Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

FCOM QUESTIONS AIRBUS 320 NEO > FCOM QUESTIONS > Flashcards

FCOM QUESTIONS Flashcards

1
Q

DITCHING guarded pushbutton, what happen?

A

“close” signal to the

outflow valve,
emergency ram air inlet,
avionics ventilation inlet and extract valves,
pack flow control valves.

Note: The outflow valve will not close automatically, if it is under manual
control

CAUTION: If the ditching pb is set to ON, with the low pressure ground
cart connected and all doors closed, a differential pressure will
build up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

“HIGH” or “LOW” on the PROG page

A

“HIGH” or “LOW” on the PROG page indicates the FM position accuracy, based
on estimated uncertainty. When GPS PRIMARY mode is lost, the flight crew must
periodically check this position accuracy. In GPS PRIMARY mode, the position
accuracy is always at HIGH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Below maneuvering speed (F, S, Green Dot) BANK LIMITATION

A

Below maneuvering speed (F, S, Green Dot) – 10 kt, the autopilot or flight director
(AP/FD) cannot order a bank angle greater than 15 °.

Above maneuvering speed – 10 kt, this limit linearly increases until it reaches:
‐ In selected lateral guidance: 25 ° at maneuvering speed – 3 kt. The limit is then
25 ° for all speeds above maneuvering speed – 3 kt.

‐ In managed lateral guidance: 30 ° at maneuvering speed – 3 kt. The limit is
then 30 ° for all speeds above maneuvering speed – 3 kt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

FMGS RESET

A

When the FM software cannot work properly or receives instructions to perform impossible
operations, it automatically resets itself. A resynchronization with the other FM always follows.

When the reset is a minor one, the system will recover by itself. One single reset lasts 2 to 3 s maximum followed by 25 s of resynchronization.

When the reset is a major one:
‐ Resets recur at short intervals (several in 2 or 3 min)
‐ The memories are cleared, leading to the loss of F-PLN, GW, CI, CRZ FL, MCDU-entered
speeds and NAVAIDs and to database switching

CAUTION: If three dual FM resets occur in 2 min, pilot-entered data is lost. If a dual reset is
identified, it is recommended that the flight crew does not perform again the last
MCDU actions for 1 min (in order to avoid a potential second dual reset, leading to
the loss of pilot-entered data)

NOTE: 2 MINUTES ONLY ON OUR PR-YY FLEET. ALL OTHERS ACFT IS 3 MINUTES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

FMS erronous trajectory display during cockpit preparation, example showing a right turn instead of a left turn. Should we still use?

A

CAUTION: Even if the flight plan is correct during the Cockpit Preparation or during the
Descent Preparation, the FMS may compute and display an erroneous trajectory
when the FMS updates its predictions after takeoff or after go-around initiation.

THE CREW SHOULD SELECT HDG/TRK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A/THR instinctive disconnect for 15 s

A

CAUTION: If the flight crew presses, and holds one A/THR instinctive disconnect pb for more
than 15 s, the A/THR will disconnect for the remainder of the flight. All A/THR
modes, including A.FLOOR, will be lost. The A/THR will be recovered at the next
FMGC power-up on the ground.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

IDG DISCONNECT PB

A

CAUTION:
1. Maintaining the IDG pb-sw during more than 3 s may
damage the IDG disconnection mechanism. SOLENOID.

  1. Disconnect the IDG only when the engine is running or
    windmilling. If not, the IDG will be damaged when starting
    the engine.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What happen if you push RAT PB on OVHD HYD PANEL?

A

It will activate RAT but not start GCU generator control unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What conditions cause RAT to auto deployment?

A

Losses of AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 if airspeed above 100 kts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

WHICH BUSES EMER GEN SUPLIES?

A

Basically all essentials. AC ESS BUS and AC ESS SHED.
Thru ESS TR powers DC ESS and DC ESS SHED

EMER GEN APPEAR GREEN ON MEMO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When RAT & EMER GEN red FAULT LIGHT comes ON?

A

When EMER GEN is not suplying power to AC ESS and DC ESS with AC BUS 1&2 losses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Can we Test EMER GEN PB on cockpit preparation?

A

NO, this a maintanece procedure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

With RAT deployed, and the airspeed below 100 kts or stalls, which electrical buses are powered?

A

DC BAT BUS is AUTO connected to the BATTERIES.

The AC ESS thru the STATIC INV and DC ESS thru batteries. They are automatically shed.

We lost AC ESS SHED and DC ESS SHED.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

With RAT deployed, in ELEC EMERG config, on ground below 50 kts, what we loose?

A

We loose the AC ESS.

The AC ESS BUS is automatically shed, and all EFIS and ECAM displays are not powered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What happen if you push MAN ON RAT PB on OVHD EMER ELEC PWR?

A

This PB is normally in auto. If you push RAT will deploy at any speed and activate the GCU.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the function of GEN 1 LINE PB on OVHD EMER ELEC PWR?

A

It’s primary function is to smoke drill in case of AVNX SMOKE.
It’s disconnect the GEN 1 line to AC BUS 1. Basically you disconnet the GEN 1 from the electrical logic schematic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When IDG FAULT lights comes ON? What happen if you push more than 3 sec?

A

IDG low oil pressure, or
IDG high oil temperature

IF you push more than 3 sec it may damage the disconnect solenoid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Is it possible to disconnect IDG if engines stopped?

A

NO, it must be running or windmilling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the function of the ACC ESS FEED FAULT light on OVHD ELEC PANEL?
and what is the ALTN PB?

A

ACC ESS and DC ESS is normally power by AC BUS 1. If you loose AC BUS 1 then the AC ESS and DC ESS should by powered by AC BUS 2. If the FAUL light comes ON, the AC ESS and DC ess are not powered. you should press ALTN PB to complete the transfer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

APU FIRE detection. How many loops and discharge bottles?

A

2 LOOPS, A & B
1 bottle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

APU FIRE detection, with 1 loop fail. Do we still have fire detection?

A

YES, the logic is LOOP A and LOOP B or LOOP A or LOOP B in case of a single loop failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Explain the RED DISC of APU during external check?

A

This dis is the APU FIRE EXTINGUISHER OVERPRESSURE INDICATION. If it’s not there, the botlte has been discharged or loosed its pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Does APU has automatic shutdown in flight? What happen if you push APU FIRE PB on OVHD APU ?

A

NO auto shutdown in flight.

If you press the PB you close:

SHUT DOWN APU
DEACTIVATE APU GEN
LP FUEL VALVE,
APU FUEL PUMP
APU BLEED VALVE
XBLEED VALVE
Arm squibs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

APU FIRE on ground?

A

auto shutdown and bottle discharge after 3 sec of FIRE detection. A horn on maintenance panel will be activate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the funciont of the ECAM COUNTDOWN during an APU FIRE?
Provides countdown for spool down before agent is discharged to increase it's effect. Same as the engine.
26
When the DISCH amber light illuminate on APU fire?
When the bottle pressure ir low.
27
Describe the CARGO smoke detector and Inhibit phase.
FWD cargo has 1 cavity if 2 smoke detectors. Each cavity holds loop fire detection for each smoke detector. So each cavity has 2 loops to detect fire in the DUAL LOOP DETECTION PRINCIPLE. AFT cargo has 2 cavities and 4 smoke detector When a single cavity detect smoke the fire detection is activate. OR when a one smoke detector detects smoke and the othe smoke detector is inoperative. Inhibit phase 4,5,7,8 BASICALLY : during takeoff, from 80 kts liftoff until 1500 ft. During landing: 800 ft touchdown until 80 Kts
28
what is SDCU?
SMOKE DETECTION CONTROL UNIT. When fire is detect it sends signal to ECAM.
29
Which flight phase the CARGO FIRE DETECTION is inhibited?
4,5,7,8 Takeoff 80 kts, LIFT OFF, until1500ft Landing below 800 ft, touch down befeore 80 kts IAS
30
How many bottles do we have in CARGO COMPARTMENT?
One bottle with ONE nozzle to FWD CARGO and Two nozzles to the AFT CARGO
31
After how many seconds the DISCH AMBER LIGHT on CARGO FIRE OVHD PANEL will illuminate in case of FIRE and bottle has been used?
60 seconds.
32
AVNX SMOKE, when the ECAM will trigger?
5 sec after smoke is detect on AVNX ventilation duct system.
33
AVNX SMOKE, what will illuminate on OVHD panel?
GEN 1 LINE illuminate SMOKE amber BLOWER illuminate FAULT amber EXTRACT illuminate FAULT amber It will illuminate to help crew locate the PB
34
AVNX SMOKE configuration, what happen inside the AVNX compartment?
Will stop BLOWER and allow only AIR CONDITIONED into AVNX CPT then dump it OVERBOARD.
35
LAVATORY SMOKE DETECTOR,how many and where it appears to crew?
1 SMOKE DETECTOR each lavatory and it will appears on ECAM and CIDS (CABIN INTERCOM DATA SYSTEM)
36
LAVATORY SMOKE DETECTOR, how it works and when it is discharged?
SOLDER tipped that melts with heat. Automatic discharge. There's no alert when it has been discharged.
37
What is ADIRS?
Air data inertial reference system. Provides Temp Altitude Attitude Airspeed Acft position It's comprised of 3 ADIRU (air data and inertial reference UNIT) basically replaces the Air Data computer and IR from earlier Acfts.
38
what is ADIRU?
Air data and inertial reference UNIT. AIR DATA such as Temperature, airspeed and altitude INERTIAL REFERENCE such as Atittude, heading, inertial and Acft position.
39
ADIRS latitude limitation and why?
73 N and 60 S This is because the magnetic variation is stored only in these areas. Outside this areas, will cause ADIRS to produce true heading instead of magnetic heading.
40
When you should put ADR on "ATT" on ADIRS OVHD PANEL?
When NAV mode has failed and FAULT LIGHT is flashing ATT provides attitude and heading data, NOT the acft position.
40
WIING ANTI ICE, how does it work and which surface receives the hot air?
Provides Hot air from the pneumatic system for the 3 most outboard slats. Only operates in flight. On ground it works only for self test for 30 sec.
40
What is ON BAT amber light illuminated on OVHD ADIRS PANEL?
when ONE or MORE ADIRU's is on BATT PWR. If the acft is on ground, and ON BAT amber light illuminate, a external HORN sounds and the light ADIRU & AVNX VENT lights illuminate on maintenance panel, in order to alert crew that the battery will drain.
40
Explain the AMBER FAULT LIGHT on ADIRS OVHD PANEL
STEADY AMBER: The Inertial reference feature of the associated ADIRU has failed. FLASH AMBER: IT is possible to recover the ATT, selecting ATT. NOTE: the crew should periodically compare the heading with the std by compass in this case, and input on the FMGS when necessary.
41
PROBE / WINDOW HEAT working logic?
works automatic with at least ONE engine is running.
42
RAIN REPELLENT works on Ground?
NO.
43
If the EGT ever exceed the maximum permissible mark, how does it show on EGT ENG DISPLAY?
The exceedance EGT display will remain displayed until maintanence action or next takeoff. Will be a mark where the EGT exceedance reach.
44
If the N2 ever exceed its maximum value, how it shows on N2 ENG DISPLAY?
Will be a Red cross until maintanence action or next takeoff.
45
IF the temperature is slightly different on FLX TO entered by the crew on MCDU than displayed on ENG DISPLAY UNIT, is it normal?
YES, it can be normal the slightly difference.
46
AVAIL INDICATION on engine in flight and on ground, how long does it flahses?
10 seconds on ground and 60 seconds in flight.
47
When FUEL USED DISPLAY RESETS?
AUTO resets when the associated engine starts.
48
When the fuel used appears on DASHED?
The value accuracy is degraded. Two amber dashes appear over all five digits. This occurs when the Fuel Flow is not valid in flight, for more than 1 min
49
WHEN oil pressure and oil temp flashes?
when its high or low than normal operation parameters.
50
When NACELLE NAC temperature will appears?
Only if the temperature is excessive.
51
WHEN CORE and BOOST ice protection will appear on ENG DISPLAY? Can be activate by pilots?
To prevent ice crystals icing. This is an AUTOMATIC protection.
52
Which engine fluids can we have CLOG indication?
fuel and oil
53
When the igniters appears on AUTOMATIC START ENGINE?
N2 20% and continue fires until 55% N2.
54
OXYGEN. Which altitude it will provide forced 100% oxygen to crew?
FL 300
55
For how long time pure oxygen 100% can be delivered?
22 minutes
56
for how long time PBE can supply Oxygen?
15 minutes
57
Definition of ICING CONDITIONS
On ground when OAT (or TAT in flight) is at or below 10 Celsius, visible moisture and visibility less than 1 SM. (1600 meters)
58
Explain the IDLE settings: minimum idle, approach idle e rev idle
Minimum idle: flight: gear not down and flaps not 3 or full ground: reverse not selected Approach idle: gear down and flaps 3 or full Reverse idle: ground with thrust lever at reverse idle.
58
Fuel is responsable to COOL/HEAT with which fluids and components?
To keep warm thru Heat exchanger with OIL. IDG cooling thru Heat exchanger with IDG OIL
59
Which valve the ENG MASTER SWITCH closes/open ?
LP valve.
60
How many stages has N1 and N2 ?
N1 compressor and turbine are the Low pressure compressor and low pressure turbine N1 has 3 stage compressor and 7 stage turbine N2 has 10 stage high pressure compressor and 2 stage high pressure turbine
61
When the FAULT light appears on ENG PEDESTAL PANEL?
An automatic start aborted A start valve fault Disagreement between the HP FUEL SHUTOFF POSITION and its command position.
62
How many MODEs do we have in NORMAL LAW?
3 Ground mode Flight Mode Flare mode
63
When the FLARE MODE is activated and what happen?
Through 50 ft RA The EFCS will memorize the pitch attitude Blw 30 ft RA EFCS commands elevator to reduce pitch to -2 degrees nose down over a period of 8 sec.
64
On GROUND MODE what happens with the THS? what conditions to satisfy GROUND MODE?
EFCS will command to 0 degrees GND MODE + 5 seconds AND pitch att< 2.5
65
GROUND MODE to FLIGHT MODE?
RA> 0 during 5 seconds OR FLT AND pitch att > 8
66
Which protections do we have in FLIGHT MODE?
Pitch attitude protection Load factor limitation High speed protection
67
Which protections do we have in FLARE MODE?
High angle of attack protection bank angle protection
68
LAF (loaf alleviation function) is active in which MODE? which surface are used?
Only flight mode use ailerons or ailerons and 2 outboard spoilers
69
About PITCH ATTITUDE PROTECTION, how does it appears on PFD and its limitations?
= = green symbol 30 degrees up (conf 0 to 3) 15 degrees down 20 degrees up (conf FULL) 15 degrees down
70
When FD bars disappears?
pitch above 25 degrees up pitch below 13 degrees down 45 degrees of bank
71
HIGH AOA PROTECTION, explain with the A/THR ON and OFF
A/THR will always try to mantain VLS A/THR INOP or OFF the AP will disengage at @PROT + 1 DEGREE V @MAX, the EFCS @ more than @ MAX even with the side stick input.
72
When A FLOOR will be activated? Does it work with A/THR INOP or OFF?
when speed reaches BTW @PROT and @MAX This a A/THR function, will not work with A/THR off or inop
73
About HIGH SPEED PROT, How does it appears on PFD speed scale? If we have a TCAS RA, the EFCS will allow acft going further this limit?
= green symbol YES.
74
In NORMAL LAW, which is the maximum bank angle? when FD will disappears?
33 degrees limit. IF pilot holds FULL lateral side stick, NORMAL LAW provides positive spiral stability to a maximum of 67 degrees bank FD will disappears after 45 degrees
75
how many RECONFIGURATION LAW exists?
ALTN LAW with reduced protections ALTN LAW withOUT reduced protection ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW DIRECT LAW MECH BACK UP
76
FLIGHT CONTROL COMPUTERS, how many and who they are? describe each one and it's surface's command
ELAC 1 2, SEC 1 2 3, FAC 1 2 ELAC 1 and 2 = elavator and aileron control (elevator, stabilizer and ailerons) SEC 1 and 2 = spoilers and elevator control (elevator, stabilizer and roll spoilers) SEC 3 = Roll spoilers but not ELEVATOR FAC 1 2 = Yaw dumping and Rudder trim
77
in ALTN LAW, does the roll command is in ALTN LAW ?
when speak about ALTN LAW, it is adressed to PITCH ONLY YAW axis is in alternate, but the TURN COORDINATION IS LOST.
78
ALTN LAW, which protections are lost? How does it appears on PFD?
PITCH ATT HIGH AOA BANK PROT It appears as amber X's replacing roll and pitch limit marks.
79
A SKID & N/W STEERING set to OFF, what happen?
Disconnect the BSCU (Brake steering control unit)
80
MAX STEERING HAND WHEEL vs RUDDER PEDALs vc TOW CONTROL LEVER for steering angle
HAND WHEEL STEERING +/- 75 RUDDER PEDALS +/- 6 TOW CONTROL LEVER +/- 95 The steering angle is reduced as ground speed increases
81
BRAKES. NORMAL and ALTERNATE, who power each one?
Normal with the Green HYD Alternate with Yellow HYD
82
ALTERNATE BRAKE, how many ?
ALTN BRK with anti skid ALTN BRK without anti skid ALTN BRK withouT anti ski on BRAKE ACCU
83
LG LEVER above 260 kts, what happen?
above 260 kts, the HYD system is isolated thru the safety valve.
84
When NOT consider Rolling takeoff?
When Penalize payload Rwy contaminated heavy rain +RA Low visibility Tech BRK efficiency SBSP wet SBRJ Back track
85
How to perform battery check and minimum Voltage?
If ACFT has not been elec in the last 6 hours: BATT 1 and 2 OFF BATT Voltage > 25.5 CHECK IF BATT < 25.5 V BATT AUTO EXT PWR ON charging cycle 20 min AFTER 20 Min BATT OFF VOLTAGE > 25.5 V CHECK BATT 1 and 2 AUTO NOTE: If APU battery start, it shoul be started with 30 min from BATT set to AUTO
86
WHICH VHF do we have in EMERGENCY ELECTRICAL CONFIG
VHF 1
87
APU START, WHEN?
5 min prior to DEP or door closed. Whichever occurs first. Or Temp is above 26 or Blw 17
88
APU shutdown , when should be performed?
AUTO shutdown or failed to start Fuel spills occurs
89
What is BMC, how many and what it stand for?
Bleed control valve. We have 2 Monitors pressure, temperature and valve position. Each BMC suplies inidications and warnings to ECAM.
90
Which stage provides air to pneumatic system in normal condition? And who provides air when pressure is low basic on the system logic?
The IP intermediate pressure is the normal supplier. When Thrust is low HP supply pressure and maintains air pressure at 36 psi(+-4psi).
91
Conditions that will cause the bleed valves to closes automatically PNEUMATIC or ELECTRICAL?
PNEUMATIC -Pressure below 8 psi -return air flow ELEC Bleed PB ON ENGINE FIRE PB pushed. when BMC senses: -Over TEMP -Over PRESS -LEAK -START valve ON -APU bleed ON
92
Whats is the MAX cabin altitude CPC limits on pressurized areas?
8000 ft.
93
How many mode does Cabin pressure system have?
3 AUTO SEMI AUTO MANUAL.
94
When do you use Cabin Press in Semi auto?
When we don't have airport elevation data on FGMS. Then you have to select the landing elevation manually on CABIN PRESS OVHD PANEL .
95
How many flight mode do we have on PRESS SYSTEM?
6 GROUND TAKEOFF CLIMB CRUISE DESCENT ABORT
96
When the OUTFLOW VALVE is displayed in amber on ECAM PRESS PAGE?
When it has been opened for more than 95% time of flight.
97
What is the RPCU? (Residual pressure control unit)
Regardless of the pressurization mode, the RPCU opens the outflow in case of an abnormal residual pressure is sensed when on the Ground. This could occur with BOTH CPC's fault, MAN mode selected or OUTFLOW VALVE not open
98
With Loss of ELECTRICAL POWER, the WING ANTI ICE valves fail________ position, and the ENG ANTI ICE valve fail_______position.
closed ; open
99
Which condition do we have flaps 1+F configuration?
FLAP 0 to FLAP 1 If the airspeed is below 100 kts, the results are CONF 1+F If the airspeed increases above 210 kts, FLAPS auto retract resulting in CONF 1. If the airspeed is above 100 kts, the result is CONF 1 FLAP 2 to FLAP 1 If the airspeed is below 210 kts, the result is CONF 1+ F IF the irspeed is above 210kts, the result is CONF 1
100
FLAP AND SLAT ANGLES
SLAT 0 18 22 27 FLAPS 0 10 15 20 40
101
How many GPS receiver the A320 has?
2 GPS receiver. ADIRU 1 process information for GPS RECEIVER 1 (MMR1 MULTI MODE RECEIVER 1) ADIRU 2 process information for GPS RECEIVER 2 (MMR2) ADIRU 3 std by
102
How many satellite signals, AT LEAST, to provide position to GPS then work in Normal NAV mode?
4 satellites
103
What happens if you have a ECAM msg of GPS 1(2) FAULT?
The system will automatically change to the other GPS ACQUIRE SYSTEM.
104
Describe the 3 windshear modes alert can be displayed:
Advisory windshear BLW 1500 FT 5 MILES AHEAD +/- 40 DEGREES OF YOUR HEADING Caution windshaer AMBER CAUTION ON PFD 'MONITOR RADAR DISPLAY' BLW 1200 FT 3 MILES AHEAD +/- 25 DEGREES OF YOUR HEADING Warning Windshear RED WARNING ON PFD 'WINDSHEAR AHEAD" in RED for takeoff phase "GO AROUND WINDSHEAR AHEAD" in RED for approach phase
105
Which altitude PWS WINDSHEAR WARNING ARE DOWNGRADED to cautions?
Between 370' ft to 50' ft and range btw 1.5 NM and 0.5 NM
106
Point the hierarchy of the of PWS GPWS TCAS FWC warnings:
PWS GPWS TCAS FWC warnings
107
WHY should we turn OFF/ON PWS system during taxi IN and taxi OUT?
because of the radiation. 10 miliwatts per square centimenter
108
If you have received a PWS alert (Predictive windshear alert), how many miles the threat is away from your ACFT on ground and in flight?
3 NM ground 1.5 NM Flying
109
APU BLEED FAULT LIGHT will appears AMBER when?
leak is detected.
110
When the NW STRG DISC memo displays AMBER on memo painel?
AFTER ONE ENGINE IS STARTED, it display amber to alert the crew of the disconnected steering prior to taxi.
111
Which components control brakes and NWS in airbus 320?
BSCU - brake system control unit ABCU - Alternate brake control unit
112
During takeoff Acceleration to stop begins, which speed we have autobrake function active?
When speed is above 72 kts.
113
Autobrake mode MED and LOW. How much is the Deceleration rate?
MED = 3 m/s2; 2 seconds after the ground spoiler deploy LOW = 2 m/s2 ; 2 seconds after the ground spoiler depoly Some acft are: LOW = 1.7 m/s2 ; 4 seconds afte the ground spoiler deploy
114
How many GPS receivers do we have and which ADIRU powers each one?
2 GPS receivers ADIRU 1 and 3 are powered by GPS 1 ADIRU 2 is powered by GPS 2
115
What is the function of the RESET button on ISIS?
the system must be reseted after 350 h of continuous electrical supply use.
116
MGO: When should we declare MAYDAY ?
a. Falha de motor; b. Perda de pressurização rápida; c. Fogo/fumaça não identificado ou incontrolável; d. Emergência elétrica; e. Falha no trem de pouso com eminente perigo ou risco de acidente; f. Pilot Incapacitation independentemente do Tripulante incapacitado; g. Perda de todos os sistemas hidráulicos; h. Constatação de pouso abaixo do combustível reserva.
117
MGO: Which actions and systems should PF guard fisically or monitor?
- Redução das Manetes de Potência (Engine THRUST levers)¹; - Ação de desligar os motores (ENG MASTER SWITCHES)²; - Ação de atuação dos punhos de fogo dos Motores e APU (Fire P/B)²; - Atuação dos IR MODE selectors ²; - Atuação em todos os switches guardados²; - Atuação em todos Cockpit CBs². 1) fisically 2) monitor
118
MGO: Pressurization problems, whe should we put MASK ON?
At first indication of pressurization problem, whe cabin rate is uncontrolled or accentuated.
119
moderate or severe turbulence, how to manage the situation?
The pilot should cross areas of MOD or SEV turb usually 4000 ft below optimum altitude. Pilot must report turbulence below 1000ft and situation not experienced if reported blw this altitude.
120
Signs of volcanic ash?
acrid odors, st elmos fire (at night), dust, reddish colors on acrt frames, unrieliable airspeed. phosphorescence on engine intake.
121
How many alerts of ASHTAM do we have?
4 Red alert - volcanic eruption in progress, ash plumes above FL 250 Orange alert - volcanic eruption in progress, BUT ash plumes below FL 250 Yellow alert - basically, when downgrade from RED or Orange OR volcano is known to be active time to time but not consider as threat. green alert - volcano ceased or revert to it's normal state.
122
How to deal with volcanic ASH encounter?
- dont try to climb and fly above ash plume - 180 scape manuever - try to maintain thrust at IDLE - maximum Bleed in order to increase the engine stall margin during engine airstart. - try to reestart the engine as many time as possible.
123
What the main diference between the LANDING GEAR INDICATION PANEL and LANDING GEAR SD PAGE?
The landing gear indication on panel receives information only by LGCIU 1, while the SD page receives information from both. Each triangle shown correspond to LGCIU 1 and LGCIU 2.
124
During a rejected takeoff, below 72 kts, what brake features do we have?
As we dont have ground spoiler, we wont have auto brake system.
125
Which CG travel (FWD or AFT) is more favorable to the airplane?
AFT, because it allow a higher stall margin and low stabilizer deflection.
126
ACN PCN Airbus 320 where to find it?
DIM 3.2 PLANEJAMENTO DE VOO.
127
Which RBAC document allows operating ABOVE ACN / PCN
RBAC 153.103 5% Rigid paviment 10% Flexible paviment
128
MGO: WX Rules for alternate aiport?
Airports with DA(H) = DA + 200 ft / Visibility + 800 m Airports with MDA = MDA + 400 ft/ visibility + 1500 m Aiports without IFR procedures = 500 ft above MSA from the last sector to be flown / visibility 8 km
129
What is SRS and which speed target during takeoff? Pitch?
Speed reference System V2+ 15 during TO All engines Btw V2 - V2+10 single engine Windshear pitch 17,5 All engines pitch 15 single engine pitch 12,5
130
What is the porpuse of SUMMARY on QRH?
For complex failures as well as DUAL HYD FAILURE and ELEC EMER Read after ECAM actions.
131
After start Flow, how many dregrees accepted on rudder trim neutral position after pressing the RUDD CENTER button?
up to 0.3 degress L or R
132
Which is the HOLDING speeds according to FMS
lowest between ICAO, MAX ENDURANCE or any speed constraint.
133
What is the maximum UPLIFT difference ?
400 kg up to 6 ton 500 kg 6 ton - 12 ton 600 kg 12 ton and above.
134
Taxi speed limite with deflated tyres (not damage)?
IF both tyres of a GEAR = 3 kts IF on tyre of a GEAR = 7 kts
135
When do we have BLUE SIDESLIP INDICATION?
CONF 1,2,3 and any ENG N1 > 80% or Thrust lever > MCT (>= FLX if FLX or DERATED TO) and Diff between the ENG 1 exceeds 35%. In this case the name is called BETA TARGET
136
When spoiler will retract AUTOMATICALLY?
FAIL of SEC 1 and SEC 3 FAIL of LEFT or RIGHT STABILIZER (PROFUNDOR) AOA attack protection FULL FLAPS extended THRUST LEVER ABOVE MCT ALPHA FLOOR
137
What is the FAC functions?
Yaw dumping turn coordination rudder trim rudder travel limit PFD speeds scale minimum and maximum speeds Alpha floor windshear low energy warning
138
How many inhibits phase does AIRBUS 320 NEO have?
10
139
Which systems used pneumatic source?
bleed pack anti ice system starters hydraulic pressurization lavatories
140
HOW CAN WE turn off ROW ROPS?
PRESSING OFF THE SYS BUTTON OF THE EGPWS on OVHD
141
TCAS in ABV, BLW, ALL and THRT
THRT = proximate and other intrudes are displayed only if a TA or RA is present: btw -+ 2700 ft ABV = above 9900 ft below 2700 ft BLW = above 2700 ft below 9900 ft ALL = -+2700
142
Does the cockpit door unlocks if decompression is sensed?
yes
143
Landing with GND SPOILERS disarmed?
They will arm if at least ONE thrust lever is REV and the other blw MCT and MAIN GEARS on ground.
144
Which control surfaces are operated mechanically?
THS and Rudder
145
About pitot tube ice protector, which level of protection do we have on ground and in flight?
LOW LEVEL ground HIGH LEVEL flight
146
How many types of DE/ANTI - ICE fluids do we have?
4 types
147
Which component LEAK DETECTION we loose when BMC1 FAILS?
APU BLEED LEAK DETECTION
148
What is the accelerarion altitude in SDU airport?
1500 ft
149
What is the nominal power in kVA from the ENGINE GEN?
90 kVA
150
What is the meaning of GALLEY SHED?
IN FLIGHT: one generator is operating GROUND: only ONE ENGINE generator is operating WITH APU or EXT PWR all galleys are available
151
what are the types of anti ice and color?
1- red-orange 2- clear or straw 3- yellow-green 4- emerald green
152
Limit temperature of the AVNX with ventilation working?
49<= no limit 49< OAT <= 55 = 2 Hrs 55 < OAT <= 60 = 1 Hr 60< OAT <= 64 = 0.5 Hr
153
On CAB PRESS SD PAGE, the cabin altitude indicator becomes RED when?
9550 ft.
154
RNP-AR SDU departute, when AP can bem engaged?
After first RF LEG
155
RNP-AR: What is the maximum altimeters difference btw PFD 1 AND 2?
75 FT
156
When NAV ACCURACY IS LOW, what's the meaning?
EPU (estimated position uncertain) exceeded RNP
157
MEL: how many days each category allows to be inop?
A: does not say time B: 3 calendar days excluding the day of discovery C: 10 days D: 120 days
158
MEL: which category can be extended and for how long?
B and C To the same time durations as specified by MEL. AUTHORUTY MUST BE NOTIFIED REPAIR IN THE FIRST OPPORTUNITY THE OPERATOR ONLY GRANTS ONE TIME EXTENSION
159
MGO: Twy operation, what WX condition is possible? does it necessary has to be on EO?
VMC and IMC , only during DAY LIGHT Does not have to be on EO, as it is a contigency operation of the airport
160
161

FCOM QUESTIONS AIRBUS 320 NEO (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions