the visual segment by approximately _____.

Answer 210

10 m (30 ft)

Question 211

Should a failure occur above 1 000 ft RA, all ECAM actions (and DH amendment if required) should be completed before reaching 1 000 ft RA, otherwise:

Answer 211

go-around should be initiated

Question 212

Below ___, data coming from the FMS is frozen e.g.: ILS tune inhibit.

Answer 212

700 ft RA

Question 213

Below ___, the FCU is frozen.

Answer 213

400 ft RA

Question 214

Below 200 ft, the AUTOLAND red light illuminates if:

Answer 214

• Both APs trip off
• Excessive beam deviation is sensed
• Localizer or glide slope transmitter or receiver fails
• A RA discrepancy of at least 15 ft is sensed.

Question 215

‐ Flare comes at or below ___
‐ THR IDLE comes at or below ___
‐ RETARD auto call out comes at ___ for autoland as an order (Instead of ___ for manual
landing as a reminder).

Answer 215

• 40 ft
• 30 ft
• 10 ft/20 ft

Question 216

For CAT II approaches, autoland is recommended. If manual landing is preferred, the PF will take-over at ___ at the latest.

Answer 216

80 ft

Question 217

At the MAP or Minimum Use Height of the AP, the FMS invalidates the vertical profile at the MAP. The FDs revert from FINAL APP to _____.

Answer 217

HDG V/S mode

Question 218

For all Non Precision Approaches, there is a minimum:

Answer 218

OAT. Below this temperature, the error on the barometric altitude is no longer acceptable, and altitude should be corrected in temperature.

Question 219

The Final Path Angle (FPA) should be preset on the FCU ___ prior to the FDP at the latest.

Answer 219

1 NM

Question 220

A smooth interception of the final approach path can be achieved by pulling the FPA selector ___ prior to the FDP.

Answer 220

0.3 NM

Question 221

Back course localizer (LOC B/C) approach consists:

Answer 221

using the LOC signal of the opposite runway for lateral approach management.

Question 222

LOC B/C approach should be flown using the ___ mode for lateral guidance and the ___ mode for vertical guidance.

Answer 222

TRK/FPA; The approach is flown using the ND in ROSE LS/ILS mode as it shows the correct LEFT/RIGHT information for the beam deviation.

Question 223

The flight crew will aim to get the following configuration at beginning of the downwind leg:

Answer 223

‐ Both AP and FDs will be selected off
‐ BIRD ON
‐ A/THR confirmed active in speed mode, i.e. SPEED on the FMA
‐ Managed speed will be used to enable the “GS mini” function
‐ The downwind track will be selected on the FCU to assist in downwind tracking ‐ The downwind track altitude will be set on FCU.

Question 224

Assuming a 1 500 ft AAL circuit, the base turn should be commenced ___ after passing abeam the downwind threshold.

Answer 224

45 s/(3 s/100 ft +/- 1 s/1 kt of headwind / tailwind)

Question 225

The final turn onto the runway centreline will be commenced with ___ angle of bank. Initially the rate of descent should be ___, increasing to ___ when established on the correct descent path

Answer 225

20 °/400 fpm/700 fpm

Question 226

When ___ below the G/S, the pilot should initiate the interception of the G/S by smoothly flying the FPV down to the glide path angle.

Answer 226

1⁄2 dot

Question 227

When approaching the ground, _____ ceases and the _____ activates.

Answer 227

auto-trim/flare law

Question 228

The PM monitors the rate of descent and should call _____ if the vertical speed is excessive prior to the flare.

Answer 228

“SINK RATE”

Question 229

From stabilized conditions, the flare height is about ___.

Answer 229

30 ft

Question 230

Factors that will require an earlier flare:

Answer 230

‐ High airport elevation (higher ground speeds)
‐ Steeper approach slope (compared to nominal 3 °).
‐ Tailwind (higher ground speeds)
‐ Increasing runway slope (radio height callouts/visual misperception of being high)

Question 231

At ___, the “RETARD” auto call-out reminds the pilot to retard thrust levers.

Answer 231

20 ft

Question 232

The typical pitch increment in the flare is approximately ___, which leads to ___ flight path angle associated with a 10 kt speed decay in the manoeuvre.

Answer 232

4 °/-1 °

Question 233

Main part of the spoiler pitch up effect is compensated by the _____.

Answer 233

flight control law

Question 234

The recommended de-crab technique is to use all of the following:

Answer 234

‐ The rudder to align the aircraft with the runway heading during the flare
‐ The roll control, if needed, to maintain the aircraft on the runway centerline. Any tendency to
drift downwind should be counteracted by an appropriate lateral (roll) input on the sidestick.

Question 235

The NWS tiller will not be used until _____ is reached.

Answer 235

taxi speed

Question 236

Three systems are involved in braking once the aircraft is on the ground:

Answer 236

‐ The ground spoilers
‐ The thrust reversers
‐ The wheel brakes.

Question 237

Partial Lift Dumping Function; The ground spoilers partially automatically deploy, when the aircraft touches down with at least _____.

Answer 237

one main landing gear/one thrust lever is in the reverse sector

Question 238

The ground spoiler extension signal is used for _____.

Answer 238

auto-brake activation

Question 239

Below ___, thrust reversers efficiency rapidly decreases. Below ___ with REV MAX selected, engine stall may occur.

Answer 239

70 kt/60 kt

Question 240

On _____ runways, the flight crew must select REV MAX.

Answer 240

contaminated

Question 241

The anti-skid system adapts pilot applied brake pressure to runway conditions by:

Answer 241

sensing an impending skid condition and adjusting the brake pressure to each individual wheel as required

Question 242

Full pedal braking with anti-skid provides a deceleration rate of ___.

Answer 242

10 kt/sec

Question 243

The use of A/BRAKE is usually preferable because:

Answer 243

minimizes the number of brake

applications and thus reduces brake wear

Question 244

The green DECEL light comes on when the actual deceleration is ___ of the selected rate.

Answer 244

80 %

Question 245

DECEL light is not an indicator of the _____.

Answer 245

autobrake operation; DECEL light might not appear when the autobrake is selected on a contaminated runway, because the deceleration rate is not reached with the autobrake properly functioning. Whereas the DECEL light might appear with LO selected on a dry runway while only the reversers achieve the selected deceleration rate without autobrake being actually activated.

Question 246

CROSS WIND CONDITIONS; To correct back to the centreline, the pilot must _____.

Answer 246

Reduce reverse thrust to REV IDLE and release the brakes; When re-established on the runway centreline, the pilot should re-apply braking and reverse thrust as required.

Question 247

The most common causes of tail strikes:

Answer 247

‐ Allowing the speed to decrease well below VAPP before flare
‐ Prolonged hold off for a smooth touch down
‐ Too high flare
‐ Too high sink rate, just prior reaching the flare height
‐ Bouncing at touch down

Question 248

Aircraft systems help to prevent tail strike occurrence:

Answer 248

‐ A “PITCH-PITCH” synthetic voice sounds when the pitch attitude becomes excessive,
‐ A tail strike pitch limit indicator appears on the PFD to indicate the maximum pitch attitude to
avoid a tail strike.

Question 249

BOUNCING AT TOUCH DOWN; In case of light bounce:

Answer 249

maintain the pitch attitude and complete the landing, while keeping the thrust at idle. Do not allow the pitch attitude to increase, particularly following a firm touch down with a high pitch rate.

Question 250

BOUNCING AT TOUCH DOWN; In case of high bounce:

Answer 250

maintain the pitch attitude and initiate a go-around. Do not try to avoid a second touch down during the go-around. Should it happen, it would be soft enough to prevent damage to the aircraft, if pitch attitude is maintained.

Question 251

The PF must not initiate a go-around after the selection of the _____.

Answer 251

thrust reversers

Question 252

Below ___, when flare law is activated, PF may need to counteract the thrust effect during go-around.

Answer 252

100 ft

Question 253

If the aircraft is on the runway when the PF applies TOGA thrust, _____ may transiently trigger. The flight crew should disregard these alerts.

Answer 253

CONFIG ECAM red warning(s)

Question 254

If the flight crew performs a go-around near the ground, they should take into account the following:

Answer 254

‐ The PF should avoid excessive rotation rate, in order to prevent a tail-strike.
‐ A temporary landing gear contact with the runway is acceptable.

Question 255

The GA phase activates on the FMS when:

Answer 255

thrust levers are set to the TOGA detent, with the Flaps lever not in 0

Question 256

When the thrust levers are set to the TOGA detent, with the Flaps lever not in 0, the following will occur:

Answer 256

‐ If the autopilot or the flight director is in use, SRS and GA TRK(NAV) modes engage.
‐ If the autopilot and both flight directors are off, the PF will maintain 15 ° of pitch.
‐ The GA phase activates on the FMS:
• The missed approach becomes the active F-PLN
• At the end of the missed approach procedure, the FMS strings the previous flown approach in
the active F-PLN.
‐ If not previously engaged, the FD automatically engages with the HDG/VS reference on the FCU. For the go-around, the appropriate flight reference is the attitude, because go-around is a dynamic maneuver.
‐ If extended, the speed brakes automatically retract.

Question 257

To perform a soft go-around, the PF must

Answer 257

set thrust levers to the TOGA detent to ensure engagement of SRS GA mode. Then, the PF must set the thrust levers to the FLX/MCT detent to engage the GA SOFT mode. In this case, the FMA displays MAN GA SOFT, and the AP/FD vertical and lateral modes remain engaged.

Question 258

In GA SOFT mode, the SRS GA mode remains engaged with a vertical target speed of approximately ___.

Answer 258

2 300 ft/min

Question 259

At time of TOGA selection, the SRS mode guides the aircraft with:

Answer 259

the highest speed of VAPP or IAS; (limited to maximum of VLS +25 with all engines operative or VLS +15 with one engine inoperative with FMS 2) until the acceleration altitude where the target speed increases to green dot.

Question 260

When the pilot sets TOGA thrust for go-around, it takes some time for the engines to spool up due to:

Answer 260

acceleration capability of the high by pass ratio engines

Question 261

AP/FD must be in _____ mode for the ACTIVATE SEC F-PLN prompt to be displayed.

Answer 261

HDG

Question 262

The selection of the brake fans, before the aircraft reaches the gate, prevents:

Answer 262

blowing carbon brake dust on the ground personnel. The brake fans blow dust during the first seconds of operation only.

Question 263

Set the APU Bleed to ON just before engine shutdown, to:

Answer 263

minimize odors in the air conditioning

Question 264

Microbursts occur close to the ground and are a possible hazard to the safe flight of the aircraft for the following two reasons:

Answer 264

‐ The downburst of a microburst can result in strong downward winds (40 kt can be reached)
‐ The outburst of a microburst can result in both a large horizontal windshear and a wind
component shift from headwind to tailwind (horizontal winds can reach up to 40 kt).

Question 265

The PWS automatically operates below a given altitude, if the radar is ON or OFF, provided that the PWS sw is in the _____ position.

Answer 265

AUTO

Question 266

Flight crew can disregard the predictive windshear alert, as long as both the following apply:

Answer 266

‐ There are no other signs of possible windshear conditions
‐ The reactive windshear system is operational.
However, the flight crew must always rely on all reactive windshear (i.e. WINDSHEAR) alerts.

Question 267

Predictive windshear alerts are inhibited when the aircraft speed is above ___ and up to ___.

Answer 267

100 kt/50 ft

Question 268

If a predictive windshear alert is triggered on the runway before takeoff, or in case of suspected windshear, the flight crew must:

Answer 268

delay takeoff until conditions are better. In order to evaluate takeoff conditions, the flight crew should apply both of the following:
‐ Use their observations and experience
‐ Check the weather conditions.

Question 269

If a predictive windshear WARNING is triggered during the takeoff roll, the Captain must:

Answer 269

reject takeoff.

Question 270

If a predictive windshear CAUTION is triggered during the takeoff roll, it is the decision of the Captain according to the Captain’s situation assessment to either:

Answer 270

• Continue with takeoff considering TOGA, or

- Reject takeoff.

Question 271

If a predictive windshear alert is triggered during initial climb, the flight crew must:

Answer 271

• Set TOGA
• Closely monitor the speed and the speed trend
• Ensure that the flight path does not include areas with suspected windshears
• Change the aircraft configuration, provided that the aircraft does not enter windshear.

Question 272

During the takeoff roll, “WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR” alert is _____.

Answer 272

inhibited; Windshear recognition is based on the flight crew observation.

Question 273

If the windshear occurs before V1, with significant speed and speed trend variations, the Captain must:

Answer 273

reject takeoff

Question 274

If the windshear occurs after V1, the flight crew must:

Answer 274

select TOGA;
‐ The flight crew should not change the configuration, until the aircraft is out of the windshear, because operating the landing gear doors causes additional drag
‐ The PF must fly SRS pitch orders rapidly and smoothly, but not aggressively, and must consider pulling full backstick, if necessary, to minimize height loss
‐ The PM should call out the wind variations from the ND and V/S and, when clear of the windshear, report the encounter to the ATC.

Question 275

In case of suspected windshear, if the flight crew decides to continue the approach, they should:

Answer 275

‐ Assess the weather severity with the radar display
‐ Consider the most appropriate runway
‐ Select FLAPS 3 for landing, in order to optimize the climb gradient capability in the case of a
go-around
‐ Use managed speed, because it provides the GS mini function
‐ The flight crew may increase VAPP displayed on MCDU PERF APP page up to a maximum
VLS +15 kt, in case of strong or gusty crosswind greater than 20 kt, use the LDG PERF
application of EFB for VAPP determination.
‐ In very difficult weather conditions, the A/THR response time may not be sufficient to manage
the instantaneous loss of airspeed.

Question 276

Severe turbulence is defined as turbulence that causes:

Answer 276

large, abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude. It usually causes large variations in airspeed.
If severe turbulence occurs during a flight, the flight crew must make a logbook entry in order to initiate maintenance action.

Question 277

If turbulence is expected:

Answer 277

‐ The flight crew must set the SEAT BELTS sw to ON, in order to prepare passengers and prevent
injuries
‐ All loose equipment must be secured in the cockpit and in the cabin.

Question 278

For takeoff in high turbulence, the flight crew must wait for the target speed +20 kt (limited to VFE-5):

Answer 278

before retracting the slats/flaps (e.g. the flight crew must wait for F+20 kt before setting Flaps 1)

Question 279

The decision to avoid a CB must be taken as early as possible, and lateral avoidance should, ideally, be at _____.

Answer 279

20 NM upwind

Question 280

A transient increase is preferable to _____, that decreases buffet margins and is difficult to recover.

Answer 280

a loss of speed

Question 281

_____ provides better handling capability in turbulent conditions, however, _____ provides more energy and less drag.

Answer 281

CONF FULL/CONF 3

Question 282

If the aircraft encounters wake turbulence, the following is therefore recommended:

Answer 282

‐ Do not use the rudder
‐ Keep the AP ON
‐ If the AP was set to OFF by the flight crew or automatically disconnected, release the controls
and wait for a reasonable stabilization of the aircraft.

Question 283

The flight crew should select the takeoff configuration that:

Answer 283

‐ Optimizes takeoff performance (takeoff weight, etc.)
‐ If possible, increases flexible temperature
‐ Reduces takeoff speed (higher configuration for a dedicated flexible temperature).

Question 284

Takeoff with flexible thrust _____ fuel consumption compared with takeoff with TOGA thrust, due to the _____.

Answer 284

increases/longer takeoff phase; But the use of flexible thrust reduces engine wear and reduces general costs.

Question 285

The CI is the ratio of:

Answer 285

time costs versus fuel costs; The purpose of the CI is not to reduce fuel consumption.

Question 286

The tropopause value is correct, in order to ensure;

Answer 286

accuracy of FMS predictions

Question 287

the lowest authorized altitude may be ___, for both the thrust reduction altitude (THR RED ALT) and the acceleration altitude (ACCEL ALT).

Answer 287

400 ft

Question 288

the flight crew should request takeoff on the runway that;

Answer 288

minimizes the taxi time and optimizes the departure trajectory, in order to minimize the flight time.

Question 289

If the APU is necessary, the flight crew may set the APU bleed to ON, in order to;

Answer 289

reduce fuel consumption. This opens the crossbleed valve and automatically closes the engine bleed. As the bleed air is not supplied by the engines, the fuel consumption is reduced. However, the use of APU bleed can lead to exhaust gases ingestion into the air conditioning system.

Question 290

The flight crew should update wind information when the change is more than:

Answer 290

‐ 30 ° in direction, or

‐ 30 kt in speed.

Question 291

When landing performance permits, the best combination to reduce fuel costs and brakes oxidation is:

Answer 291

CONF 3 + REV IDLE + Autobrake LO

Question 292

If the flight crew needs to reduce the landing distance, they should consider to use the deceleration devices in the following order:

Answer 292

1. FLAPS FULL
2. REV MAX
3. Autobrake MED.

Question 293

The flight crew should avoid the use of Autobrake MED in combination with CONF 3 and REV IDLE. This is because

Answer 293

this configuration highly increases brake temperature and, as a result, brakes oxidation, which may be severe

Question 294

_____ is the optimum configuration for a holding circuit.

Answer 294

Clean configuration; fly at Green Dot speed, in order to optimize the Lift-to-Drag ratio.

Question 295

Should a single FMGC failure occur, the AP, if engaged on the affected side, will disconnect. The flight crew can recover by:

Answer 295

by selecting the other AP. The A/THR remains operative

Question 296

SINGLE FMGC FAILURE; affected ND may be recovered by using:

Answer 296

same range as the opposite ND. The flight crew should consider a FMGC reset as detailed in QRH.

Question 297

DUAL FMGC FAILURE; flight crew should

Answer 297

recover both AP and A/THR by selecting them back ON (The AP and A/THR can be recovered if the FG parts of the FMGC are still available).
the thrust levers will have to be moved to recover manual thrust. The flight crew should switch off the FDs and select TRK/FPA to allow the blue track index and the bird to be displayed. The RMPs can be used to tune the NAVAIDs

Question 298

LOSS OF BRAKING; Unless required due to an emergency, it is recommended to avoid the use of high level of reverse thrust at low speed, in order to avoid

Answer 298

engine stall and excessive EGT

Question 299

LOSS OF BRAKING; In order to successfully revert to alternate braking, it is important to sequence the actions in three steps. The PF should:

Answer 299

1. Release the brake pedals
2. Request the PM to set the A/SKID & N/W STRG sw to OFF
3. Press the brake pedals, only after the PM has set the A/SKID & N/W STRG sw to OFF. The
   ABCU automatically limits the brake pressure to 1 000 PSI. Monitor the brake pressure on the BRAKES PRESS indicator.

Question 300

The emergency electrical configuration is due to

Answer 300

loss of AC BUS 1 and 2; The RAT extends automatically. This powers the blue hydraulic circuit which drives the emergency generator. The emergency generator supplies both AC and DC ESS BUS.

Question 301

Below ___, the RAT stalls and the emergency generator is no longer powered.

Answer 301

125 kt; emergency generation network is automatically transferred to the batteries and AC SHED ESS and DC SHED ESS BUS are shed.

Question 302

EMERGENCY ELECTRICAL CONFIGURATION; Below ___, the DC BAT BUS is automatically connected and below ___, the AC ESS BUS is shed.

Answer 302

100 kt/50 kt

Question 303

EMERGENCY ELECTRICAL CONFIGURATION; The approach speed must be at least min _____ to keep the emergency generator supplying the electrical network.

Answer 303

RAT speed (140 kt)

Question 304

ELEC EMER CONFIG; Alternate braking with _____ hydraulic pressure modulation up to 1 000 PSI will be used.

Answer 304

yellow

Question 305

ELEC EMER CONFIG; Approaching ___ during the landing roll, all display units will be lost.

Answer 305

50 kt

Question 306

ELEC EMER CONFIG; On BAT, some additional loads are lost such as _____.

Answer 306

FAC1 and FMGC1

Question 307

ENGINE ABNORMAL RESPONSE; it is usually preferable to keep the engine running. Even at idle, the engine powers;

Answer 307

the hydraulic, electric, and bleed systems.

Question 308

Even if the ENG ALL ENGINES FAILURE alert is not triggered, the flight crew must rapidly decide to apply either;

Answer 308

ALL ENG FAIL QRH procedure, or the EMER LANDING QRH procedure

Question 309

Each APU start attempt reduces flight time on batteries by _____. Total flight time on batteries is more than _____.

Answer 309

about 3 and a half minutes/30 min

Question 310

The flight crew can detect an engine flameout without damage by

Answer 310

rapid decrease of EPR/N1, N2, EGT and FF.

Question 311

The flight crew can suspect engine damage, if the flight crew observes two or more of the following symptoms:

Answer 311

‐ Rapid increase of the EGT above the red line
‐ Important mismatch of the rotor speeds, or absence of rotation
‐ Significant increase of aircraft vibrations, or buffeting, or both vibrations and buffeting ‐ Hydraulic system loss
‐ Repeated, or not controllable engine stalls.

Question 312

If an engine failure occurs at low speed, to regain or maintain directional control on the runway, it is necessary:

Answer 312

‐ To immediately reduce both thrust levers to IDLE, which will reduce the thrust asymmetry caused
by the failed engine
‐ To select both reversers irrespective of which engine has failed
‐ To use rudder pedal for directional control, supplemented by symmetrical or differential braking if
needed.

Question 313

Below ___, the ground spoilers will not deploy and the auto brake will not activate.

Answer 313

72 kts

Question 314

If an engine failure occurs after liftoff, the SRS targets the speed

Answer 314

speed at which the failure occurred (limited between V2 and V2 +15 kt).

Question 315

When the AP is engaged the rudder trim is managed via the AP, therefore:

Answer 315

• Manual rudder trim command is inhibited

* The flight crew should release any pressure on the rudder pedals.

Question 316

a rudder pedal deflection is maintained or applied after AP engagement;

Answer 316

the AP may disengage

Question 317

Takeoff thrust is limited to ___.

Answer 317

10 min

Question 318

“Secure the engine” means that the flight crew should continue the ECAM procedure until:

Answer 318

‐ “ENG MASTER OFF” in the case of an engine failure without damage, or
‐ “AGENT 1 DISCH” in the case of an engine failure with damage, or ‐ Fire extinguished or “AGENT 2 DISCH” in case of an engine fire.

Question 319

ENGINE FAILURE AFTER V1; when the flap lever is at zero, the beta target reverts to the _____

Answer 319

normal sideslip indication

Question 320

The engine out maximum acceleration altitude corresponds to;

Answer 320

the maximum altitude that can be achieved with one engine out and the other engine operating at takeoff thrust for a maximum of 10 min

Question 321

When the speed trend arrow reaches the green dot speed;

Answer 321

pull the ALT knob to engage OP CLB

Question 322

the acceleration altitude provides a compromise between;

Answer 322

the obstacle clearance and the engine thrust limiting time

Question 323

When an engine failure occurs during cruise, three possible strategies apply:

Answer 323

‐ The standard strategy
‐ The obstacle strategy
‐ The fixed speed strategy.

Question 324

Pressing the EO CLR key on the MCDU restores;

Answer 324

all engine operative predictions and performance. Reverting to one engine-out performance again is not possible.

Question 325

With the A/THR disconnected, the target speed is controlled by the _____ when in OPEN DES.

Answer 325

elevator

Question 326

STANDARD STRATEGY; The speed of ___ is chosen to ensure the aircraft is within the stabilized windmill engine relight in-flight envelope.

Answer 326

0.78/300 kt

Question 327

The REC MAX EO Cruise altitude, which equates to LRC Engine-Out maximum FL with anti-icing off, is displayed on the _____.

Answer 327

MCDU PROG page

Question 328

STANDARD STRATEGY; When the V/S becomes less than 500 ft/min;

Answer 328

select V/S -500 ft/min and A/THR on

Question 329

OBSTACLE STRATEGY; The speed target in this case is;

Answer 329

green dot; the rate and angle of descent are reduced

Question 330

The _____ page in EO condition displays the drift down ceiling

Answer 330

MCDU PERF CRZ

Question 331

An engine stall is;

Answer 331

disruption of the airflow in a turbine engine. When the blades of the engine compressors stall, they are no longer able to compress the air from the front to the rear of the engine.

Question 332

An engine stall can be due to any of the following reasons:

Answer 332

‐ An engine degradation (e.g. compressor blade rupture, or high wear)
‐ Ingestion of foreign objects (e.g. birds), or ice
‐ A malfunction of the bleed system
‐ A malfunction of the engine controls (e.g. fuel scheduling, or stall protection devices)
‐ A significant disturbance of the airflow (e.g. due to wake turbulence, non-appropriate use of the
thrust reverser after landing, or lightning strike).

Question 333

During takeoff, and at high power settings, the symptoms of an engine stall are the following:

Answer 333

‐ One or more very loud bangs, usually compared to a shotgun being fired a few meters away ‐ An instant loss of thrust, or even a reverse thrust, that causes a yaw movement
‐ Fluctuations of the engine parameters (EPR/N1, N2). The engine may give the
impression to pump
‐ An increase of the EGT
‐ Engine vibrations
‐ Flames may be visible from both ends of the engine (inlet / tail pipe) ‐ Acrid smell in the cockpit.

Question 334

During cruise, and at low power settings (e.g. at thrust reduction at the T/D), the symptoms of an engine stall are the following:

Answer 334

‐ One or more muffled bangs
‐ Slow or no thrust lever response
‐ Fluctuations of the engine parameters (EPR/N1, N2). The engine may give the impression to pump
‐ An increase of the EGT
‐ Engine vibrations
‐ Acrid smell in the cockpit.

Question 335

Engine Stall; Most of the FADECs have functions that:

Answer 335

‐ Regulate the airflow through the compressor, to prevent engine stalls
‐ Are able to detect engine stalls
‐ Try to recover from an engine stall, without flight crew action, by modifying the airflow.

Question 336

Engine Stall; flight crew first reduces thrust to idle on the affected engine to;

Answer 336

reduce the differential pressure across the compressor. This helps the engine airflow to become more stable.

Question 337

Engine Stall; If the engine parameters are normal, The flight crew selects the anti-ice on, in order to increase the bleed demand to;

Answer 337

reduce the pressure at the exit of the compressor, and helps the airflow to circulate in the
engine turbine from front to rear.

Question 338

The flight crew must report any engine stall for _____.

Answer 338

maintenance action

Question 339

An engine tailpipe fire can only occur at;

Answer 339

engine start or at engine shutdown; It is the result of an excess of fuel in the combustion chamber, in the turbine or in the exhaust nozzle, that ignites. A tailpipe fire is an internal fire in the engine, compared with an engine fire that occurs outside the engine core and gas path. No critical areas are affected.

Question 340

The correct method to manage an engine tailpipe fire is to _____.

Answer 340

stop the fuel flow, and to ventilate the engine

Question 341

the case of a tailpipe fire, there is no cockpit alert. The only indication can be;

Answer 341

increasing EGT due to the fire in the turbine. Therefore, most of the time, the ground crew, cabin crew, or ATC visually detect the tailpipe fire.

Question 342

In the case of a tailpipe fire, the flight crew must apply the QRH ENG TAILPIPE FIRE procedure, which requires the flight crew to:

Answer 342

‐ Shut down the engine, in order to stop the fuel flow

‐ Dry crank the engine, to remove the remaining fuel.

Question 343

ENGINE TAILPIPE FIRE; The flight crew should not use the ENG FIRE pb as;

Answer 343

This cuts off the electrical supply of the FADEC, and stops the dry crank sequence performed by the FADEC.
The flight crew should not use the fire extinguisher, as it does not extinguish an internal engine fire. As a first priority, the fuel flow must be stopped, and the engine must be ventilated.

Question 344

Ground fire extinguishing agent can cause _____ to the engine and requires a maintenance action on the engine.

Answer 344

serious corrosive damage

Question 345

Engine vibrations are usually caused by an imbalance of the engine that can be due to many reasons such as:

Answer 345

‐ A deformation of one or several blades due to Foreign Object Damage (FOD), or a bird strike
‐ A rupture or a loss of one or several blades
‐ An internal engine failure (e.g. engine stall) ‐ A fan icing

Question 346

When the flight crew identifies high engine vibrations, the flight crew must refer to the _____ section of the QRH.

Answer 346

ECAM ADVISORY CONDITIONS; On the A320neo, the ECAM advisory is replaced by an ECAM alert that guides the flight crew toward the QRH HIGH ENGINE VIBRATION procedure.

Question 347

The flight crew should suspect icing if;

Answer 347

N1 vibrations occur without variation on other engine parameters. If the flight crew notices unexpected behavior on other engine parameters, the flight crew should consider that icing is not suspected.

Question 348

Finally, during the taxi-in phase, the flight crew may consider to _____ if the flight crew experienced vibrations in flight, or if the flight crew experiences vibrations during taxi.

Answer 348

shut down the engine

Question 349

ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE - LANDING; The flight crew should not select the gear down too early, as

Answer 349

large amounts of power will be required to maintain level flight at high weights and/or high altitude airports.

Question 350

If no reversers are operative, the general recommendation is;

Answer 350

to not select the reverser thrust during RTO and at landing.

Question 351

Abnormal operation of the flaps and/or slats may be due to one of the following problems:

Answer 351

‐ DoubleSFCCfailure
‐ Double hydraulic failure (B+G or Y+G)
‐ Flaps/Slats jammed (operation of the WTB)

Question 352

ABNORMAL FLAPS/SLATS CONFIGURATION; The FMS predictions do not take into account the slat or flap failures. Since _____ is increased, these predictions are not valid.

Answer 352

fuel consumption

Question 353

Should a flap/slat retraction problem occur at takeoff;

Answer 353

the crew will PULL the speed knob for selected speed to stop the acceleration and avoid exceeding VFE.

Question 354

Detection of a slat or flap failure occurs with the selection of flap lever during the approach; the crew will:

Answer 354

‐ Pull the speed knob for selected speed to avoid further deceleration
‐ Delay the approach to complete the ECAM procedure
‐ Refer to LANDING WITH FLAPS OR SLATS JAMMED QRH procedure.
‐ Update the approach briefing.

Question 355

When diverting with flaps/slats extended, cruise altitude is limited to ___.

Answer 355

20 000 ft

Question 356

Fuel checks should be carried out when overflying a waypoint or at least every ___.

Answer 356

30 min

Question 357

The aircraft has three continuously operating hydraulic systems:

Answer 357

green, blue and yellow. A bidirectional Power Transfer Unit (PTU) enables the yellow system to pressurize the green system and vice versa. Hydraulic fluid cannot be transferred from one system to another.

Question 358

the PTU operates automatically if differential pressure between green and yellow systems exceeds;

Answer 358

500 PSI. This allows to cover the loss of one engine or one engine driven pump cases.

Question 359

Single hydraulic failures have very little effect on the handling of the aircraft but will cause;

Answer 359

degradation of the landing capability to CAT 3 SINGLE.

Question 360

Dual hydraulic failures however, although unlikely, are significant due to the following consequences;

Answer 360

‐ Loss of AP
‐ Flight control law degradation
‐ Landing in abnormal configuration
‐ Extensive ECAM procedures with associated workload and task-sharing considerations
‐ Significant considerations for approach and landing.

Question 361

DUAL HYDRAULIC FAILURES; Why does the procedure requires to wait for stabilization at VAPP, before landing gear extension?

Answer 361

At landing gear extension, switching to direct law, the auto trim function is lost. However, the mean elevator position at that time is memorized, and becomes the reference

Question 362

ECAM WHEEL SD page: at least _____ on each landing gear is sufficient to indicate that the landing gear is down and locked.

Answer 362

one green triangle; The flight crew must also rely also on the “LDG GEAR DN” green MEMO. This is sufficient to confirm that the landing gear is downlocked.

Question 363

LANDING WITH ABNORMAL L/G; weight should be reduced as much as possible to:

Answer 363

provide the slowest possible touchdown speed

Question 364

With at least one main landing gear in the abnormal position, the autobrake:

Answer 364

cannot be activated (ground spoilers not armed)

Question 365

The hydraulic power remains available up to approximately ___ after the shut down of the related engine

Answer 365

30 s; recommendations to switch the ENG masters OFF are as follow:
‐ If NOSE L/G abnormal
Before nose impact
‐ If one MAIN L/G abnormal
At touch down
‐ If both MAIN L/G abnormal
In the flare, before touch down

Question 366

NOSE WHEEL STEERING FAULT; The flight crew can request the towing early in approach, if:

Answer 366

the failure has been triggered in flight.

Question 367

The nosewheel steering angle must be limited to a maximum of ___.

Answer 367

30 °; In order to ensure that this limitation is not exceeded, the flight crew should use the graduations available on the steering handwheel.

Question 368

The crew may suspect tire damaged based on several indications. This include, but are not limited to:

Answer 368

‐ Information from the ATC of the presence of tire debris on the runway,
‐ A bang noise during the takeoff roll or just after takeoff, A bang noise may also have others origins (e.g. engine, nose landing gear retraction).
‐ A non-commanded sudden yaw noticed during the takeoff roll,

Question 369

The emergency descent should only be initiated on positive confirmation that;

Answer 369

cabin altitude and
rate of climb are excessive and uncontrollable. However, the flight crew must rely on the CAB PR EXCESS CAB ALT warning, even if not confirmed on the CAB PRESS SD page. The CAB PR EXCESS CAB ALT warning can be triggered by a cabin pressure sensor, different from the one used to control the pressure and display the cabin altitude on the SD.

Question 370

EMER DESCENT; When in IDLE thrust, high speed and with speed brake extended, the rate of descent is approximately ___. To descend from FL 390 to FL 100, it takes approximately _____.

Answer 370

7 000 ft/min; 4 min and 40 NM

Question 371

Displayed on ND is the highest MORA value within a radius of ___ around the aircraft.

Answer 371

40 NM

Question 372

EMER DESCENT; If the flight crew suspects structural damage, apply both of the following:

Answer 372

‐ Set the SPEED/MACH pb to SPEED, to prevent an increase in the IAS, or to reduce the speed.
This action minimizes the stress on aircraft structure
‐ Carefully use the speed brakes, to avoid additional stress on aircraft structure.

Question 373

EMER DESCENT; If the cabin altitude goes above 14 000 ft, the flight crew must press _____.

Answer 373

MASK MAN ON pb

Question 374

EMER DESCENT; Press the PRESS TO RESET oxygen control slide, to;

Answer 374

deactivate the mask microphone, and to cut

off the oxygen.

Question 375

EMER DESCENT; Below FL 100, the flight crew should limit the rate of descent to approximately ___, except during the approach phase.

Answer 375

1 000 ft/min

Question 376

The EMER EVAC procedure requires an additional Delta P check,

Answer 376

since the residual pressure sensor indicator (installed in the cabin door) is inhibited when slides are in the armed position. At least one automatic cabin pressure control system must be operative at departure. Therefore, the Delta P check does not apply to the case of an emergency evacuation following a rejected takeoff.

Question 377

When the aircraft is on battery power, the cockpit seats must be _____.

Answer 377

operated mechanically

Question 378

When applying the EMER EVAC procedure, the F/O can select the engine masters OFF and push the FIRE pb;

Answer 378

without any confirmation from the Captain

Question 379

If the incapacitated flight crewmember causes interference with the handling of the aircraft, press the sidestick pb for ___.

Answer 379

40 seconds

Question 380

The OVERSPEED warning is triggered when the speed exceeds _____, and lasts until the speed is below VMO/MMO.

Answer 380

VMO +4 kt/MMO +M 0.006

Question 381

OVERWEIGHT LANDING; _____ approach technique should be used.

Answer 381

early stabilized; VAPP established at the FAF. The speed will be reduced to reach VLS at runway threshold, to minimize the aircraft energy.

Question 382

OVERWEIGHT LANDING; When the aircraft weight exceeds the maximum landing weight, structural considerations impose
the ability to touch down at ___ without damage.

Answer 382

360 ft/min

Question 383

The line-up technique is very important. The pilot should:

Answer 383

use the over steer technique to minimize field length loss and consequently, to maximize the acceleration-stop distance available.

Question 384

ECAM inhibits the warnings that are not essential from ;

Answer 384

80 kt to 1 500 ft (or 2 min after lift-off, whichever occurs first)

Question 385

The takeoff is divided into low and high speeds regimes, with ___ being chosen as the dividing line.

Answer 385

100 kt

Question 386

Above 100 kt, and below V1; very few situations should lead to the decision to reject the takeoff:

Answer 386

1. Fire warning, or severe damage
2. Sudden loss of engine thrust
3. Malfunctions or conditions that give unambiguous indications that the aircraft will not fly safely
4. Any red ECAM warning
5. Any amber ECAM caution listed below:
   ‐ F/CTL L(R) SIDESTICK FAULT
   ‐ ENG 1(2) FAIL
   ‐ ENG 1(2) REVERSER FAULT
   ‐ ENG 1(2) REVERSE UNLOCKED
   ‐ ENG 1(2) THR LEVER FAULT

Question 387

In case of tire failure between V1 minus 20 kt and V1, it is far better to;

Answer 387

get airborne, reduce the fuel load, and land with a full runway length available, unless debris from the tires has caused serious engine anomalies

Question 388

If the takeoff is rejected prior to 72 kt, _____

not active and no deployment of _____.

Answer 388

autobrake/spoilers

Question 389

After a rejected takeoff, if the aircraft comes to a complete stop using autobrake MAX, release brakes prior to taxi by;

Answer 389

disarming spoilers

Question 390

The stall is a condition in aerodynamics where;

Answer 390

Angle of Attack (AOA) increases beyond a point such that the lift begins to decrease

Question 391

If the AOA further increases up to a value called AOAstall, the lift coefficient will reach a maximum value called

Answer 391

CL MAX

Question 392

When the AOA is higher than AOAstall, the airflow separates from the wing surface and the lift coefficient decreases. This is the

Answer 392

stall

Question 393

The stall will always occur at the same _____ for a given configuration, Mach number and altitude.

Answer 393

AOA

Question 394

The flight crew must apply the stall recovery procedure as soon as they recognize any of the following stall indications:

Answer 394

‐ Stall warnings

‐ Stall buffet

Question 395

Buffet is recognized by airframe vibrations that are caused by;

Answer 395

the non-stationary airflow separation from the wing surface when approaching AOAstall.

Question 396

When the Mach number increases, both the AOAstall and CL MAX will _____.

Answer 396

decrease

Question 397

STALL RECOVERY; ‐ The immediate key action is to _____:

Answer 397

reduce AOA; As a general rule, minimizing the loss of altitude is secondary to the reduction of the AOA as the first priority is to regain lift.

Question 398

STALL RECOVERY; The secondary action is to _____:

Answer 398

increase energy; When stall indications have stopped, the flight crew should increase thrust smoothly as needed and must ensure that the speed brakes are retracted.

Question 399

For under wing mounted engines, the thrust increase generates a pitch up that may prevent _____.

Answer 399

the required reduction of AOA

Question 400

If in clean configuration and below FL 200, during flight path recovery, the flight crew must;

Answer 400

select FLAPS 1 in order to increase the margin to AOAstall

Question 401

Each ADIRS has two parts _____, that may fail independently of each other.

Answer 401

ADR and IRS; Additionally the IRS part may fail totally or may be available in ATT mode.

Question 402

Single NAV ADR FAULT or NAV IRS FAULT are simple procedures, and only require action on the;

Answer 402

switching panel as indicated by the ECAM

Question 403

Dual NAV ADR or NAV IRS failures will cause the loss of;

Answer 403

AP and A/THR; and the flight controls revert to ALTN law.

Question 404

The NAV ADR 1+2+3 FAULT warning is triggered and the ECAM procedure requires that;

Answer 404

3 ADRs be switched OFF, to replace the PFD’s normal speed scale and altitude indication by the Back-Up Speed Scale (BUSS) and GPS altitude information.

Question 405

To switch off an ADR, the flight crew must use;

Answer 405

ADR pb; Do not use the rotary selector, because this would also cut off the electrical supply to the IR part.

Question 406

First effect of erroneous airspeed/altitude data in the cockpit will most probably be a discrepancy between;

Answer 406

CAPT PFD, F/O PFD and STBY instruments

Question 407

Explain Built-In Fault Accommodation Logics

Answer 407

The fault accommodation logics rely on a voting principle: When the data provided by one source diverges from the average value, the systems automatically reject this source and continue
to operate normally using the remaining two sources. The flight controls system and the flight guidance system both use this voting principle.

Question 408

Each _____ receives speed information from the three ADRs and compares the three values.

Answer 408

ELAC; The ELACs do not use the pressure altitude.

Question 409

Each _____ receives speed and pressure altitude information from the three ADRs and compares the three values.

Answer 409

FAC

Question 410

If one ADR deviates, and if this ADR is used to display the speed information on either the PFD;

Answer 410

NAV IAS DISCREPANCY and/or a NAV ADR DISAGREE ECAM caution is triggered. Furthermore, the autoland capability is downgraded to CAT 3 SINGLE.

Question 411

TWO ADR OUTPUTS ARE ERRONEOUS, BUT DIFFERENT, AND THE REMAINING ADR IS CORRECT, OR IF ALL THREE ADRS ARE ERRONEOUS, BUT DIFFERENT :

Answer 411

Both the AP and A/THR disconnect. The ELACs trigger the NAV ADR DISAGREE ECAM caution. The flight controls revert to alternate law without high and low speed protection.
On both PFDs:
‐ The SPD LIM flag appears
‐ No VLS, no VSW and no VMAX are displayed

Question 412

NAV ADR DISAGREE is latched for the remainder of the flight, until;

Answer 412

ELACs are reset on ground, without any hydraulic pressure.

Question 413

At high altitude, typically above ___, the cases of unreliable speed situation are mostly a
temporary phenomenon

Answer 413

FL 250

Question 414

If the barometric altitude is unreliable; _____ are affected

Answer 414

Flight Path Vector (FPV) and the Vertical Speed (V/S)

In addition, the ATC transponder may transmit an incorrect altitude to ATC or to other aircraft,

Question 415

The “UNRELIABLE SPEED INDICATION” procedure has two objectives:

Answer 415

‐ To fly the aircraft

‐ To identify and isolate the affected ADR(s).

Question 416

Erroneous airspeed data does not affect the STALL warning,

because the STALL warning is based on;

Answer 416

AOA

Question 417

UNRELIABLE SPEED INDICATION; the initial actions are

Answer 417

disconnect the automations. This prevents the Flight Guidance to use erroneous data for the computation of the aircraft guidance. Initial disconnection of the automation can prevent:
‐ Erroneous orders, if AP/FD are engaged
‐ Erroneous thrust change, if A/THR is engaged.

Question 418

UNRELIABLE SPEED INDICATION; Below ___, the flight crew uses the reversible BUSS,

Answer 418

FL 250; When the BUSS is activated, the GPS altitude is displayed on the associated PFD. The GPS altitude remains available on the MCDU GPS MONITOR page.

Question 419

When flying the aircraft with unreliable speed and/or altitude indications, it is recommended to

Answer 419

change only one flight parameter at a time (i.e. speed, altitude or configuration).

Question 420

When the reversible BUSS is active:

Answer 420

‐ The onside AP/FD and A/THR must be disconnected ‐ The STALL warning remains operative

Question 421

When flying with the BUSS, do not use _____.

Answer 421

speed brakes

Question 422

When flying with the BUSS, To retract or to extend flaps, apply the following technique:

Answer 422

‐ Before retracting the next flaps configuration, fly the upper part of the green band ‐ Before extending the next flaps configuration, fly the lower part of the green band.

Question 423

The Radio Altimeters (RAs) provide inputs to a number of systems, including;

Answer 423

GPWS and
FWC for auto-callouts. They also supply information to the AP and A/THR modes, plus inputs to switch flight control laws at various stages.

Question 424

Instead of using RA information, the flight control system uses inputs from the _____ to determine mode switching

Answer 424

LGCIU; ‐ On approach, DIRECT LAW becomes active when the L/G is selected down and provided AP is
disconnected. At this point, “USE MAN PITCH TRIM” is displayed on the PFD.
‐ After landing, ground law becomes active when the MLG is compressed and the pitch attitude
becomes less than 2.5 °.

Question 425

DUAL RADIO ALTIMETER FAILURE; It is not possible to capture the ILS using the APPR pb and the approach must be flown to CAT 1 limits only. However;

Answer 425

it is possible to capture the localiser using the LOC pb

Question 426

DUAL RADIO ALTIMETER FAILURE; AP/FD behaviour may be unsatisfactory when approaching the ground as;

Answer 426

autopilot gains are no longer updated with the radio altimeter signal

Question 427

DUAL RADIO ALTIMETER FAILURE; _____ will be inoperative

Answer 427

auto-callouts on approach, and no “RETARD” call in the flare
GPWS/EGPWS will be inoperative
“SPEED, SPEED, SPEED” low energy warning is also inoperative

Question 428

_____ should be considered as soon as the smoke is detected. If the source is not immediately obvious, accessible and extinguishable, it should be initiated without delay.

Answer 428

immediate diversion;

Question 429

If the smoke is detected by the crew, without any ECAM warning, the flight crew will refer directly to;

Answer 429

the QRH SMOKE/FUMES/AVNCS SMOKE procedure.

Question 430

The AVIONICS SMOKE ECAM procedure should be applied only IF SMOKE IS PERCEPTIBLE. The smoke is perceptible if

Answer 430

flight crew can confirm it visually or by smell, if not perceptible, the flight crew should consider a spurious warning and therefore stop

Question 431

SMOKE/FUMES/AVNCS SMOKE QRH procedure philosophy includes the following main steps:

Answer 431

‐ Diversion to be anticipated

‐ Immediate actions

Question 432

If smoke initially comes out of the cockpit’s ventilation outlets, or if smoke is detected in the
cabin, the crew may suspect

Answer 432

AIR COND SMOKE; very shortly thereafter, several SMOKE warnings (cargo, lavatory, avionics) will be triggered.

Question 433

Following an identified ENG or APU failure, smoke may emanate from the faulty item through;

Answer 433

bleed system and be perceptible in the cockpit or the cabin

Question 434

Since electrical fire is the most critical case, flight crew must consider setting the _____, to shed as much equipment as possible. This is in order to attempt to isolate the smoke source.

Answer 434

Emergency Electrical Configuration

Question 435

Reaching ___, the REMOVAL of SMOKE/FUMES procedure will be completed.

Answer 435

FL 100

Question 436

The crew should be aware that, even after successful operation of the cargo fire bottle, the CARGO SMOKE warning might persist due to

Answer 436

smoke detectors being sensitive to the extinguishing agent

Question 437

On the ground, the crew should instruct the ground crew not to open the cargo door until the

Answer 437

passengers have disembarked and fire services are present.

Question 438

If SMOKE warning is displayed on ground with the cargo compartment door open, do not initiate an AGENT DISCHARGE. Request the ground crew to investigate and eliminate the smoke source. On ground, the warning may be triggered due to;

Answer 438

high level of humidity