Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

FCOM QUESTIONS AIRBUS 320 NEO > FCOM QUESTIONS > Flashcards

FCOM QUESTIONS Flashcards

1
Q

DITCHING guarded pushbutton, what happen?

A

“close” signal to the

outflow valve,
emergency ram air inlet,
avionics ventilation inlet and extract valves,
pack flow control valves.

Note: The outflow valve will not close automatically, if it is under manual
control

CAUTION: If the ditching pb is set to ON, with the low pressure ground
cart connected and all doors closed, a differential pressure will
build up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

“HIGH” or “LOW” on the PROG page

A

“HIGH” or “LOW” on the PROG page indicates the FM position accuracy, based
on estimated uncertainty. When GPS PRIMARY mode is lost, the flight crew must
periodically check this position accuracy. In GPS PRIMARY mode, the position
accuracy is always at HIGH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Below maneuvering speed (F, S, Green Dot) BANK LIMITATION

A

Below maneuvering speed (F, S, Green Dot) – 10 kt, the autopilot or flight director
(AP/FD) cannot order a bank angle greater than 15 °.

Above maneuvering speed – 10 kt, this limit linearly increases until it reaches:
‐ In selected lateral guidance: 25 ° at maneuvering speed – 3 kt. The limit is then
25 ° for all speeds above maneuvering speed – 3 kt.

‐ In managed lateral guidance: 30 ° at maneuvering speed – 3 kt. The limit is
then 30 ° for all speeds above maneuvering speed – 3 kt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

FMGS RESET

A

When the FM software cannot work properly or receives instructions to perform impossible
operations, it automatically resets itself. A resynchronization with the other FM always follows.

When the reset is a minor one, the system will recover by itself. One single reset lasts 2 to 3 s maximum followed by 25 s of resynchronization.

When the reset is a major one:
‐ Resets recur at short intervals (several in 2 or 3 min)
‐ The memories are cleared, leading to the loss of F-PLN, GW, CI, CRZ FL, MCDU-entered
speeds and NAVAIDs and to database switching

CAUTION: If three dual FM resets occur in 2 min, pilot-entered data is lost. If a dual reset is
identified, it is recommended that the flight crew does not perform again the last
MCDU actions for 1 min (in order to avoid a potential second dual reset, leading to
the loss of pilot-entered data)

NOTE: 2 MINUTES ONLY ON OUR PR-YY FLEET. ALL OTHERS ACFT IS 3 MINUTES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

FMS erronous trajectory display during cockpit preparation, example showing a right turn instead of a left turn. Should we still use?

A

CAUTION: Even if the flight plan is correct during the Cockpit Preparation or during the
Descent Preparation, the FMS may compute and display an erroneous trajectory
when the FMS updates its predictions after takeoff or after go-around initiation.

THE CREW SHOULD SELECT HDG/TRK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A/THR instinctive disconnect for 15 s

A

CAUTION: If the flight crew presses, and holds one A/THR instinctive disconnect pb for more
than 15 s, the A/THR will disconnect for the remainder of the flight. All A/THR
modes, including A.FLOOR, will be lost. The A/THR will be recovered at the next
FMGC power-up on the ground.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

IDG DISCONNECT PB

A

CAUTION:
1. Maintaining the IDG pb-sw during more than 3 s may
damage the IDG disconnection mechanism. SOLENOID.

  1. Disconnect the IDG only when the engine is running or
    windmilling. If not, the IDG will be damaged when starting
    the engine.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What happen if you push RAT PB on OVHD HYD PANEL?

A

It will activate RAT but not start GCU generator control unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What conditions cause RAT to auto deployment?

A

Losses of AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 if airspeed above 100 kts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

WHICH BUSES EMER GEN SUPLIES?

A

Basically all essentials. AC ESS BUS and AC ESS SHED.
Thru ESS TR powers DC ESS and DC ESS SHED

EMER GEN APPEAR GREEN ON MEMO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When RAT & EMER GEN red FAULT LIGHT comes ON?

A

When EMER GEN is not suplying power to AC ESS and DC ESS with AC BUS 1&2 losses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Can we Test EMER GEN PB on cockpit preparation?

A

NO, this a maintanece procedure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

With RAT deployed, and the airspeed below 100 kts or stalls, which electrical buses are powered?

A

DC BAT BUS is AUTO connected to the BATTERIES.

The AC ESS thru the STATIC INV and DC ESS thru batteries. They are automatically shed.

We lost AC ESS SHED and DC ESS SHED.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

With RAT deployed, in ELEC EMERG config, on ground below 50 kts, what we loose?

A

We loose the AC ESS.

The AC ESS BUS is automatically shed, and all EFIS and ECAM displays are not powered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What happen if you push MAN ON RAT PB on OVHD EMER ELEC PWR?

A

This PB is normally in auto. If you push RAT will deploy at any speed and activate the GCU.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the function of GEN 1 LINE PB on OVHD EMER ELEC PWR?

A

It’s primary function is to smoke drill in case of AVNX SMOKE.
It’s disconnect the GEN 1 line to AC BUS 1. Basically you disconnet the GEN 1 from the electrical logic schematic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When IDG FAULT lights comes ON? What happen if you push more than 3 sec?

A

IDG low oil pressure, or
IDG high oil temperature

IF you push more than 3 sec it may damage the disconnect solenoid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Is it possible to disconnect IDG if engines stopped?

A

NO, it must be running or windmilling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the function of the ACC ESS FEED FAULT light on OVHD ELEC PANEL?
and what is the ALTN PB?

A

ACC ESS and DC ESS is normally power by AC BUS 1. If you loose AC BUS 1 then the AC ESS and DC ESS should by powered by AC BUS 2. If the FAUL light comes ON, the AC ESS and DC ess are not powered. you should press ALTN PB to complete the transfer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

APU FIRE detection. How many loops and discharge bottles?

A

2 LOOPS, A & B
1 bottle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

APU FIRE detection, with 1 loop fail. Do we still have fire detection?

A

YES, the logic is LOOP A and LOOP B or LOOP A or LOOP B in case of a single loop failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Explain the RED DISC of APU during external check?

A

This dis is the APU FIRE EXTINGUISHER OVERPRESSURE INDICATION. If it’s not there, the botlte has been discharged or loosed its pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Does APU has automatic shutdown in flight? What happen if you push APU FIRE PB on OVHD APU ?

A

NO auto shutdown in flight.

If you press the PB you close:

SHUT DOWN APU
DEACTIVATE APU GEN
LP FUEL VALVE,
APU FUEL PUMP
APU BLEED VALVE
XBLEED VALVE
Arm squibs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

APU FIRE on ground?

A

auto shutdown and bottle discharge after 3 sec of FIRE detection. A horn on maintenance panel will be activate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the funciont of the ECAM COUNTDOWN during an APU FIRE?

A

Provides countdown for spool down before agent is discharged to increase it’s effect. Same as the engine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When the DISCH amber light illuminate on APU fire?

A

When the bottle pressure ir low.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe the CARGO smoke detector and Inhibit phase.

A

FWD cargo has 1 cavity if 2 smoke detectors.
Each cavity holds loop fire detection for each smoke detector. So each cavity has 2 loops to detect fire in the DUAL LOOP DETECTION PRINCIPLE.

AFT cargo has 2 cavities and 4 smoke detector

When a single cavity detect smoke the fire detection is activate. OR
when a one smoke detector detects smoke and the othe smoke detector is inoperative.

Inhibit phase 4,5,7,8
BASICALLY : during takeoff, from 80 kts liftoff until 1500 ft.

During landing: 800 ft touchdown until 80 Kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is SDCU?

A

SMOKE DETECTION CONTROL UNIT. When fire is detect it sends signal to ECAM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which flight phase the CARGO FIRE DETECTION is inhibited?

A

4,5,7,8

Takeoff
80 kts, LIFT OFF, until1500ft

Landing
below 800 ft, touch down befeore 80 kts IAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How many bottles do we have in CARGO COMPARTMENT?

A

One bottle with
ONE nozzle to FWD CARGO and
Two nozzles to the AFT CARGO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

After how many seconds the DISCH AMBER LIGHT on CARGO FIRE OVHD PANEL will illuminate in case of FIRE and bottle has been used?

A

60 seconds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

AVNX SMOKE, when the ECAM will trigger?

A

5 sec after smoke is detect on AVNX ventilation duct system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

AVNX SMOKE, what will illuminate on OVHD panel?

A

GEN 1 LINE illuminate SMOKE amber
BLOWER illuminate FAULT amber
EXTRACT illuminate FAULT amber

It will illuminate to help crew locate the PB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

AVNX SMOKE configuration, what happen inside the AVNX compartment?

A

Will stop BLOWER and allow only AIR CONDITIONED into AVNX CPT then dump it OVERBOARD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

LAVATORY SMOKE DETECTOR,how many and where it appears to crew?

A

1 SMOKE DETECTOR each lavatory and it will appears on ECAM and CIDS (CABIN INTERCOM DATA SYSTEM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

LAVATORY SMOKE DETECTOR, how it works and when it is discharged?

A

SOLDER tipped that melts with heat. Automatic discharge. There’s no alert when it has been discharged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is ADIRS?

A

Air data inertial reference system. Provides
Temp
Altitude
Attitude
Airspeed
Acft position

It’s comprised of 3 ADIRU (air data and inertial reference UNIT)

basically replaces the Air Data computer and IR from earlier Acfts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is ADIRU?

A

Air data and inertial reference UNIT.

AIR DATA such as Temperature, airspeed and altitude

INERTIAL REFERENCE such as Atittude, heading, inertial and Acft position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

ADIRS latitude limitation and why?

A

73 N and 60 S

This is because the magnetic variation is stored only in these areas.
Outside this areas, will cause ADIRS to produce true heading instead of magnetic heading.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When you should put ADR on “ATT” on ADIRS OVHD PANEL?

A

When NAV mode has failed and FAULT LIGHT is flashing
ATT provides attitude and heading data, NOT the acft position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

WIING ANTI ICE, how does it work and which surface receives the hot air?

A

Provides Hot air from the pneumatic system for the 3 most outboard slats.
Only operates in flight.
On ground it works only for self test for 30 sec.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is ON BAT amber light illuminated on OVHD ADIRS PANEL?

A

when ONE or MORE ADIRU’s is on BATT PWR. If the acft is on ground, and ON BAT amber light illuminate, a external HORN sounds and the light ADIRU & AVNX VENT lights illuminate on maintenance panel, in order to alert crew that the battery will drain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Explain the AMBER FAULT LIGHT on ADIRS OVHD PANEL

A

STEADY AMBER: The Inertial reference feature of the associated ADIRU has failed.
FLASH AMBER: IT is possible to recover the ATT, selecting ATT.

NOTE: the crew should periodically compare the heading with the std by compass in this case, and input on the FMGS when necessary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

PROBE / WINDOW HEAT working logic?

A

works automatic with at least ONE engine is running.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

RAIN REPELLENT works on Ground?

A

NO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

If the EGT ever exceed the maximum permissible mark, how does it show on EGT ENG DISPLAY?

A

The exceedance EGT display will remain displayed until maintanence action or next takeoff. Will be a mark where the EGT exceedance reach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

If the N2 ever exceed its maximum value, how it shows on N2 ENG DISPLAY?

A

Will be a Red cross until maintanence action or next takeoff.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

IF the temperature is slightly different on FLX TO entered by the crew on MCDU than displayed on ENG DISPLAY UNIT, is it normal?

A

YES, it can be normal the slightly difference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

AVAIL INDICATION on engine in flight and on ground, how long does it flahses?

A

10 seconds on ground and 60 seconds in flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When FUEL USED DISPLAY RESETS?

A

AUTO resets when the associated engine starts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

When the fuel used appears on DASHED?

A

The value accuracy is degraded.
Two amber dashes appear over all five digits.
This occurs when the Fuel Flow is not valid in flight, for more than 1 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

WHEN oil pressure and oil temp flashes?

A

when its high or low than normal operation parameters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When NACELLE NAC temperature will appears?

A

Only if the temperature is excessive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

WHEN CORE and BOOST ice protection will appear on ENG DISPLAY? Can be activate by pilots?

A

To prevent ice crystals icing. This is an AUTOMATIC protection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which engine fluids can we have CLOG indication?

A

fuel and oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

When the igniters appears on AUTOMATIC START ENGINE?

A

N2 20% and continue fires until 55% N2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

OXYGEN. Which altitude it will provide forced 100% oxygen to crew?

A

FL 300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

For how long time pure oxygen 100% can be delivered?

A

22 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

for how long time PBE can supply Oxygen?

A

15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Definition of ICING CONDITIONS

A

On ground when OAT (or TAT in flight) is at or below 10 Celsius, visible moisture and visibility less than 1 SM. (1600 meters)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Explain the IDLE settings: minimum idle, approach idle e rev idle

A

Minimum idle:

flight: gear not down and flaps not 3 or full

ground: reverse not selected

Approach idle: gear down and flaps 3 or full

Reverse idle: ground with thrust lever at reverse idle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Fuel is responsable to COOL/HEAT with which fluids and components?

A

To keep warm thru Heat exchanger with OIL.

IDG cooling thru Heat exchanger with IDG OIL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which valve the ENG MASTER SWITCH closes/open ?

A

LP valve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How many stages has N1 and N2 ?

A

N1 compressor and turbine are the Low pressure compressor and low pressure turbine
N1 has 3 stage compressor and 7 stage turbine

N2 has 10 stage high pressure compressor and 2 stage high pressure turbine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

When the FAULT light appears on ENG PEDESTAL PANEL?

A

An automatic start aborted
A start valve fault
Disagreement between the HP FUEL SHUTOFF POSITION and its command position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How many MODEs do we have in NORMAL LAW?

A

3

Ground mode
Flight Mode
Flare mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

When the FLARE MODE is activated and what happen?

A

Through 50 ft RA
The EFCS will memorize the pitch attitude

Blw 30 ft RA
EFCS commands elevator to reduce pitch to -2 degrees nose down over a period of 8 sec.

64
Q

On GROUND MODE what happens with the THS? what conditions to satisfy GROUND MODE?

A

EFCS will command to 0 degrees

GND MODE + 5 seconds AND pitch att< 2.5

65
Q

GROUND MODE to FLIGHT MODE?

A

RA> 0 during 5 seconds OR

FLT AND pitch att > 8

66
Q

Which protections do we have in FLIGHT MODE?

A

Pitch attitude protection
Load factor limitation
High speed protection

67
Q

Which protections do we have in FLARE MODE?

A

High angle of attack protection
bank angle protection

68
Q

LAF (loaf alleviation function) is active in which MODE? which surface are used?

A

Only flight mode

use ailerons or
ailerons and 2 outboard spoilers

69
Q

About PITCH ATTITUDE PROTECTION, how does it appears on PFD and its limitations?

A

= = green symbol
30 degrees up (conf 0 to 3)
15 degrees down

20 degrees up (conf FULL)
15 degrees down

70
Q

When FD bars disappears?

A

pitch above 25 degrees up
pitch below 13 degrees down

45 degrees of bank

71
Q

HIGH AOA PROTECTION, explain with the A/THR ON and OFF

A

A/THR will always try to mantain VLS

A/THR INOP or OFF the AP will disengage at @PROT + 1 DEGREE

V @MAX, the EFCS @ more than @ MAX even with the side stick input.

72
Q

When A FLOOR will be activated? Does it work with A/THR INOP or OFF?

A

when speed reaches BTW @PROT and @MAX

This a A/THR function, will not work with A/THR off or inop

73
Q

About HIGH SPEED PROT, How does it appears on PFD speed scale?

If we have a TCAS RA, the EFCS will allow acft going further this limit?

A

= green symbol

YES.

74
Q

In NORMAL LAW, which is the maximum bank angle? when FD will disappears?

A

33 degrees limit.
IF pilot holds FULL lateral side stick, NORMAL LAW provides positive spiral stability to a maximum of 67 degrees bank

FD will disappears after 45 degrees

75
Q

how many RECONFIGURATION LAW exists?

A

ALTN LAW with reduced protections
ALTN LAW withOUT reduced protection
ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW
DIRECT LAW
MECH BACK UP

76
Q

FLIGHT CONTROL COMPUTERS, how many and who they are?
describe each one and it’s surface’s command

A

ELAC 1 2, SEC 1 2 3, FAC 1 2

ELAC 1 and 2 = elavator and aileron control (elevator, stabilizer and ailerons)

SEC 1 and 2 = spoilers and elevator control (elevator, stabilizer and roll spoilers)
SEC 3 = Roll spoilers but not ELEVATOR

FAC 1 2 = Yaw dumping and Rudder trim

77
Q

in ALTN LAW, does the roll command is in ALTN LAW ?

A

when speak about ALTN LAW, it is adressed to PITCH ONLY
YAW axis is in alternate, but the TURN COORDINATION IS LOST.

78
Q

ALTN LAW, which protections are lost? How does it appears on PFD?

A

PITCH ATT
HIGH AOA
BANK PROT

It appears as amber X’s replacing roll and pitch limit marks.

79
Q

A SKID & N/W STEERING set to OFF, what happen?

A

Disconnect the BSCU (Brake steering control unit)

80
Q

MAX STEERING HAND WHEEL vs RUDDER PEDALs vc TOW CONTROL LEVER for steering angle

A

HAND WHEEL STEERING +/- 75
RUDDER PEDALS +/- 6
TOW CONTROL LEVER +/- 95

The steering angle is reduced as ground speed increases

81
Q

BRAKES. NORMAL and ALTERNATE, who power each one?

A

Normal with the Green HYD
Alternate with Yellow HYD

82
Q

ALTERNATE BRAKE, how many ?

A

ALTN BRK with anti skid
ALTN BRK without anti skid
ALTN BRK withouT anti ski on BRAKE ACCU

83
Q

LG LEVER above 260 kts, what happen?

A

above 260 kts, the HYD system is isolated thru the safety valve.

84
Q

When NOT consider Rolling takeoff?

A

When Penalize payload
Rwy contaminated
heavy rain +RA
Low visibility
Tech BRK efficiency
SBSP wet
SBRJ
Back track

85
Q

How to perform battery check and minimum Voltage?

A

If ACFT has not been elec in the last 6 hours:
BATT 1 and 2 OFF
BATT Voltage > 25.5 CHECK

  IF BATT < 25.5 V 
      BATT AUTO
      EXT PWR ON
      charging cycle 20 min 
  AFTER 20 Min
      BATT OFF
      VOLTAGE > 25.5 V CHECK
       BATT 1 and 2 AUTO

NOTE: If APU battery start, it shoul be started with 30 min from BATT set to AUTO

86
Q

WHICH VHF do we have in EMERGENCY ELECTRICAL CONFIG

A

VHF 1

87
Q

APU START, WHEN?

A

5 min prior to DEP or door closed. Whichever occurs first.

Or

Temp is above 26 or Blw 17

88
Q

APU shutdown , when should be performed?

A

AUTO shutdown or failed to start
Fuel spills occurs

89
Q

What is BMC, how many and what it stand for?

A

Bleed control valve.
We have 2
Monitors pressure, temperature and valve position.
Each BMC suplies inidications and warnings to ECAM.

90
Q

Which stage provides air to pneumatic system in normal condition? And who provides air when pressure is low basic on the system logic?

A

The IP intermediate pressure is the normal supplier.
When Thrust is low HP supply pressure and maintains air pressure at 36 psi(+-4psi).

91
Q

Conditions that will cause the bleed valves to closes automatically PNEUMATIC or ELECTRICAL?

A

PNEUMATIC
-Pressure below 8 psi
-return air flow

ELEC

Bleed PB ON
ENGINE FIRE PB pushed.
when BMC senses:
-Over TEMP
-Over PRESS
-LEAK
-START valve ON
-APU bleed ON

92
Q

Whats is the MAX cabin altitude CPC limits on pressurized areas?

A

8000 ft.

93
Q

How many mode does Cabin pressure system have?

A

3

AUTO
SEMI AUTO
MANUAL.

94
Q

When do you use Cabin Press in Semi auto?

A

When we don’t have airport elevation data on FGMS. Then you have to select the landing elevation manually on CABIN PRESS OVHD PANEL .

95
Q

How many flight mode do we have on PRESS SYSTEM?

A

6

GROUND
TAKEOFF
CLIMB
CRUISE
DESCENT
ABORT

96
Q

When the OUTFLOW VALVE is displayed in amber on ECAM PRESS PAGE?

A

When it has been opened for more than 95% time of flight.

97
Q

What is the RPCU? (Residual pressure control unit)

A

Regardless of the pressurization mode, the RPCU opens the outflow in case of an abnormal residual pressure is sensed when on the Ground.

This could occur with BOTH CPC’s fault,
MAN mode selected or
OUTFLOW VALVE not open

98
Q

With Loss of ELECTRICAL POWER, the WING ANTI ICE valves fail________ position, and the ENG ANTI ICE valve fail_______position.

A

closed ; open

99
Q

Which condition do we have flaps 1+F configuration?

A

FLAP 0 to FLAP 1

If the airspeed is below 100 kts, the results are CONF 1+F
If the airspeed increases above 210 kts, FLAPS auto retract resulting in CONF 1.
If the airspeed is above 100 kts, the result is CONF 1

FLAP 2 to FLAP 1

If the airspeed is below 210 kts, the result is CONF 1+ F
IF the irspeed is above 210kts, the result is CONF 1

100
Q

FLAP AND SLAT ANGLES

A

SLAT
0
18
22
27

FLAPS
0
10
15
20
40

101
Q

How many GPS receiver the A320 has?

A

2 GPS receiver.

ADIRU 1 process information for GPS RECEIVER 1 (MMR1 MULTI MODE RECEIVER 1)
ADIRU 2 process information for GPS RECEIVER 2 (MMR2)

ADIRU 3 std by

102
Q

How many satellite signals, AT LEAST, to provide position to GPS then work in Normal NAV mode?

A

4 satellites

103
Q

What happens if you have a ECAM msg of GPS 1(2) FAULT?

A

The system will automatically change to the other GPS ACQUIRE SYSTEM.

104
Q

Describe the 3 windshear modes alert can be displayed:

A

Advisory windshear
BLW 1500 FT
5 MILES AHEAD
+/- 40 DEGREES OF YOUR HEADING

Caution windshaer
AMBER CAUTION ON PFD
‘MONITOR RADAR DISPLAY’
BLW 1200 FT
3 MILES AHEAD
+/- 25 DEGREES OF YOUR HEADING

Warning Windshear
RED WARNING ON PFD
‘WINDSHEAR AHEAD” in RED for takeoff phase
“GO AROUND WINDSHEAR AHEAD” in RED for approach phase

105
Q

Which altitude PWS WINDSHEAR WARNING ARE DOWNGRADED to cautions?

A

Between 370’ ft to 50’ ft and range btw 1.5 NM and 0.5 NM

106
Q

Point the hierarchy of the of PWS GPWS TCAS FWC warnings:

A

PWS
GPWS
TCAS
FWC warnings

107
Q

WHY should we turn OFF/ON PWS system during taxi IN and taxi OUT?

A

because of the radiation. 10 miliwatts per square centimenter

108
Q

If you have received a PWS alert (Predictive windshear alert), how many miles the threat is away from your ACFT on ground and in flight?

A

3 NM ground
1.5 NM Flying

109
Q

APU BLEED FAULT LIGHT will appears AMBER when?

A

leak is detected.

110
Q

When the NW STRG DISC memo displays AMBER on memo painel?

A

AFTER ONE ENGINE IS STARTED, it display amber to alert the crew of the disconnected steering prior to taxi.

111
Q

Which components control brakes and NWS in airbus 320?

A

BSCU - brake system control unit
ABCU - Alternate brake control unit

112
Q

During takeoff Acceleration to stop begins, which speed we have autobrake function active?

A

When speed is above 72 kts.

113
Q

Autobrake mode MED and LOW. How much is the Deceleration rate?

A

MED = 3 m/s2; 2 seconds after the ground spoiler deploy
LOW = 2 m/s2 ; 2 seconds after the ground spoiler depoly

Some acft are:
LOW = 1.7 m/s2 ; 4 seconds afte the ground spoiler deploy

114
Q

How many GPS receivers do we have and which ADIRU powers each one?

A

2 GPS receivers

ADIRU 1 and 3 are powered by GPS 1
ADIRU 2 is powered by GPS 2

115
Q

What is the function of the RESET button on ISIS?

A

the system must be reseted after 350 h of continuous electrical supply use.

116
Q

MGO: When should we declare MAYDAY ?

A

a. Falha de motor;
b. Perda de pressurização rápida;
c. Fogo/fumaça não identificado ou incontrolável;
d. Emergência elétrica;
e. Falha no trem de pouso com eminente perigo ou risco de acidente;
f. Pilot Incapacitation independentemente do Tripulante incapacitado;
g. Perda de todos os sistemas hidráulicos;
h. Constatação de pouso abaixo do combustível reserva.

117
Q

MGO: Which actions and systems should PF guard fisically or monitor?

A
  • Redução das Manetes de Potência (Engine THRUST levers)¹;
  • Ação de desligar os motores (ENG MASTER SWITCHES)²;
  • Ação de atuação dos punhos de fogo dos Motores e APU (Fire P/B)²;
  • Atuação dos IR MODE selectors ²;
  • Atuação em todos os switches guardados²;
  • Atuação em todos Cockpit CBs².

1) fisically
2) monitor

118
Q

MGO: Pressurization problems, whe should we put MASK ON?

A

At first indication of pressurization problem, whe cabin rate is uncontrolled or accentuated.

119
Q

moderate or severe turbulence, how to manage the situation?

A

The pilot should cross areas of MOD or SEV turb usually 4000 ft below optimum altitude.

Pilot must report turbulence below 1000ft and situation not experienced if reported blw this altitude.

120
Q

Signs of volcanic ash?

A

acrid odors, st elmos fire (at night), dust, reddish colors on acrt frames, unrieliable airspeed.
phosphorescence on engine intake.

121
Q

How many alerts of ASHTAM do we have?

A

4
Red alert - volcanic eruption in progress, ash plumes above FL 250

Orange alert - volcanic eruption in progress, BUT ash plumes below FL 250

Yellow alert - basically, when downgrade from RED or Orange OR volcano is known to be active time to time but not consider as threat.

green alert - volcano ceased or revert to it’s normal state.

122
Q

How to deal with volcanic ASH encounter?

A
  • dont try to climb and fly above ash plume
  • 180 scape manuever
  • try to maintain thrust at IDLE
  • maximum Bleed in order to increase the engine stall margin during engine airstart.
  • try to reestart the engine as many time as possible.
123
Q

What the main diference between the LANDING GEAR INDICATION PANEL and LANDING GEAR SD PAGE?

A

The landing gear indication on panel receives information only by LGCIU 1, while the SD page receives information from both. Each triangle shown correspond to LGCIU 1 and LGCIU 2.

124
Q

During a rejected takeoff, below 72 kts, what brake features do we have?

A

As we dont have ground spoiler, we wont have auto brake system.

125
Q

Which CG travel (FWD or AFT) is more favorable to the airplane?

A

AFT, because it allow a higher stall margin and low stabilizer deflection.

126
Q

ACN PCN Airbus 320 where to find it?

A

DIM 3.2 PLANEJAMENTO DE VOO.

127
Q

Which RBAC document allows operating ABOVE ACN / PCN

A

RBAC 153.103

5% Rigid paviment
10% Flexible paviment

128
Q

MGO: WX Rules for alternate aiport?

A

Airports with DA(H) = DA + 200 ft / Visibility + 800 m

Airports with MDA = MDA + 400 ft/ visibility + 1500 m

Aiports without IFR procedures = 500 ft above MSA from the last sector to be flown / visibility 8 km

129
Q

What is SRS and which speed target during takeoff?

Pitch?

A

Speed reference System

V2+ 15 during TO All engines
Btw V2 - V2+10 single engine

Windshear pitch 17,5
All engines pitch 15
single engine pitch 12,5

130
Q

What is the porpuse of SUMMARY on QRH?

A

For complex failures as well as DUAL HYD FAILURE and ELEC EMER

Read after ECAM actions.

131
Q

After start Flow, how many dregrees accepted on rudder trim neutral position after pressing the RUDD CENTER button?

A

up to 0.3 degress L or R

132
Q

Which is the HOLDING speeds according to FMS

A

lowest between ICAO, MAX ENDURANCE or any speed constraint.

133
Q

What is the maximum UPLIFT difference ?

A

400 kg up to 6 ton
500 kg 6 ton - 12 ton
600 kg 12 ton and above.

134
Q

Taxi speed limite with deflated tyres (not damage)?

A

IF both tyres of a GEAR = 3 kts
IF on tyre of a GEAR = 7 kts

135
Q

When do we have BLUE SIDESLIP INDICATION?

A

CONF 1,2,3 and

any ENG N1 > 80% or Thrust lever > MCT (>= FLX if FLX or DERATED TO) and

Diff between the ENG 1 exceeds 35%.

In this case the name is called BETA TARGET

136
Q

When spoiler will retract AUTOMATICALLY?

A

FAIL of SEC 1 and SEC 3
FAIL of LEFT or RIGHT STABILIZER (PROFUNDOR)
AOA attack protection
FULL FLAPS extended
THRUST LEVER ABOVE MCT
ALPHA FLOOR

137
Q

What is the FAC functions?

A

Yaw dumping
turn coordination
rudder trim
rudder travel limit
PFD speeds scale
minimum and maximum speeds
Alpha floor
windshear
low energy warning

138
Q

How many inhibits phase does AIRBUS 320 NEO have?

A

10

139
Q

Which systems used pneumatic source?

A

bleed
pack
anti ice system
starters
hydraulic pressurization
lavatories

140
Q

HOW CAN WE turn off ROW ROPS?

A

PRESSING OFF THE SYS BUTTON OF THE EGPWS on OVHD

141
Q

TCAS in ABV, BLW, ALL and THRT

A

THRT = proximate and other intrudes are displayed only if a TA or RA is present: btw -+ 2700 ft

ABV = above 9900 ft below 2700 ft
BLW = above 2700 ft below 9900 ft
ALL = -+2700

142
Q

Does the cockpit door unlocks if decompression is sensed?

A

yes

143
Q

Landing with GND SPOILERS disarmed?

A

They will arm if at least ONE thrust lever is REV and the other blw MCT and MAIN GEARS on ground.

144
Q

Which control surfaces are operated mechanically?

A

THS and Rudder

145
Q

About pitot tube ice protector, which level of protection do we have on ground and in flight?

A

LOW LEVEL ground
HIGH LEVEL flight

146
Q

How many types of DE/ANTI - ICE fluids do we have?

A

4 types

147
Q

Which component LEAK DETECTION we loose when BMC1 FAILS?

A

APU BLEED LEAK DETECTION

148
Q

What is the accelerarion altitude in SDU airport?

A

1500 ft

149
Q

What is the nominal power in kVA from the ENGINE GEN?

A

90 kVA

150
Q

What is the meaning of GALLEY SHED?

A

IN FLIGHT: one generator is operating
GROUND: only ONE ENGINE generator is operating

WITH APU or EXT PWR all galleys are available

151
Q

what are the types of anti ice and color?

A

1- red-orange
2- clear or straw
3- yellow-green
4- emerald green

152
Q

Limit temperature of the AVNX with ventilation working?

A

49<= no limit
49< OAT <= 55 = 2 Hrs
55 < OAT <= 60 = 1 Hr
60< OAT <= 64 = 0.5 Hr

153
Q

On CAB PRESS SD PAGE, the cabin altitude indicator becomes RED when?

A

9550 ft.

154
Q

RNP-AR SDU departute, when AP can bem engaged?

A

After first RF LEG

155
Q

RNP-AR: What is the maximum altimeters difference btw PFD 1 AND 2?

A

75 FT

156
Q

When NAV ACCURACY IS LOW, what’s the meaning?

A

EPU (estimated position uncertain) exceeded RNP

157
Q

MEL: how many days each category allows to be inop?

A

A: does not say time
B: 3 calendar days excluding the day of discovery
C: 10 days
D: 120 days

158
Q

MEL: which category can be extended and for how long?

A

B and C
To the same time durations as specified by MEL.

AUTHORUTY MUST BE NOTIFIED
REPAIR IN THE FIRST OPPORTUNITY
THE OPERATOR ONLY GRANTS ONE TIME EXTENSION

159
Q

MGO: Twy operation, what WX condition is possible? does it necessary has to be on EO?

A

VMC and IMC , only during DAY LIGHT

Does not have to be on EO, as it is a contigency operation of the airport

160
Q
A
161
Q
A

FCOM QUESTIONS AIRBUS 320 NEO (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions