FCTM Flashcards
(438 cards)
1
Q
what is the purpose of FCTM?
A
The Flight Crew Techniques Manual (FCTM) provides complementary information to the Flight Crew
Operating Manual (FCOM).
The FCTM provides the flight crew with:
. The general Airbus operational philosophy (e.g. design and utilization principles, golden rules for
pilots)
. Additional information to the FCOM procedures (the “why” to do and the “how” to do)
. Best practices, operating techniques on maneuvers, and handling
. Information on situation awareness.
If the FCTM data differs from the FCOM data, the FCOM remains the reference.
2
Q
what are the sections of FCTM?
A
GENERAL INFORMATION AIRBUS OPERATIONAL PHILOSOPHY AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS PROCEDURES PREVENTING IDENTIFIED RISKS
3
Q
ABCU
A
Alternate Braking Control Unit
4
Q
ACARS
A
ARINC Communication Addressing and Reporting System
5
Q
ACSC
A
Air Conditioning System Controller
6
Q
ADIRS/ADIRU
A
Air Data Inertial Reference System/Unit
7
Q
AEVC
A
Avionic Equipment Ventilation Controller
8
Q
BCL
A
Battery Charge Limiter
9
Q
BMC
A
Bleed Monitoring Computer
10
Q
BSCU
A
Braking Steering Control Unit
11
Q
CDL
A
Configuration Deviation List
12
Q
CDFS
A
Centralized Fault Display System
13
Q
ECAM
A
Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring
14
Q
ECP
A
ECAM Control Panel
15
Q
EEC
A
Electronic Engine Computer
16
Q
EFIS
A
Electronic Flight Instruments System
17
Q
ELAC
A
Elevator Aileron Computer
18
Q
EVMU
A
Engine Vibration Monitoring Unit
19
Q
FAC
A
Flight Augmentation Computer
20
Q
FADEC
A
Full Authority Digital Engine Control System
21
Q
FCDC
A
Flight Control Data Concentrator
22
Q
FIDS
A
Fault Isolation and Detection System
23
Q
IDG
A
Integrated Drive Generator
24
Q
IGGS
A
Inert Gas Generation System
25
ISIS
Integrated Standby Instrument System
26
LGCIU
Landing Gear Control Interface Unit
27
NAI
Engine Nacelle Anti-Ice
28
PBE
Protective Breathing Equipment
29
ROPS
Runway Overrun Prevention System
30
RPCU
Residual Pressure Control Unit
31
SDAC
System Data Acquisition Concentrator
32
SDCU
Smoke Detection Control Unit
33
SEC
Spoiler Elevator Computer
34
SFCC
Slat/Flap Control Computer
35
THS
Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer
36
TRU
Transformer Rectifier Unit
37
VBV
Variable Bypass Valve
38
VSV
Variable Stator Vane
39
what is the control law?
The relationship between the pilot input on the sidestick, and the aircraft response, is called the
control law.
40
At high altitude, descend to a lower altitude to increase the margin to buffet. Descending by
approximately ____ ft below REC MAX ALT reduces significantly the occurrence of stall warning
in turbulence.
4000 ft
41
The flight crew can also decide to refer
| to the QRH, in order to perform both the _____ and _____ procedures.
Preliminary Cockpit Preparation & Securing the Aircraft
42
For Supplementary Procedures, the flight crew should use the following task-sharing:
If the procedure is related to engine start, it is recommended to read the entire
procedure first, and then:
‐ The PM reads the actions, and
| ‐ The PF acts on the controls.
43
Whatever the status of the AP, the PF and the PM must perform their onside _____ selections.
EFIS CP
44
ECAM procedures, are triggered automatically in response to an abnormal behavior of the
systems monitored by the _____
Flight Warning System (FWS)
45
In the case of abnormal or emergency situations, the flight crew should apply the procedures in the
following sequence, as appropriate:
‐ MEMORY ITEMS or OEB immediate actions
‐ OEB
‐ ECAM
‐ QRH
46
If red LAND ASAP is part of the procedure, land as soon as possible at the nearest airport at which a _____ can be made.
safe landing; Red LAND ASAP information is applicable to a time-critical situation.
47
If amber LAND ASAP is part of the procedure, consider landing at the _____.
nearest suitable airport; The suitability criteria should be defined in accordance with the Operator's policy.
48
In flight, the PF and PM must crosscheck before any action on the following controls:
‐ ENG MASTER lever
‐ IR MODE selector
‐ All guarded controls
‐ Cockpit C/Bs.
49
If the flight crew inadvertently operates a black guarded control, the subsequent effect is _____ and _____ when the flight crew operates red guarded controls.
reversible/irreversible
50
To perform any action requested by a procedure, the PM should indicate the related panel and
control and announce in sequence:
‐ The name of the system
‐ The name of the control, or system reset
‐ The action
E.g. “AIR, XBLEED, CLOSE".
51
After the selection of a control, the PM should check the _____ , in order to verify that the selected action was performed
SD page
52
For takeoff or
| go around, the flight crew should delay READ & DO actions until the aircraft reaches a minimum of _____ ft AGL.
400 ft
53
The PM should check/inspect the _____ and/or _____, in order to analyze and confirm the failure,
before they take any action.
overhead panel/associated SD
54
In all cases, the flight crew must stop the ECAM actions before reading the STATUS page, in order
to:
‐ Perform the After Takeoff/Climb C/L or any normal C/L, if applicable.
‐ Consider any system reset.
‐ Consider application of the ENG RELIGHT procedure after an engine failure with no damage.
55
If an ECAM warning disappears while a procedure is being applied, the warning can be considered _____.
no longer applicable; For example, during the
application of an engine fire procedure, if the fire is successfully extinguished with the first fire
extinguisher bottle, the ENG 1(2) FIRE warning disappears and the procedure no longer applies.
56
Any spurious caution can be deleted with the _____ ;
| deletes both the aural alert, and the caution for the remainder of the flight.
EMER CANC pb/indicated on the
| STATUS page, by the "CANCELLED CAUTION" title.
57
The QRH summaries are QRH procedures created to help the flight crew to perform actions in the
case of an _____ or _____.
ELEC EMER CONFIG/a dual hydraulic failure
58
The QRH summaries are divided into four sections:
CRUISE, APPROACH, LANDING, and
| GO-AROUND
59
Golden Rules for Pilots are:
1. Fly. Navigate. Communicate: In this order and with appropriate task-sharing.
2. Use the appropriate level of automation at all times.
3. Understand the FMA at all times.
4. Take action if things do not go as expected.
60
The attitude flight reference should be used for _____, for example, _____.
dynamic manoeuvres/take-off or
| go-around
61
The bird is computed from _____ and is affected by _____. The bird is also computed from _____.
IRS data/inertial errors/static pressure information
62
When using the "bird", the flight crew should first change attitude, and then
check the result with reference to the "bird".
63
When flying visual circuits, on the downwind leg, the
flight crew should position the wings of the "bird" on the _____, in order to maintain level flight. The _____ should be set on the FCU.
horizon/downwind track
64
A standard 3 ° approach path is indicated, when the top of the bird's tail is immediately _____, and the bottom of the "bird" is immediately _____.
below the horizon/above the 5 ° nose down marker
65
If the target approach speed symbol moves upward, this indicates that there is _____. If
the "bird" drifts to the right, this indicates that there is _____.
headwind gust/wind from the left
66
For the go-around, the appropriate flight reference is the attitude, because:
go-around is a dynamic maneuver; there is inevitably
some lag between the pilot’s raising the nose to commence the go-around and the aircraft’s
responding by changing its trajectory; when performing a go-around, regardless of the previously-selected flight
reference, upon selection of TOGA, the FD bars are automatically restored in SRS/GA TRACK
modes, and the "bird" is automatically removed.
67
The _____ and _____ assist the flight crew to fly the aircraft within the normal flight.
Flight Director (FD)/Auto Pilot (AP)
68
When the aircraft reaches THR RED ALT, the flight crew sets the thrust levers back to the CLB
detent. This activates _____.
A/THR
69
On final approach, it usually gives more accurate
speed control, although in turbulent conditions the actual airspeed may vary from the target speed,
by as much as _____.
five knots
70
If the pilot is going to make the
landing using manual thrust, he should disconnect the A/THR by the time he has reached _____
on the final approach.
1 000 ft
71
The recommended technique for setting A/THR to off is:
‐ Return the thrust levers to approximately the current thrust setting, by observing the TLA symbol
on the thrust gauge
‐ Press the I/D pb.
This technique minimizes thrust discontinuity, when setting A/THR to off.
72
If thrust levers are set to IDLE, A/THR is set to _____.
off
73
In flare, the "RETARD" aural alert will occur at _____, except
in the case of autoland, where it occurs at _____.
20 ft/10 ft
74
An ECAM caution and an FMA message trigger during thrust lock:
‐ THR LK appears on the FMA
‐ The AUTO FLT A/THR OFF ECAM alert is triggered
‐ The ENG THRUST LOCKED ECAM alert is triggered, if the thrust levers are not moved within
5 s.
75
When the aircraft's angle-of-attack goes beyond the ALPHA FLOOR threshold, this means that the
aircraft has decelerated significantly (below _____): A/THR activates automatically
and orders TOGA thrust, regardless of the thrust lever position.
ALPHA PROT speed
76
ALPHA floor is available, when:
flight controls are in NORMAL LAW, from liftoff to 100 ft RA at
landing. It is inhibited in some cases of engine failure.
77
A/THR should be monitored via the:
‐ FMA – SPEED / SPEED TREND on the PFD
| ‐ N1/N1 command (EPR) on the ECAM E/WD
78
NAVIGATION ACCURACY CROSSCHECK TECHNIQUE principle consists:
comparing the FMS position with the RADIO position. The flight crew inserts a radio ident in MCDU PROG page (which provides a bearing/distance
relative to FMS position). Then, the flight crew compares these values with raw data received from
the NAVAID that indicates the real position of the aircraft . This enables to quantify the error ε.
79
"CHECK A/C POSITION, FM1/FM2 POS MISMATCH", the aircraft position may be updated on the MCDU
PROG page. Two techniques are available:
The recommended technique is to carry out a FMS update over a beacon by pressing the
UPDATE prompt once estimating that the aircraft overflies the beacon using the associated
needle. The potential error induced is approximately 4 to 5 NM. When the position update is
achieved, the EPE is automatically set to a higher value and the navigation accuracy is low.
The second technique consists in updating the FM position when flying over a
Point/Bearing/Distance (P/B/D) with reference to beacon raw data (Needle + Distance) rather than
the beacon itself. The potential for error is far less when the distance is greater than 60 NM. The
flight crew will keep in mind the potential 180 ° error on bearing.
80
GW and CG values FM computed are used for:
* FM predictions and speeds
* ECAM (GW)
* MCDU (GW and CG)
* Computation of characteristic speeds (VLS, F, S, GD) for display on PFD
81
‐ GW and CG values FAC computed are used for:
• Flight control laws
82
The FMGC computes the GW and CG from:
‐ The ZFW, ZFWCG inserted in the MCDU INIT B page
‐ The fuel quantities from the Fuel Quantity Indicator (FQI)
‐ The Fuel Flow from the FADEC.
83
The FAC computes its own GW and CG from _____.
aerodynamic data
84
If the GW FM computed and FAC computed differs from a given threshold, a _____ message appears on the MCDU scratchpad.
"CHECK
| GW"
85
If the pilot enters erroneous ZFW on MCDU INIT B page, this will affect as follows:
GW and, to a lesser degree, CG, computed by FM are erroneous.
86
Erroneous ZFW on MCDU INIT B page, induces the following
| consequences:
• The FM predictions and speeds are erroneous
• Incorrect GW and CG on MCDU FUEL PRED page
• Incorrect GW displayed on ECAM
• Characteristic speeds on PFD are erroneous
• SRS mode guidance is affected if computed VLS is above V2 as inserted in the MCDU PERF
TAKE-OFF page.
‐ GW FAC computed, which is based on GW FM computed on ground, will be updated only once
airborne through a specific slow calculation using AOA information.
87
ERRONEOUS FUEL ON BOARD ENTRY, once the engines are started, the fuel figures are updated and
downstream data update accordingly; the FOB on ECAM is correct since it is provided from _____.
FQI data
88
In flight, the rudder controls the yaw, and the vertical stabiliser ensures _____ stability.
directional
89
```
At _____ (i.e. slats retracted), thrust asymmetry (eg. due to an engine failure)
does not have a significant effect on the yaw control of the aircraft. The rudder
deflection required to counter an engine failure and center the sideslip is small.
```
high speed
90
The flight crew may also use the rudder pedals in some abnormal situations. For example:
‐ Loss of both yaw damper systems
‐ Rudder trim runaway
‐ Landing with an abnormal landing gear position
91
THE RUDDER SHOULD NOT BE USED:
‐ To induce roll
| ‐ To counter roll, induced by any type of turbulence
92
TA shall be selected in the case of:
‐ Engine failure
‐ Known nearby traffic, which is in visual contact
‐ Flight with landing gear down
‐ Operations at specific airports
93
The flight crew should comply with the vertical speed limitations during the last _____ of a climb
or descent
2 000 ft; the flight crew should limit vertical speeds to 1 500 ft/min during the last
2 000 ft of a climb or descent, especially when they are aware of traffic that is converging in altitude
and intending to level off 1 000 ft above or below the flight crew's assigned altitude.
94
If a TA is generated:
‐ The PF announces: "TCAS, I have control".
| ‐ No evasive maneuver should be initiated, only on the basis of a TA.
95
If a RA is generated:
‐ The flight crew must always follow the TCAS RA orders in the correct direction, even:
• If the TCAS RA orders are in contradiction with the ATC instructions
• At the maximum ceiling altitude with CLIMB, CLIMB or INCREASE CLIMB, INCREASE CLIMB
TCAS RA orders
• If it results in crossing the altitude of the intruder.
‐ The PF disconnects the AP, and smoothly and firmly follows the Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI)
green sector within 5 s, and requests that both FDs be disconnected.
Note: Both FDs must be disconnected once APs are disconnected:
‐ To ensure autothrust speed mode
‐ To avoid possible confusion between FD bar orders and, TCAS aural and VSI orders
‐ The PM disconnects both FDs, but will not try to see intruders.
‐ The PF will avoid excessive maneuvers, and keep the Vertical Speed outside the red area of the
VSI and within the green area. If necessary, the PF must use the full speed range between Valpha
max and Vmax.
‐ The PM must notify ATC.
‐ The flight crew should never maneuver in the opposite direction of the RA, because TCAS
maneuvers are coordinated.
‐ In final approach, i.e. "CLIMB", "CLIMB NOW", "INCREASE CLIMB", the flight crew will initiate a
go-around.
When clear of conflict:
‐ The flight crew must resume normal navigation, in accordance with ATC clearance, and using the
AP, as required.
96
AP/FD TCAS MODE ENGAGEMENT/ If an RA is triggered, the AP/FD TCAS mode automatically, and immediately, _____.
The PF announces the AP/FD TCAS mode engagement, like any other FMA changes.
If the FDs are disengaged, they automatically _____.
engages/engage
97
AP/FD TCAS MODE ENGAGEMENT/ The FD pitch bar _____, and
| the triple click aural alert ______.
does not flash/does not sound
98
AP/FD TCAS MODE ENGAGEMENT/ If the A/THR is disconnected, it automatically becomes _____.
If APs and FDs are OFF when the RA is triggered, _____ automatically engages.
armed or active/HDG
99
If for any reason during an RA, the aircraft vertical speed does not reach the
green area of the vertical speed scale:
the PF should disconnect the AP, and
override the FD orders, in order to lead the aircraft vertical speed out of the
red area of the vertical speed scale.
100
STERILE COCKPIT RULE
When the aircraft is below 10 000 ft, any conversation that is not essential should be avoided.
101
NORMAL CHECKLIST are of a _____ type
"non-action"; (i.e. all actions should be completed from memory before the flight crew performs the checklist)
102
The NORMAL CHECKLIST actions are referred to as _____ -type actions.
"challenge/response"
103
During preliminary cockpit preparation, The RCL pb is pressed for at least ___ to display the cautions and warnings from the previous flight.
3 s
104
To check the liquid levels i.e. oil, hydraulic and oxygen pressure using:
• The HYD pb is pressed to check the hydraulic level
• The ENG pb is pressed to check engine oil level (Refer to FCOM/PRO-NOR-SOP-04 Before
Walkaround - ECAM Pages)
• The DOOR pb is pressed, to check the oxygen pressure level
105
Some odors may be perceived in the cabin, once the APU Bleed is set to ON. This is due to _____.
the possible presence of oil traces in the APU air-duct, , the APU Bleed may be selected 3 minutes after APU start. This APU warm-up time enables the seals to reach their optimum performance and eliminates oil traces in the APU airduct.
106
When the ECAM DOOR/OXY SD oxygen pressure is below a defined threshold,
an amber half box highlights the value.
107
The IRS alignment or realignment includes following two steps:
‐ Alignment:
Gyro and accelerometers prepare for the NAV computation. ‐ Position Initialization:
Navigation starting point is set.
108
COMPLETE IRS ALIGNMENT:
IRSs use gravity and the earth's rotation to determinate the aircraft attitude and true heading, and IRSs estimate a current aircraft latitude.
The IR mode selectors must be OFF for more than 5 s. Then, the flight crew sets the IR mode selectors to the NAV mode.
Note: The ON BAT light comes on during 5 s.
109
FAST IRS ALIGNMENT:
IRSs reset the ground speed and some internal filters to 0, but IRSs do not estimate the aircraft position.
The flight crew sets the IR mode selectors to OFF then, back to the NAV mode within 5 s.
110
The flight crew must verify Takeoff shift:
This ensures that the flight crew took into account the right intersection
111
The flight crew must verify Greendot speed:
This indirectly ensures that the GW values are consistent.
112
FMGS PREPARATION; Green fields are:
used for FMS generated data, and cannot be changed
113
INIT B should not be filled immediately after INIT A, because
FMGS would begin to compute F-PLN predictions. These computations would slow down the entry procedure.
114
When the flight crew enters or modifies the origin airport (FROM) or the CO RTE, the MCDU INIT coordinates are reset to the _____.
Airport Reference Point (ARP)
115
The one-engine-out acceleration altitude must:
* Be at least 400 ft above airport altitude
* Ensure that the net flight path is 35 ft above obstacles
* Ensure that the maximum time for takeoff thrust is not exceeded.
116
TAKEOFF BRIEFING, In case of failure after V1:
continue TO, no actions before 400 ft AGL except gear up reaching 400 ft AGL, ECAM actions
reaching EO ACC altitude
‐ If the engine is secured, level off, accelerate and clean up
‐ Otherwise continue climbing until the engine is secured (but not above EO maximum acceleration altitude)
at green dot: OP CLB, MCT, resume ECAM, after TO C/L, status ENG OUT routing: EOSID, SID, radar vector, immediate return ...
117
The PM should also check the triple brake indicator to ensure that brake pressure drops to zero because:
indicates a successful changeover to the normal braking system (green pressure has taken over yellow pressure).
118
A “spongy” pedal is felt during taxi because:
this indicates a degraded performance of the alternate braking system.
119
Carbon brake wear depends on:
number of brake applications and on brake temperature; does not depend on the applied pressure, or the duration of the braking.
120
On long, straight taxiways, and with no ATC or other ground traffic constraints, the PF should allow the aircraft to accelerate to ___, and should then use one smooth brake application to decelerate to ___.
30 kt/10 kt
121
The maximum brake temperature limitation for takeoff ensures:
in the case of a hydraulic leak, any hydraulic fluid that touches the brake units does not ignite in the wheel well after the landing gear retraction.
122
If the ACCU PRESS drops below _____, the flight crew should be aware that the Parking Brake can, quite suddenly, become less efficient.
1 500 PSI
123
Before takeoff, if the fans are running, the flight crew should refer to the indicated brake temperature. When the indicated brake temperature is above ___, takeoff must be delayed.
150 °C
124
Brake fans should not be used during takeoff:
to avoid Foreign Object Damage to fans and brakes
125
Before taxi, check that the amber "NWS DISC" ECAM message is off, to ensure _____.
steering is fully available
126
When the seating position is correct, the cut-off angle is ___, and the visual ground geometry provides an obscured segment of ___.
20 °/42 ft (12.5 m)
127
With one tire deflated, the aircraft speed is limited to ___ and nosewheel steering can be used. With two tires deflated, the aircraft speed is limited to ___ and nosewheel steering angle should be limited to 30 °.
For turns of 90 ° or more, the aircraft speed should be less than ___.
7 kt/3 kt/10 kt
128
LAST DATA CHANGES BEFORE TAKEOFF
‐ The runway in use changes, or
‐ The runway condition deteriorates, or
‐ The use of a new intersection shortens the runway length, or ‐ The wind or the temperature changes.
129
How to check a global consistency of FMGC entries:
Set the ND in ARC or NAV mode with a range 10 NM.
130
The Electronic Engine Control (EEC) computer prevents the engine stabilising between an _____ of _____, in order to protect against fan flutter.
Keep-Out-Zone range/60 to 74 % N1
131
The PM must check that the thrust is set by ___ and must announce "Thrust Set".
80 kt
132
On a normal takeoff, the PF should apply half forward or full forward side-stick, the input should be gradually reduced to be zero by ___.
100 kt
133
When the rotation is initiated, the flight crew achieves a rotation rate of approximately ___ resulting in a continuous pitch increase.
3 °/s
134
During the rotation, the aircraft liftoff occurs at approximately ___ of pitch, typically around ___ after the initiation of the rotation.
10 °/4 to 5 s
135
A slow rotation rate or an under rotation (below takeoff pitch target) has an impact on takeoff performance
‐ The takeoff run and the takeoff distance increase
| ‐ The obstacle clearance after takeoff decreases.
136
At the _____, the FD pitch mode changes from SRS to CLB or OP CLB mode.
acceleration altitude
137
At the acceleration altitude, the speed target jumps:
• Either to the managed target speed e.g. speed constraint, speed limit or ECON climb speed
• Or to the preselected climb speed (entered by the pilot on the MCDU PERF CLB page before
takeoff).
138
If take-off is carried out at heavy weight, two protections may intervene:
‐ The Automatic Retraction System (ARS)
| ‐ The Alpha Lock function
139
While in CONF 1+F and IAS reaches 210 kt:
THE AUTOMATIC RETRACTION SYSTEM is activated, which automatically retracts flaps to 0 °. If IAS decreases below VFE CONF1+F, the flaps will not extend back to 1+F.
140
The slats alpha/speed lock function will prevent slat retraction at _____ at the moment the flap lever is moved from Flaps 1 to Flaps 0. _____ pulses above the E/WD Slat indication.
high AOA or low speed/"A. LOCK"
141
VMAX value displayed on the PFD speed scale is based on the _____.
Slats/Flaps control lever position; OVERSPEED WARNING is based on the actual Slats/Flaps surface position. The flight crew must report any type of overspeed event.
142
If the aircraft is required to level off below the acceleration altitude,
ALT* engages and target speed goes to initial climb speed
143
Whenever V/S is used, pilots should pay particular attention to the speed trend as:
V/S takes precedence over speed requirements.
144
The EXPED mode is used to climb with maximum vertical gradient i.e.
the target speed becomes green dot. Its use should be avoided above FL 250.
145
SMALL ALTITUDE CHANGES; The use of low values of V/S, e.g. less than 1 000 ft/min, may be appropriate for small altitude changes as
makes the guidance smoother and needs less thrust variation
146
The managed climb speed, computed by the FMGS, provides
the most economical climb profile
147
If necessary, the climb speed can be either pre-selected on ground prior to take-off on:
MCDU PERF CLIMB page or selected on the FCU
148
The speed to achieve the maximum rate of climb, i.e. to reach a given altitude in the shortest time, lies between
ECON climb speed and green dot; As there is no indication of this speed on the PFD, a good rule of thumb is to use turbulence speed to achieve maximum rate.
149
The speed to achieve the maximum gradient of climb, i.e. to reach a given altitude in a shortest distance,
green dot; The MCDU PERF CLB page displays the time and distance required to achieve the selected altitude by climbing at green dot speed.
150
When IAS is selected in lower altitude, there is an automatic change to Mach at:
crossover altitude
151
UNDUE ACTIVATION OF GO-AROUND PHASE situation:
After takeoff if the aircraft is above the ACC ALT and the flight crew sets the thrust levers to TOGA detent with at least CONF 1.
152
UNDUE ACTIVATION OF GO-AROUND PHASE; activate the CLIMB phase:
‐ Insert a NEW DEST (different from the current DEST), or
| ‐ Select the ALTN destination.
153
When at cruise FL, the AP altitude control is:
Soft. This means that the AP will allow small altitude variation around the cruise altitude (typically ± 50 ft) to keep cruise Mach before a readjustment of thrust occurs. This optimizes the fuel consumption in cruise.
154
Wind entries should be made at waypoints when there is a difference of:
30 ° or 30 kt for the wind data and 5 °C for temperature deviation. This will ensure that the FMS fuel and time predictions are as accurate as possible.
155
Each time an ETP is sequenced, the crew should insert the next _____.
suitable diversion airfield
156
The ETP should be inserted in the SEC F-PLN as:
PD (Place/Distance) and the route to diversion airfield should be finalized.
157
CLOSEST AIRPORT page which provides valuable fuel/time estimates to:
four closest airports from the aircraft position, as well as to an airport the crew may define
158
The Cost Index (CI) is used to take into account the relationship between
fuel and time related costs in order to minimize the trip cost. The CI is calculated by the airline for each sector. From an operational point of view, the CI affects the speeds (ECON SPEED/MACH) and cruise altitude (OPT ALT). CI=0 corresponds to maximum range whereas the CI=999 corresponds to minimum time.
159
The optimum cruise Mach number value depends on:
```
‐ CI
‐ Cruise flight level
‐ Temperature deviation
‐ Weight
‐ Headwind component
```
160
optimum Mach number will optimum Mach number will +50 kt head wind equates to:
M +0.01
161
If the constraint can be met within a tolerance, a _____ asterix will be displayed on the MCDU; if the constraint cannot be met, an _____ asterix will be displayed.
magenta/amber
162
At high altitude, the speed should not be reduced below _____ as this may create a situation where it is impossible to maintain speed and/or altitude as the increased drag may exceed the available thrust.
GREEN DOT
163
FACTORS THAT CAUSE A SPEED DECAY DURING CRUISE:
‐ A large and continuous increase in tailwind or decrease in headwind, in addition to an increase in the Outside Air Temperature (OAT), that results in a decrease of the REC MAX FL
‐ A large downdraft, when the flight crew flies (parallel and) downwind in a mountainous area, due to orographic waves. The downdraft may have a negative vertical speed of more than 500 ft/min. Therefore, if the aircraft is in a downdraft, the flight crew must climb in order to maintain altitude, and the pitch angle and the thrust value increase. Without sufficient thrust margin, the flight crew may notice that aircraft speed decays, but the REC MAX FL is not modified.
164
The REC MAX FL indicated in the PROG page of the MCDU decreases when the _____.
OAT increases
165
The optimum lift/drag speed is the:
GD speed
166
If aircraft speed is below GD speed and continues to decrease, even with the maximum available thrust in use, if the flight crew maintains the current altitude, the angle of attack will further _____.
increase
167
If aircraft speed goes below GD speed, with the maximum available thrust in use, the only way for the flight crew to avoid a dangerous increase in the angle of attack is to _____.
descend
168
REC MAX FL reflects the _____ and does not take into account the _____.
present engine and wing performance/cost aspect
169
REC MAX FL provides a ___ buffet margin
0.3 g
170
If the crew inserts a FL higher than REC MAX into the MCDU, it will be accepted only if it provides a buffet margin greater than ___.
0.2 g
171
OPT FL displayed on the MCDU is the cruise altitude for _____ is flown and should be followed whenever possible
minimum cost when ECON MACH
172
For each Mach number, there will be a different OPT FL. Should an FMGS failure occur, the crew should refer to the _____ to determine the OPT FL. FCOM and QRH charts are only provided for ___ different Mach numbers.
FCOM or QRH/two
173
This technique referred to as a Step Climb is:
it is better to climb to a higher cruise altitude when aircraft weight permits, because the optimum altitude increases when fuel is consumed during the flight
174
The OPT STEP computation is accurate if the flight crew accurately entered the _____.
vertical wind profile
175
It can be advantageous to request an initial cruise altitude _____ the OPT FL, if altitude changes are difficult to obtain on specific routes.
above; This minimizes the possibility of being held at a low altitude and in high fuel consumption condition for long periods of time.
176
Fuel freeze refers to:
formation of wax crystals suspended in the fuel, which can accumulate when fuel temperature is below the freeze point (-47 °C for jet A1) and can prevent proper fuel feed to the engines.
177
If fuel temperature approaches the minimum allowed, the ECAM outputs a caution. Consideration should be given to achieving a higher TAT:
• Descending or diverting to a warmer air mass may be considered. Below the tropopause, a
4 000 ft descent gives a 7 °C increase in TAT. In severe cases, a descent to as low as 25 000 ft
may be required.
• Increasing Mach number will also increase TAT. An increase of M 0.01 produces approximately
0.7 °C increase in TAT.
178
In case of strong or gusty crosswind greater than 20 kt, VAPP should be at least ___; increment may be increased up to ___ at the flight crew's discretion.
VLS +5 kt/15 kt
179
The VAPP function of
aircraft landing weight, slats/flaps configuration, wind conditions, use of A/THR, icing conditions.
180
Managed speed should be used for final approach as it provides _____, even when the VAPP has been manually inserted.
Ground Speed mini guidance
181
VAPP value is the sum of
VLS and the APPRroach CORrection (APPR COR)
182
The Airbus recommendation is to limit the sum (ΔVREF + APPR COR) to ___ in order not to increase indefinitely the approach speed as it has a direct impact on the landing distance.
20 kt; As a result, for a failure which increases the reference speed by more than 20 kt, there is no approach correction.
183
Factors affect the life of carbon brakes:
‐ The wear of the disks
‐ The oxidation of the disks
The oxidation may degrade rapidly the carbon brakes and may cause the rupture of a brake disk. The main cause of oxidation is the repetitive high temperature of the brakes (particularly above 400 °C).
184
The flight crew should obtain the latest information for landing (weather, runway state, braking action, etc, ...) at the latest _____.
15 min prior to descent
185
The FMGS calculates the T/D point backwards from a position _____ with speed at _____.
1 000 ft on the final approach/VAPP
186
If the STAR includes a holding pattern, it is not considered for _____.
T/D or fuel computation; The descent path is computed as an idle segment
187
Descent Profile Optimisation option (DPO)
the idle segment assumes a given managed speed flown at idle thrust. This gives less flexibility to keep the aircraft on the descent path if engine anti-ice is used or if winds vary. In case of use of engine anti-ice or increased tailwind, the use of speed brakes may be required to go back on the descent path.
188
When DES mode is used, the descent is monitored using:
‐ The VDEV called "yoyo" on the PFD and the associated Latch symbol, and
‐ The VDEV digital value on the FMS PROG page, and ‐ The level arrow on the ND.
189
When OP DES or V/S modes are used, the descent is monitored using the _____.
Energy Circle and the level arrow on the ND
190
The managed descent profile from high altitude is approximately ___.
2.5 °
191
When in DES mode, the FMGS gives priority to the _____ over the speed management.
vertical profile
192
an early descent were required by ATC, DES mode would give _____, until regaining the computed profile.
1 000 ft/min rate of descent
193
DES mode operates within a speed range which can goes up to ___ as upper limit and ___ as lower limit (limited by VLS).
VMO-5 kt/MANAGED SPD-20 kt
194
The default hold speed is the lowest of the following:
‐ Maximum Endurance speed
‐ ICAO limit holding speed
‐ Speed constraint (if any).
195
Maximum Endurance speed is approximately equal to
Green Dot and provides the lowest hourly fuel consumption
196
Activation of the approach phase will initiate a deceleration towards _____.
VAPP or the speed constraint inserted at the Final Descent Point (FDP)
197
DECELERATED APPROACH
an approach where the aircraft reaches 1 000 ft in the landing configuration at VAPP. In most cases, this equates to the aircraft being in CONF 1 and at S speed at the FDP.
198
EARLY STABILIZED APPROACH
This technique refers to an approach where the aircraft reaches the FDP in the landing configuration at VAPP.
(LOC FPA, NAV FPA and TRK FPA)
199
To achieve a constant deceleration and to minimise thrust variation, the crew should extend the next configuration when reaching the _____.
current configuration maneuvering speed +10 kt; when the speed reaches green dot +10 kt, the crew should select CONF 1. Using this technique, the mean deceleration rate will be approximately 10 kt/NM in level flight. This deceleration rate will be twice i.e. 20 kt/NM, with the use of the speedbrakes.
200
speed below the manoeuvring speed of the present configuration may be selected provided it is above ___.
VLS+ 5 kt
201
If the PF uses manual thrust for landing, he/she should disconnect the A/THR at _____ at the latest.
1 000 ft AAL
202
If the ATC clears for approach at a significant distance, CAT 1 will be displayed on FMA till:
valid Radio Altimeter signal is received
203
GLIDE SLOPE INTERCEPTION FROM ABOVE, to get the best rate of descent when cleared by ATC and below the limiting speeds, the flight crew should:
lower the landing gear and select flaps as required (at least CONF 2 should be selected to ensure that the aircraft speed will not increase).
204
When cleared to intercept the glide slope, the flight crew should:
Select V/S 1 500 ft/min initially. V/S in excess of 2 000 ft/min will result in the speed increasing
towards VFE.
205
DECISION HEIGHT
the wheel height above the runway elevation by which a go around must be initiated unless appropriate visual reference has been established and the aircraft position and the approach path have been assessed as satisfactory to continue the automatic approach and landing safely. The DH is based on RA.
206
ALERT HEIGHT
the height above the runway, CATIII approach would be discontinued and a missed approach initiated if a failure occurred in one of the redundant parts of the automatic landing system (fail-operational automatic landing system); if a failure affecting the fail-operational criteria occurs below the AH, it would be ignored and the approach continued (except if AUTOLAND warning is triggered). The AH concept is relevant when CAT 3 DUAL is displayed on FMA.
On single aisle Airbus family, the AH =100 ft.
207
CAT 3 SINGLE
the airborne systems are fail passive which means that a single failure will lead to the AP disconnection without any significant out of trim condition or deviation of the flight path or attitude. Manual flight is then required. This minimum DH is 50 ft.
208
CAT 3 DUAL
the airborne systems are fail-operational. In case of a
single failure, the AP will continue to guide the aircraft on the flight path and the automatic landing system will operate as a fail-passive system. In the event of a failure below the AH, the approach, flare and landing can be completed by the remaining part of the automatic system. In that case, no capability degradation is indicated. Such a redundancy allows CAT III operations with or without DH.
209
Crew refer to the QRH to establish the actual landing capability if some equipment are listed inoperative because:
A number of failures which affect the aircraft's landing capability which are not monitored by the FMGS and, consequently, not reflected on the FMA
210
An incorrect seating position which reduces the cut-off angle by 1 ° reduces the visual segment by approximately _____.
10 m (30 ft)
211
Should a failure occur above 1 000 ft RA, all ECAM actions (and DH amendment if required) should be completed before reaching 1 000 ft RA, otherwise:
go-around should be initiated
212
Below ___, data coming from the FMS is frozen e.g.: ILS tune inhibit.
700 ft RA
213
Below ___, the FCU is frozen.
400 ft RA
214
Below 200 ft, the AUTOLAND red light illuminates if:
* Both APs trip off
* Excessive beam deviation is sensed
* Localizer or glide slope transmitter or receiver fails
* A RA discrepancy of at least 15 ft is sensed.
215
‐ Flare comes at or below ___
‐ THR IDLE comes at or below ___
‐ RETARD auto call out comes at ___ for autoland as an order (Instead of ___ for manual
landing as a reminder).
- 40 ft
- 30 ft
- 10 ft/20 ft
216
For CAT II approaches, autoland is recommended. If manual landing is preferred, the PF will take-over at ___ at the latest.
80 ft
217
At the MAP or Minimum Use Height of the AP, the FMS invalidates the vertical profile at the MAP. The FDs revert from FINAL APP to _____.
HDG V/S mode
218
For all Non Precision Approaches, there is a minimum:
OAT. Below this temperature, the error on the barometric altitude is no longer acceptable, and altitude should be corrected in temperature.
219
The Final Path Angle (FPA) should be preset on the FCU ___ prior to the FDP at the latest.
1 NM
220
A smooth interception of the final approach path can be achieved by pulling the FPA selector ___ prior to the FDP.
0.3 NM
221
Back course localizer (LOC B/C) approach consists:
using the LOC signal of the opposite runway for lateral approach management.
222
LOC B/C approach should be flown using the ___ mode for lateral guidance and the ___ mode for vertical guidance.
TRK/FPA; The approach is flown using the ND in ROSE LS/ILS mode as it shows the correct LEFT/RIGHT information for the beam deviation.
223
The flight crew will aim to get the following configuration at beginning of the downwind leg:
‐ Both AP and FDs will be selected off
‐ BIRD ON
‐ A/THR confirmed active in speed mode, i.e. SPEED on the FMA
‐ Managed speed will be used to enable the "GS mini" function
‐ The downwind track will be selected on the FCU to assist in downwind tracking ‐ The downwind track altitude will be set on FCU.
224
Assuming a 1 500 ft AAL circuit, the base turn should be commenced ___ after passing abeam the downwind threshold.
45 s/(3 s/100 ft +/- 1 s/1 kt of headwind / tailwind)
225
The final turn onto the runway centreline will be commenced with ___ angle of bank. Initially the rate of descent should be ___, increasing to ___ when established on the correct descent path
20 °/400 fpm/700 fpm
226
When ___ below the G/S, the pilot should initiate the interception of the G/S by smoothly flying the FPV down to the glide path angle.
1⁄2 dot
227
When approaching the ground, _____ ceases and the _____ activates.
auto-trim/flare law
228
The PM monitors the rate of descent and should call _____ if the vertical speed is excessive prior to the flare.
"SINK RATE"
229
From stabilized conditions, the flare height is about ___.
30 ft
230
Factors that will require an earlier flare:
‐ High airport elevation (higher ground speeds)
‐ Steeper approach slope (compared to nominal 3 °).
‐ Tailwind (higher ground speeds)
‐ Increasing runway slope (radio height callouts/visual misperception of being high)
231
At ___, the "RETARD" auto call-out reminds the pilot to retard thrust levers.
20 ft
232
The typical pitch increment in the flare is approximately ___, which leads to ___ flight path angle associated with a 10 kt speed decay in the manoeuvre.
4 °/-1 °
233
Main part of the spoiler pitch up effect is compensated by the _____.
flight control law
234
The recommended de-crab technique is to use all of the following:
‐ The rudder to align the aircraft with the runway heading during the flare
‐ The roll control, if needed, to maintain the aircraft on the runway centerline. Any tendency to
drift downwind should be counteracted by an appropriate lateral (roll) input on the sidestick.
235
The NWS tiller will not be used until _____ is reached.
taxi speed
236
Three systems are involved in braking once the aircraft is on the ground:
‐ The ground spoilers
‐ The thrust reversers
‐ The wheel brakes.
237
Partial Lift Dumping Function; The ground spoilers partially automatically deploy, when the aircraft touches down with at least _____.
one main landing gear/one thrust lever is in the reverse sector
238
The ground spoiler extension signal is used for _____.
auto-brake activation
239
Below ___, thrust reversers efficiency rapidly decreases. Below ___ with REV MAX selected, engine stall may occur.
70 kt/60 kt
240
On _____ runways, the flight crew must select REV MAX.
contaminated
241
The anti-skid system adapts pilot applied brake pressure to runway conditions by:
sensing an impending skid condition and adjusting the brake pressure to each individual wheel as required
242
Full pedal braking with anti-skid provides a deceleration rate of ___.
10 kt/sec
243
The use of A/BRAKE is usually preferable because:
minimizes the number of brake
| applications and thus reduces brake wear
244
The green DECEL light comes on when the actual deceleration is ___ of the selected rate.
80 %
245
DECEL light is not an indicator of the _____.
autobrake operation; DECEL light might not appear when the autobrake is selected on a contaminated runway, because the deceleration rate is not reached with the autobrake properly functioning. Whereas the DECEL light might appear with LO selected on a dry runway while only the reversers achieve the selected deceleration rate without autobrake being actually activated.
246
CROSS WIND CONDITIONS; To correct back to the centreline, the pilot must _____.
Reduce reverse thrust to REV IDLE and release the brakes; When re-established on the runway centreline, the pilot should re-apply braking and reverse thrust as required.
247
The most common causes of tail strikes:
‐ Allowing the speed to decrease well below VAPP before flare
‐ Prolonged hold off for a smooth touch down
‐ Too high flare
‐ Too high sink rate, just prior reaching the flare height
‐ Bouncing at touch down
248
Aircraft systems help to prevent tail strike occurrence:
‐ A "PITCH-PITCH" synthetic voice sounds when the pitch attitude becomes excessive,
‐ A tail strike pitch limit indicator appears on the PFD to indicate the maximum pitch attitude to
avoid a tail strike.
249
BOUNCING AT TOUCH DOWN; In case of light bounce:
maintain the pitch attitude and complete the landing, while keeping the thrust at idle. Do not allow the pitch attitude to increase, particularly following a firm touch down with a high pitch rate.
250
BOUNCING AT TOUCH DOWN; In case of high bounce:
maintain the pitch attitude and initiate a go-around. Do not try to avoid a second touch down during the go-around. Should it happen, it would be soft enough to prevent damage to the aircraft, if pitch attitude is maintained.
251
The PF must not initiate a go-around after the selection of the _____.
thrust reversers
252
Below ___, when flare law is activated, PF may need to counteract the thrust effect during go-around.
100 ft
253
If the aircraft is on the runway when the PF applies TOGA thrust, _____ may transiently trigger. The flight crew should disregard these alerts.
CONFIG ECAM red warning(s)
254
If the flight crew performs a go-around near the ground, they should take into account the following:
‐ The PF should avoid excessive rotation rate, in order to prevent a tail-strike.
‐ A temporary landing gear contact with the runway is acceptable.
255
The GA phase activates on the FMS when:
thrust levers are set to the TOGA detent, with the Flaps lever not in 0
256
When the thrust levers are set to the TOGA detent, with the Flaps lever not in 0, the following will occur:
‐ If the autopilot or the flight director is in use, SRS and GA TRK(NAV) modes engage.
‐ If the autopilot and both flight directors are off, the PF will maintain 15 ° of pitch.
‐ The GA phase activates on the FMS:
• The missed approach becomes the active F-PLN
• At the end of the missed approach procedure, the FMS strings the previous flown approach in
the active F-PLN.
‐ If not previously engaged, the FD automatically engages with the HDG/VS reference on the FCU. For the go-around, the appropriate flight reference is the attitude, because go-around is a dynamic maneuver.
‐ If extended, the speed brakes automatically retract.
257
To perform a soft go-around, the PF must
set thrust levers to the TOGA detent to ensure engagement of SRS GA mode. Then, the PF must set the thrust levers to the FLX/MCT detent to engage the GA SOFT mode. In this case, the FMA displays MAN GA SOFT, and the AP/FD vertical and lateral modes remain engaged.
258
In GA SOFT mode, the SRS GA mode remains engaged with a vertical target speed of approximately ___.
2 300 ft/min
259
At time of TOGA selection, the SRS mode guides the aircraft with:
the highest speed of VAPP or IAS; (limited to maximum of VLS +25 with all engines operative or VLS +15 with one engine inoperative with FMS 2) until the acceleration altitude where the target speed increases to green dot.
260
When the pilot sets TOGA thrust for go-around, it takes some time for the engines to spool up due to:
acceleration capability of the high by pass ratio engines
261
AP/FD must be in _____ mode for the ACTIVATE SEC F-PLN prompt to be displayed.
HDG
262
The selection of the brake fans, before the aircraft reaches the gate, prevents:
blowing carbon brake dust on the ground personnel. The brake fans blow dust during the first seconds of operation only.
263
Set the APU Bleed to ON just before engine shutdown, to:
minimize odors in the air conditioning
264
Microbursts occur close to the ground and are a possible hazard to the safe flight of the aircraft for the following two reasons:
‐ The downburst of a microburst can result in strong downward winds (40 kt can be reached)
‐ The outburst of a microburst can result in both a large horizontal windshear and a wind
component shift from headwind to tailwind (horizontal winds can reach up to 40 kt).
265
The PWS automatically operates below a given altitude, if the radar is ON or OFF, provided that the PWS sw is in the _____ position.
AUTO
266
Flight crew can disregard the predictive windshear alert, as long as both the following apply:
‐ There are no other signs of possible windshear conditions
‐ The reactive windshear system is operational.
However, the flight crew must always rely on all reactive windshear (i.e. WINDSHEAR) alerts.
267
Predictive windshear alerts are inhibited when the aircraft speed is above ___ and up to ___.
100 kt/50 ft
268
If a predictive windshear alert is triggered on the runway before takeoff, or in case of suspected windshear, the flight crew must:
delay takeoff until conditions are better. In order to evaluate takeoff conditions, the flight crew should apply both of the following:
‐ Use their observations and experience
‐ Check the weather conditions.
269
If a predictive windshear WARNING is triggered during the takeoff roll, the Captain must:
reject takeoff.
270
If a predictive windshear CAUTION is triggered during the takeoff roll, it is the decision of the Captain according to the Captain's situation assessment to either:
- Continue with takeoff considering TOGA, or
| - Reject takeoff.
271
If a predictive windshear alert is triggered during initial climb, the flight crew must:
- Set TOGA
- Closely monitor the speed and the speed trend
- Ensure that the flight path does not include areas with suspected windshears
- Change the aircraft configuration, provided that the aircraft does not enter windshear.
272
During the takeoff roll, "WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR" alert is _____.
inhibited; Windshear recognition is based on the flight crew observation.
273
If the windshear occurs before V1, with significant speed and speed trend variations, the Captain must:
reject takeoff
274
If the windshear occurs after V1, the flight crew must:
select TOGA;
‐ The flight crew should not change the configuration, until the aircraft is out of the windshear, because operating the landing gear doors causes additional drag
‐ The PF must fly SRS pitch orders rapidly and smoothly, but not aggressively, and must consider pulling full backstick, if necessary, to minimize height loss
‐ The PM should call out the wind variations from the ND and V/S and, when clear of the windshear, report the encounter to the ATC.
275
In case of suspected windshear, if the flight crew decides to continue the approach, they should:
‐ Assess the weather severity with the radar display
‐ Consider the most appropriate runway
‐ Select FLAPS 3 for landing, in order to optimize the climb gradient capability in the case of a
go-around
‐ Use managed speed, because it provides the GS mini function
‐ The flight crew may increase VAPP displayed on MCDU PERF APP page up to a maximum
VLS +15 kt, in case of strong or gusty crosswind greater than 20 kt, use the LDG PERF
application of EFB for VAPP determination.
‐ In very difficult weather conditions, the A/THR response time may not be sufficient to manage
the instantaneous loss of airspeed.
276
Severe turbulence is defined as turbulence that causes:
large, abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude. It usually causes large variations in airspeed.
If severe turbulence occurs during a flight, the flight crew must make a logbook entry in order to initiate maintenance action.
277
If turbulence is expected:
‐ The flight crew must set the SEAT BELTS sw to ON, in order to prepare passengers and prevent
injuries
‐ All loose equipment must be secured in the cockpit and in the cabin.
278
For takeoff in high turbulence, the flight crew must wait for the target speed +20 kt (limited to VFE-5):
before retracting the slats/flaps (e.g. the flight crew must wait for F+20 kt before setting Flaps 1)
279
The decision to avoid a CB must be taken as early as possible, and lateral avoidance should, ideally, be at _____.
20 NM upwind
280
A transient increase is preferable to _____, that decreases buffet margins and is difficult to recover.
a loss of speed
281
_____ provides better handling capability in turbulent conditions, however, _____ provides more energy and less drag.
CONF FULL/CONF 3
282
If the aircraft encounters wake turbulence, the following is therefore recommended:
‐ Do not use the rudder
‐ Keep the AP ON
‐ If the AP was set to OFF by the flight crew or automatically disconnected, release the controls
and wait for a reasonable stabilization of the aircraft.
283
The flight crew should select the takeoff configuration that:
‐ Optimizes takeoff performance (takeoff weight, etc.)
‐ If possible, increases flexible temperature
‐ Reduces takeoff speed (higher configuration for a dedicated flexible temperature).
284
Takeoff with flexible thrust _____ fuel consumption compared with takeoff with TOGA thrust, due to the _____.
increases/longer takeoff phase; But the use of flexible thrust reduces engine wear and reduces general costs.
285
The CI is the ratio of:
time costs versus fuel costs; The purpose of the CI is not to reduce fuel consumption.
286
The tropopause value is correct, in order to ensure;
accuracy of FMS predictions
287
the lowest authorized altitude may be ___, for both the thrust reduction altitude (THR RED ALT) and the acceleration altitude (ACCEL ALT).
400 ft
288
the flight crew should request takeoff on the runway that;
minimizes the taxi time and optimizes the departure trajectory, in order to minimize the flight time.
289
If the APU is necessary, the flight crew may set the APU bleed to ON, in order to;
reduce fuel consumption. This opens the crossbleed valve and automatically closes the engine bleed. As the bleed air is not supplied by the engines, the fuel consumption is reduced. However, the use of APU bleed can lead to exhaust gases ingestion into the air conditioning system.
290
The flight crew should update wind information when the change is more than:
‐ 30 ° in direction, or
| ‐ 30 kt in speed.
291
When landing performance permits, the best combination to reduce fuel costs and brakes oxidation is:
CONF 3 + REV IDLE + Autobrake LO
292
If the flight crew needs to reduce the landing distance, they should consider to use the deceleration devices in the following order:
1. FLAPS FULL
2. REV MAX
3. Autobrake MED.
293
The flight crew should avoid the use of Autobrake MED in combination with CONF 3 and REV IDLE. This is because
this configuration highly increases brake temperature and, as a result, brakes oxidation, which may be severe
294
_____ is the optimum configuration for a holding circuit.
Clean configuration; fly at Green Dot speed, in order to optimize the Lift-to-Drag ratio.
295
Should a single FMGC failure occur, the AP, if engaged on the affected side, will disconnect. The flight crew can recover by:
by selecting the other AP. The A/THR remains operative
296
SINGLE FMGC FAILURE; affected ND may be recovered by using:
same range as the opposite ND. The flight crew should consider a FMGC reset as detailed in QRH.
297
DUAL FMGC FAILURE; flight crew should
recover both AP and A/THR by selecting them back ON (The AP and A/THR can be recovered if the FG parts of the FMGC are still available).
the thrust levers will have to be moved to recover manual thrust. The flight crew should switch off the FDs and select TRK/FPA to allow the blue track index and the bird to be displayed. The RMPs can be used to tune the NAVAIDs
298
LOSS OF BRAKING; Unless required due to an emergency, it is recommended to avoid the use of high level of reverse thrust at low speed, in order to avoid
engine stall and excessive EGT
299
LOSS OF BRAKING; In order to successfully revert to alternate braking, it is important to sequence the actions in three steps. The PF should:
1. Release the brake pedals
2. Request the PM to set the A/SKID & N/W STRG sw to OFF
3. Press the brake pedals, only after the PM has set the A/SKID & N/W STRG sw to OFF. The
ABCU automatically limits the brake pressure to 1 000 PSI. Monitor the brake pressure on the BRAKES PRESS indicator.
300
The emergency electrical configuration is due to
loss of AC BUS 1 and 2; The RAT extends automatically. This powers the blue hydraulic circuit which drives the emergency generator. The emergency generator supplies both AC and DC ESS BUS.
301
Below ___, the RAT stalls and the emergency generator is no longer powered.
125 kt; emergency generation network is automatically transferred to the batteries and AC SHED ESS and DC SHED ESS BUS are shed.
302
EMERGENCY ELECTRICAL CONFIGURATION; Below ___, the DC BAT BUS is automatically connected and below ___, the AC ESS BUS is shed.
100 kt/50 kt
303
EMERGENCY ELECTRICAL CONFIGURATION; The approach speed must be at least min _____ to keep the emergency generator supplying the electrical network.
RAT speed (140 kt)
304
ELEC EMER CONFIG; Alternate braking with _____ hydraulic pressure modulation up to 1 000 PSI will be used.
yellow
305
ELEC EMER CONFIG; Approaching ___ during the landing roll, all display units will be lost.
50 kt
306
ELEC EMER CONFIG; On BAT, some additional loads are lost such as _____.
FAC1 and FMGC1
307
ENGINE ABNORMAL RESPONSE; it is usually preferable to keep the engine running. Even at idle, the engine powers;
the hydraulic, electric, and bleed systems.
308
Even if the ENG ALL ENGINES FAILURE alert is not triggered, the flight crew must rapidly decide to apply either;
ALL ENG FAIL QRH procedure, or the EMER LANDING QRH procedure
309
Each APU start attempt reduces flight time on batteries by _____. Total flight time on batteries is more than _____.
about 3 and a half minutes/30 min
310
The flight crew can detect an engine flameout without damage by
rapid decrease of EPR/N1, N2, EGT and FF.
311
The flight crew can suspect engine damage, if the flight crew observes two or more of the following symptoms:
‐ Rapid increase of the EGT above the red line
‐ Important mismatch of the rotor speeds, or absence of rotation
‐ Significant increase of aircraft vibrations, or buffeting, or both vibrations and buffeting ‐ Hydraulic system loss
‐ Repeated, or not controllable engine stalls.
312
If an engine failure occurs at low speed, to regain or maintain directional control on the runway, it is necessary:
‐ To immediately reduce both thrust levers to IDLE, which will reduce the thrust asymmetry caused
by the failed engine
‐ To select both reversers irrespective of which engine has failed
‐ To use rudder pedal for directional control, supplemented by symmetrical or differential braking if
needed.
313
Below ___, the ground spoilers will not deploy and the auto brake will not activate.
72 kts
314
If an engine failure occurs after liftoff, the SRS targets the speed
speed at which the failure occurred (limited between V2 and V2 +15 kt).
315
When the AP is engaged the rudder trim is managed via the AP, therefore:
* Manual rudder trim command is inhibited
| * The flight crew should release any pressure on the rudder pedals.
316
a rudder pedal deflection is maintained or applied after AP engagement;
the AP may disengage
317
Takeoff thrust is limited to ___.
10 min
318
"Secure the engine" means that the flight crew should continue the ECAM procedure until:
‐ "ENG MASTER OFF" in the case of an engine failure without damage, or
‐ "AGENT 1 DISCH" in the case of an engine failure with damage, or ‐ Fire extinguished or "AGENT 2 DISCH" in case of an engine fire.
319
ENGINE FAILURE AFTER V1; when the flap lever is at zero, the beta target reverts to the _____
normal sideslip indication
320
The engine out maximum acceleration altitude corresponds to;
the maximum altitude that can be achieved with one engine out and the other engine operating at takeoff thrust for a maximum of 10 min
321
When the speed trend arrow reaches the green dot speed;
pull the ALT knob to engage OP CLB
322
the acceleration altitude provides a compromise between;
the obstacle clearance and the engine thrust limiting time
323
When an engine failure occurs during cruise, three possible strategies apply:
‐ The standard strategy
‐ The obstacle strategy
‐ The fixed speed strategy.
324
Pressing the EO CLR key on the MCDU restores;
all engine operative predictions and performance. Reverting to one engine-out performance again is not possible.
325
With the A/THR disconnected, the target speed is controlled by the _____ when in OPEN DES.
elevator
326
STANDARD STRATEGY; The speed of ___ is chosen to ensure the aircraft is within the stabilized windmill engine relight in-flight envelope.
0.78/300 kt
327
The REC MAX EO Cruise altitude, which equates to LRC Engine-Out maximum FL with anti-icing off, is displayed on the _____.
MCDU PROG page
328
STANDARD STRATEGY; When the V/S becomes less than 500 ft/min;
select V/S -500 ft/min and A/THR on
329
OBSTACLE STRATEGY; The speed target in this case is;
green dot; the rate and angle of descent are reduced
330
The _____ page in EO condition displays the drift down ceiling
MCDU PERF CRZ
331
An engine stall is;
disruption of the airflow in a turbine engine. When the blades of the engine compressors stall, they are no longer able to compress the air from the front to the rear of the engine.
332
An engine stall can be due to any of the following reasons:
‐ An engine degradation (e.g. compressor blade rupture, or high wear)
‐ Ingestion of foreign objects (e.g. birds), or ice
‐ A malfunction of the bleed system
‐ A malfunction of the engine controls (e.g. fuel scheduling, or stall protection devices)
‐ A significant disturbance of the airflow (e.g. due to wake turbulence, non-appropriate use of the
thrust reverser after landing, or lightning strike).
333
During takeoff, and at high power settings, the symptoms of an engine stall are the following:
‐ One or more very loud bangs, usually compared to a shotgun being fired a few meters away ‐ An instant loss of thrust, or even a reverse thrust, that causes a yaw movement
‐ Fluctuations of the engine parameters (EPR/N1, N2). The engine may give the
impression to pump
‐ An increase of the EGT
‐ Engine vibrations
‐ Flames may be visible from both ends of the engine (inlet / tail pipe) ‐ Acrid smell in the cockpit.
334
During cruise, and at low power settings (e.g. at thrust reduction at the T/D), the symptoms of an engine stall are the following:
```
‐ One or more muffled bangs
‐ Slow or no thrust lever response
‐ Fluctuations of the engine parameters (EPR/N1, N2). The engine may give the impression to pump
‐ An increase of the EGT
‐ Engine vibrations
‐ Acrid smell in the cockpit.
```
335
Engine Stall; Most of the FADECs have functions that:
‐ Regulate the airflow through the compressor, to prevent engine stalls
‐ Are able to detect engine stalls
‐ Try to recover from an engine stall, without flight crew action, by modifying the airflow.
336
Engine Stall; flight crew first reduces thrust to idle on the affected engine to;
reduce the differential pressure across the compressor. This helps the engine airflow to become more stable.
337
Engine Stall; If the engine parameters are normal, The flight crew selects the anti-ice on, in order to increase the bleed demand to;
reduce the pressure at the exit of the compressor, and helps the airflow to circulate in the
engine turbine from front to rear.
338
The flight crew must report any engine stall for _____.
maintenance action
339
An engine tailpipe fire can only occur at;
engine start or at engine shutdown; It is the result of an excess of fuel in the combustion chamber, in the turbine or in the exhaust nozzle, that ignites. A tailpipe fire is an internal fire in the engine, compared with an engine fire that occurs outside the engine core and gas path. No critical areas are affected.
340
The correct method to manage an engine tailpipe fire is to _____.
stop the fuel flow, and to ventilate the engine
341
the case of a tailpipe fire, there is no cockpit alert. The only indication can be;
increasing EGT due to the fire in the turbine. Therefore, most of the time, the ground crew, cabin crew, or ATC visually detect the tailpipe fire.
342
In the case of a tailpipe fire, the flight crew must apply the QRH ENG TAILPIPE FIRE procedure, which requires the flight crew to:
‐ Shut down the engine, in order to stop the fuel flow
| ‐ Dry crank the engine, to remove the remaining fuel.
343
ENGINE TAILPIPE FIRE; The flight crew should not use the ENG FIRE pb as;
This cuts off the electrical supply of the FADEC, and stops the dry crank sequence performed by the FADEC.
The flight crew should not use the fire extinguisher, as it does not extinguish an internal engine fire. As a first priority, the fuel flow must be stopped, and the engine must be ventilated.
344
Ground fire extinguishing agent can cause _____ to the engine and requires a maintenance action on the engine.
serious corrosive damage
345
Engine vibrations are usually caused by an imbalance of the engine that can be due to many reasons such as:
‐ A deformation of one or several blades due to Foreign Object Damage (FOD), or a bird strike
‐ A rupture or a loss of one or several blades
‐ An internal engine failure (e.g. engine stall) ‐ A fan icing
346
When the flight crew identifies high engine vibrations, the flight crew must refer to the _____ section of the QRH.
ECAM ADVISORY CONDITIONS; On the A320neo, the ECAM advisory is replaced by an ECAM alert that guides the flight crew toward the QRH HIGH ENGINE VIBRATION procedure.
347
The flight crew should suspect icing if;
N1 vibrations occur without variation on other engine parameters. If the flight crew notices unexpected behavior on other engine parameters, the flight crew should consider that icing is not suspected.
348
Finally, during the taxi-in phase, the flight crew may consider to _____ if the flight crew experienced vibrations in flight, or if the flight crew experiences vibrations during taxi.
shut down the engine
349
ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE - LANDING; The flight crew should not select the gear down too early, as
large amounts of power will be required to maintain level flight at high weights and/or high altitude airports.
350
If no reversers are operative, the general recommendation is;
to not select the reverser thrust during RTO and at landing.
351
Abnormal operation of the flaps and/or slats may be due to one of the following problems:
‐ DoubleSFCCfailure
‐ Double hydraulic failure (B+G or Y+G)
‐ Flaps/Slats jammed (operation of the WTB)
352
ABNORMAL FLAPS/SLATS CONFIGURATION; The FMS predictions do not take into account the slat or flap failures. Since _____ is increased, these predictions are not valid.
fuel consumption
353
Should a flap/slat retraction problem occur at takeoff;
the crew will PULL the speed knob for selected speed to stop the acceleration and avoid exceeding VFE.
354
Detection of a slat or flap failure occurs with the selection of flap lever during the approach; the crew will:
‐ Pull the speed knob for selected speed to avoid further deceleration
‐ Delay the approach to complete the ECAM procedure
‐ Refer to LANDING WITH FLAPS OR SLATS JAMMED QRH procedure.
‐ Update the approach briefing.
355
When diverting with flaps/slats extended, cruise altitude is limited to ___.
20 000 ft
356
Fuel checks should be carried out when overflying a waypoint or at least every ___.
30 min
357
The aircraft has three continuously operating hydraulic systems:
green, blue and yellow. A bidirectional Power Transfer Unit (PTU) enables the yellow system to pressurize the green system and vice versa. Hydraulic fluid cannot be transferred from one system to another.
358
the PTU operates automatically if differential pressure between green and yellow systems exceeds;
500 PSI. This allows to cover the loss of one engine or one engine driven pump cases.
359
Single hydraulic failures have very little effect on the handling of the aircraft but will cause;
degradation of the landing capability to CAT 3 SINGLE.
360
Dual hydraulic failures however, although unlikely, are significant due to the following consequences;
‐ Loss of AP
‐ Flight control law degradation
‐ Landing in abnormal configuration
‐ Extensive ECAM procedures with associated workload and task-sharing considerations
‐ Significant considerations for approach and landing.
361
DUAL HYDRAULIC FAILURES; Why does the procedure requires to wait for stabilization at VAPP, before landing gear extension?
At landing gear extension, switching to direct law, the auto trim function is lost. However, the mean elevator position at that time is memorized, and becomes the reference
362
ECAM WHEEL SD page: at least _____ on each landing gear is sufficient to indicate that the landing gear is down and locked.
one green triangle; The flight crew must also rely also on the “LDG GEAR DN” green MEMO. This is sufficient to confirm that the landing gear is downlocked.
363
LANDING WITH ABNORMAL L/G; weight should be reduced as much as possible to:
provide the slowest possible touchdown speed
364
With at least one main landing gear in the abnormal position, the autobrake:
cannot be activated (ground spoilers not armed)
365
The hydraulic power remains available up to approximately ___ after the shut down of the related engine
```
30 s; recommendations to switch the ENG masters OFF are as follow:
‐ If NOSE L/G abnormal
Before nose impact
‐ If one MAIN L/G abnormal
At touch down
‐ If both MAIN L/G abnormal
In the flare, before touch down
```
366
NOSE WHEEL STEERING FAULT; The flight crew can request the towing early in approach, if:
the failure has been triggered in flight.
367
The nosewheel steering angle must be limited to a maximum of ___.
30 °; In order to ensure that this limitation is not exceeded, the flight crew should use the graduations available on the steering handwheel.
368
The crew may suspect tire damaged based on several indications. This include, but are not limited to:
‐ Information from the ATC of the presence of tire debris on the runway,
‐ A bang noise during the takeoff roll or just after takeoff, A bang noise may also have others origins (e.g. engine, nose landing gear retraction).
‐ A non-commanded sudden yaw noticed during the takeoff roll,
369
The emergency descent should only be initiated on positive confirmation that;
cabin altitude and
rate of climb are excessive and uncontrollable. However, the flight crew must rely on the CAB PR EXCESS CAB ALT warning, even if not confirmed on the CAB PRESS SD page. The CAB PR EXCESS CAB ALT warning can be triggered by a cabin pressure sensor, different from the one used to control the pressure and display the cabin altitude on the SD.
370
EMER DESCENT; When in IDLE thrust, high speed and with speed brake extended, the rate of descent is approximately ___. To descend from FL 390 to FL 100, it takes approximately _____.
7 000 ft/min; 4 min and 40 NM
371
Displayed on ND is the highest MORA value within a radius of ___ around the aircraft.
40 NM
372
EMER DESCENT; If the flight crew suspects structural damage, apply both of the following:
‐ Set the SPEED/MACH pb to SPEED, to prevent an increase in the IAS, or to reduce the speed.
This action minimizes the stress on aircraft structure
‐ Carefully use the speed brakes, to avoid additional stress on aircraft structure.
373
EMER DESCENT; If the cabin altitude goes above 14 000 ft, the flight crew must press _____.
MASK MAN ON pb
374
EMER DESCENT; Press the PRESS TO RESET oxygen control slide, to;
deactivate the mask microphone, and to cut
| off the oxygen.
375
EMER DESCENT; Below FL 100, the flight crew should limit the rate of descent to approximately ___, except during the approach phase.
1 000 ft/min
376
The EMER EVAC procedure requires an additional Delta P check,
since the residual pressure sensor indicator (installed in the cabin door) is inhibited when slides are in the armed position. At least one automatic cabin pressure control system must be operative at departure. Therefore, the Delta P check does not apply to the case of an emergency evacuation following a rejected takeoff.
377
When the aircraft is on battery power, the cockpit seats must be _____.
operated mechanically
378
When applying the EMER EVAC procedure, the F/O can select the engine masters OFF and push the FIRE pb;
without any confirmation from the Captain
379
If the incapacitated flight crewmember causes interference with the handling of the aircraft, press the sidestick pb for ___.
40 seconds
380
The OVERSPEED warning is triggered when the speed exceeds _____, and lasts until the speed is below VMO/MMO.
VMO +4 kt/MMO +M 0.006
381
OVERWEIGHT LANDING; _____ approach technique should be used.
early stabilized; VAPP established at the FAF. The speed will be reduced to reach VLS at runway threshold, to minimize the aircraft energy.
382
OVERWEIGHT LANDING; When the aircraft weight exceeds the maximum landing weight, structural considerations impose
the ability to touch down at ___ without damage.
360 ft/min
383
The line-up technique is very important. The pilot should:
use the over steer technique to minimize field length loss and consequently, to maximize the acceleration-stop distance available.
384
ECAM inhibits the warnings that are not essential from ;
80 kt to 1 500 ft (or 2 min after lift-off, whichever occurs first)
385
The takeoff is divided into low and high speeds regimes, with ___ being chosen as the dividing line.
100 kt
386
Above 100 kt, and below V1; very few situations should lead to the decision to reject the takeoff:
1. Fire warning, or severe damage
2. Sudden loss of engine thrust
3. Malfunctions or conditions that give unambiguous indications that the aircraft will not fly safely
4. Any red ECAM warning
5. Any amber ECAM caution listed below:
‐ F/CTL L(R) SIDESTICK FAULT
‐ ENG 1(2) FAIL
‐ ENG 1(2) REVERSER FAULT
‐ ENG 1(2) REVERSE UNLOCKED
‐ ENG 1(2) THR LEVER FAULT
387
In case of tire failure between V1 minus 20 kt and V1, it is far better to;
get airborne, reduce the fuel load, and land with a full runway length available, unless debris from the tires has caused serious engine anomalies
388
If the takeoff is rejected prior to 72 kt, _____
| not active and no deployment of _____.
autobrake/spoilers
389
After a rejected takeoff, if the aircraft comes to a complete stop using autobrake MAX, release brakes prior to taxi by;
disarming spoilers
390
The stall is a condition in aerodynamics where;
Angle of Attack (AOA) increases beyond a point such that the lift begins to decrease
391
If the AOA further increases up to a value called AOAstall, the lift coefficient will reach a maximum value called
CL MAX
392
When the AOA is higher than AOAstall, the airflow separates from the wing surface and the lift coefficient decreases. This is the
stall
393
The stall will always occur at the same _____ for a given configuration, Mach number and altitude.
AOA
394
The flight crew must apply the stall recovery procedure as soon as they recognize any of the following stall indications:
‐ Stall warnings
| ‐ Stall buffet
395
Buffet is recognized by airframe vibrations that are caused by;
the non-stationary airflow separation from the wing surface when approaching AOAstall.
396
When the Mach number increases, both the AOAstall and CL MAX will _____.
decrease
397
STALL RECOVERY; ‐ The immediate key action is to _____:
reduce AOA; As a general rule, minimizing the loss of altitude is secondary to the reduction of the AOA as the first priority is to regain lift.
398
STALL RECOVERY; The secondary action is to _____:
increase energy; When stall indications have stopped, the flight crew should increase thrust smoothly as needed and must ensure that the speed brakes are retracted.
399
For under wing mounted engines, the thrust increase generates a pitch up that may prevent _____.
the required reduction of AOA
400
If in clean configuration and below FL 200, during flight path recovery, the flight crew must;
select FLAPS 1 in order to increase the margin to AOAstall
401
Each ADIRS has two parts _____, that may fail independently of each other.
ADR and IRS; Additionally the IRS part may fail totally or may be available in ATT mode.
402
Single NAV ADR FAULT or NAV IRS FAULT are simple procedures, and only require action on the;
switching panel as indicated by the ECAM
403
Dual NAV ADR or NAV IRS failures will cause the loss of;
AP and A/THR; and the flight controls revert to ALTN law.
404
The NAV ADR 1+2+3 FAULT warning is triggered and the ECAM procedure requires that;
3 ADRs be switched OFF, to replace the PFD's normal speed scale and altitude indication by the Back-Up Speed Scale (BUSS) and GPS altitude information.
405
To switch off an ADR, the flight crew must use;
ADR pb; Do not use the rotary selector, because this would also cut off the electrical supply to the IR part.
406
First effect of erroneous airspeed/altitude data in the cockpit will most probably be a discrepancy between;
CAPT PFD, F/O PFD and STBY instruments
407
Explain Built-In Fault Accommodation Logics
The fault accommodation logics rely on a voting principle: When the data provided by one source diverges from the average value, the systems automatically reject this source and continue
to operate normally using the remaining two sources. The flight controls system and the flight guidance system both use this voting principle.
408
Each _____ receives speed information from the three ADRs and compares the three values.
ELAC; The ELACs do not use the pressure altitude.
409
Each _____ receives speed and pressure altitude information from the three ADRs and compares the three values.
FAC
410
If one ADR deviates, and if this ADR is used to display the speed information on either the PFD;
NAV IAS DISCREPANCY and/or a NAV ADR DISAGREE ECAM caution is triggered. Furthermore, the autoland capability is downgraded to CAT 3 SINGLE.
411
TWO ADR OUTPUTS ARE ERRONEOUS, BUT DIFFERENT, AND THE REMAINING ADR IS CORRECT, OR IF ALL THREE ADRS ARE ERRONEOUS, BUT DIFFERENT :
Both the AP and A/THR disconnect. The ELACs trigger the NAV ADR DISAGREE ECAM caution. The flight controls revert to alternate law without high and low speed protection.
On both PFDs:
‐ The SPD LIM flag appears
‐ No VLS, no VSW and no VMAX are displayed
412
NAV ADR DISAGREE is latched for the remainder of the flight, until;
ELACs are reset on ground, without any hydraulic pressure.
413
At high altitude, typically above ___, the cases of unreliable speed situation are mostly a
temporary phenomenon
FL 250
414
If the barometric altitude is unreliable; _____ are affected
Flight Path Vector (FPV) and the Vertical Speed (V/S)
| In addition, the ATC transponder may transmit an incorrect altitude to ATC or to other aircraft,
415
The "UNRELIABLE SPEED INDICATION" procedure has two objectives:
‐ To fly the aircraft
| ‐ To identify and isolate the affected ADR(s).
416
Erroneous airspeed data does not affect the STALL warning,
| because the STALL warning is based on;
AOA
417
UNRELIABLE SPEED INDICATION; the initial actions are
disconnect the automations. This prevents the Flight Guidance to use erroneous data for the computation of the aircraft guidance. Initial disconnection of the automation can prevent:
‐ Erroneous orders, if AP/FD are engaged
‐ Erroneous thrust change, if A/THR is engaged.
418
UNRELIABLE SPEED INDICATION; Below ___, the flight crew uses the reversible BUSS,
FL 250; When the BUSS is activated, the GPS altitude is displayed on the associated PFD. The GPS altitude remains available on the MCDU GPS MONITOR page.
419
When flying the aircraft with unreliable speed and/or altitude indications, it is recommended to
change only one flight parameter at a time (i.e. speed, altitude or configuration).
420
When the reversible BUSS is active:
‐ The onside AP/FD and A/THR must be disconnected ‐ The STALL warning remains operative
421
When flying with the BUSS, do not use _____.
speed brakes
422
When flying with the BUSS, To retract or to extend flaps, apply the following technique:
‐ Before retracting the next flaps configuration, fly the upper part of the green band ‐ Before extending the next flaps configuration, fly the lower part of the green band.
423
The Radio Altimeters (RAs) provide inputs to a number of systems, including;
GPWS and
FWC for auto-callouts. They also supply information to the AP and A/THR modes, plus inputs to switch flight control laws at various stages.
424
Instead of using RA information, the flight control system uses inputs from the _____ to determine mode switching
LGCIU; ‐ On approach, DIRECT LAW becomes active when the L/G is selected down and provided AP is
disconnected. At this point, "USE MAN PITCH TRIM" is displayed on the PFD.
‐ After landing, ground law becomes active when the MLG is compressed and the pitch attitude
becomes less than 2.5 °.
425
DUAL RADIO ALTIMETER FAILURE; It is not possible to capture the ILS using the APPR pb and the approach must be flown to CAT 1 limits only. However;
it is possible to capture the localiser using the LOC pb
426
DUAL RADIO ALTIMETER FAILURE; AP/FD behaviour may be unsatisfactory when approaching the ground as;
autopilot gains are no longer updated with the radio altimeter signal
427
DUAL RADIO ALTIMETER FAILURE; _____ will be inoperative
auto-callouts on approach, and no "RETARD" call in the flare
GPWS/EGPWS will be inoperative
"SPEED, SPEED, SPEED" low energy warning is also inoperative
428
_____ should be considered as soon as the smoke is detected. If the source is not immediately obvious, accessible and extinguishable, it should be initiated without delay.
immediate diversion;
429
If the smoke is detected by the crew, without any ECAM warning, the flight crew will refer directly to;
the QRH SMOKE/FUMES/AVNCS SMOKE procedure.
430
The AVIONICS SMOKE ECAM procedure should be applied only IF SMOKE IS PERCEPTIBLE. The smoke is perceptible if
flight crew can confirm it visually or by smell, if not perceptible, the flight crew should consider a spurious warning and therefore stop
431
SMOKE/FUMES/AVNCS SMOKE QRH procedure philosophy includes the following main steps:
‐ Diversion to be anticipated
| ‐ Immediate actions
432
If smoke initially comes out of the cockpit's ventilation outlets, or if smoke is detected in the
cabin, the crew may suspect
AIR COND SMOKE; very shortly thereafter, several SMOKE warnings (cargo, lavatory, avionics) will be triggered.
433
Following an identified ENG or APU failure, smoke may emanate from the faulty item through;
bleed system and be perceptible in the cockpit or the cabin
434
Since electrical fire is the most critical case, flight crew must consider setting the _____, to shed as much equipment as possible. This is in order to attempt to isolate the smoke source.
Emergency Electrical Configuration
435
Reaching ___, the REMOVAL of SMOKE/FUMES procedure will be completed.
FL 100
436
The crew should be aware that, even after successful operation of the cargo fire bottle, the CARGO SMOKE warning might persist due to
smoke detectors being sensitive to the extinguishing agent
437
On the ground, the crew should instruct the ground crew not to open the cargo door until the
passengers have disembarked and fire services are present.
438
If SMOKE warning is displayed on ground with the cargo compartment door open, do not initiate an AGENT DISCHARGE. Request the ground crew to investigate and eliminate the smoke source. On ground, the warning may be triggered due to;
high level of humidity
