FCOM Flashcards

1
Q

Max takeoff and landing tailwind component

A

15kts

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2
Q

Max operating altitude

A

43100 feet pressure altitude

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3
Q

Max takeoff and landing altitude

A

8400 feet pressure altitude

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4
Q

Runway slop max

A

+/- 2%

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5
Q

Operational check of flight deck access door has been accomplished within?

A

48 hours

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6
Q

Max demonstrated takeoff and landing crosswind is ?

A

38 kts

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7
Q

Severe turb air penetration speed

A

270kts < 25000 feet
280kts or 0.82 Mach whichever is lower at 25000 feet or above
Maintain minimum 15kts above the min man speed at all times when airspeed is below .82 Mach

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8
Q

Avoid weather radar operation in

A

Hangar or within 50 feet of fuelling operations or a fuel spill

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9
Q

Rvsm altitmeter check

A

75 feet between captains or FO altimeter and field elevation

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10
Q

Max wind for Autoland

A

Head 25
Tail 15
Cross 25

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11
Q

Max and min glide slope for auto land

A
  1. 25 deg max

2. 5 deg min

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12
Q

Min altitude for FLCH

A

1000 ft

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13
Q

Max tank fuel temperature

A

49 deg

For take off no less than -40 deg or 3 deg above fuel freezing point whichever is higher

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14
Q

In tail winds and x winds between 30 and 45 kts engine power should be limited to

A

70% N1

And no more than thrust required for normal taxi operation in more than 45 kts

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15
Q

APU start attempts

A

3 starts in 60 min period max

1 min apart max

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16
Q

Max flap operating altitude

A

20000 ft

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17
Q

ADIRU alignment should not be attempted in latitudes greater than

A

78 deg 14.75 min

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18
Q

The centre tank may contain up to ………. kg of fuel with less than full main tanks

A

1360 kg

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19
Q

GPWS look ahead terrain alerting

A

Do not use terrain display for navigation

Prohibited within 15 nm of take off approach or landing at an airport not contained in GSPWS data base

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20
Q

Wing anti ice

A

Only on mid span slats

Doesn’t work on the ground

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21
Q

Pulling the engine fire switch does what ?

A

1 closes spar fuel valve
2 closes bleed air valve
3 trips the generator
4 shuts off hydraulic fluid to engine driven pump
5 depressurises engine driven hydraulic pump
6 removes power to the thrust reverser isolation valve

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22
Q

AIRSPEED LOW in climb ?

A

If below 15kts above min manœuvre speed when climbing through FL200

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23
Q
Flight parameter deviation callouts
SPEED 
SINK RATE
PITCH
BANK
LOCALIZER
GLIDESLOPE
A
\+10/-5 kts or below V2 or Vref
Excessive in relation to agl/aal
Excessive high or low in relation to flight phase
More than 30 deg
More than one dot
Note than one dot
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24
Q

When do we need to use the flight at low gross weight sup ?

A

Below 154,221kg

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25
Q

Max number of seconds after FUEL CONTROL switch is moved to RUN for EGT rise ?

A

20 secs

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26
Q

N1 rotation should be indicated by how much N2 rotation on engine start ?

A

50%

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27
Q

Flaps 1 equals Vref 30 plus ?

A

60

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28
Q

Drift down level off altitude has a residual rate of climb …. and is dependant on ……

A

100 ft/min and ISA deviation

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29
Q

Wingspan

A

64.80 M

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30
Q

Stabiliser wingspan

A

21.53 M

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31
Q

Length ?

A

73.86 M

32
Q

Height of the tail ?

A

18.85 M

33
Q

Min width of pavement for 180 deg turn ?

A

48 m

34
Q

Flashlights battery light meaning

A

Green- 1 flash during test equals normal
Red- 1 flash during test equals should be replaced, one flash every ten seconds means battery has reached the end of its life.

35
Q

In the CRC the AIRFLOW OFF light is illuminated when ?

A

Below 25,000ft or when conditioned air is not available.

Pushing the light above 25,000ft when the light is illuminated resets the air con system.

36
Q

Temp control range ?

A

From 18 to 29 deg, mid position sets approx 24 deg

37
Q

Equipment cooling OVRD illuminated amber when ?

A

1 both equip cooling supply fans failed or
2 smoke detected in equip cooling system or
3 the EQUIP COOLING switch is off or
4 the CARGO FIRE ARM FWD switch is in ARMED

38
Q

How many temperature zones ?

A

7, the flight deck and 6 passenger cabin zones

39
Q

Predictive windshear system enabled below ?

A

1200 ft

40
Q

Weather position is not displayed by the PWS on the ND in what mode ?

A

Plan mode

41
Q

Immediate windshear detected by GPWS below ?

A

1500 ft

42
Q

If cruise altitude is unavailable from the FMC in AUTO, the cabin altitude controller assumes a cruise altitude of ?

A

39000 ft

43
Q

When the take off field elevation is higher than 8000 ft the cabin will ?

A

Descend to the cabin altitude while the airplane is climbing.

44
Q

Landing elevation limits are ?

A

1000 ft below sea level to 14000 ft above sea level

45
Q

The cabin altitude limiter closes both outflow valves If cabin altitude exceeds ?

A

15000 ft

46
Q

If landing altitude is unavailable from the FMC the EICAS advisory message …………….. is displayed and the cabin altitude controller assumes a landing altitude of …………

A

LANDING ALT

2000 ft

47
Q

APU bleed air is available below ?

A

22000 ft

48
Q

When TAT is above 10 deg C, wing anti-ice is inhibited after lift off for how long ?

A

5 min

49
Q

Automatic wing anti-ice operation inhibited when :

A

TAKEOFF mode selected and

Less than 10 minutes had elapsed after liftoff

50
Q

IAS/MACH window display range

A

100 - 399 kts

.400 - .950 Mach

51
Q

IAS/MACH window automatically changes from IAS to MACH and MACH to IAS at ?

A

.840 Mach

310 kts

52
Q

If there is a dual FMC failure LNAV may be re-engaged if ?

A

If there is an active CDU ALTN NAV route available

53
Q

Bank limit selector limits in AUTO ?

A

15 - 25 degrees depending on TAS

54
Q

The automatic flight control system consists of ?

A

AFDS controlled by MCP and FMC

A/T

55
Q

Changes in Autoland status below……….., other than transition to NO AUTOLAND status, are inhibited.

A

200 ft

56
Q

After liftoff, the AFDS commands a pitch attitude to maintain:

A

1) A target speed of V2 plus 15kts or the airspeed at rotation plus 15kts, whichever is greater.
2) If current airspeed exceeds the target speed for 5 seconds, the target speed is reset to the lesser of the current airspeed or V2 plus 25kts.
3) the IAS/MACH window speed if the window speed is changed to a speed greater than the target speed.

57
Q

Autothrottle disconnect occurs automatically when ?

A

1) fault in the active autothrottle mode
2 either thrust lever is raised to reverse idle
3) thrust levers are over ridden during manual landing, after the autothrottle has begun to retard the trust levers to idle
4) both engines are shut down

58
Q

If the autothrottle is not activated by ….. kts it can’t be activated by ….. ft

A

50kts 400 ft

59
Q

During takeoff the FMC records the barometric altitude as the airplane accelerated through ?

A

100 kts

60
Q

If an engine failure occurs on the ground, the pitch command target speed at lift-off is …….. or ……… , whichever is greater.

A

V2 or airspeed at lift-off

61
Q

After lift-off:

If an engine failure occurs, the pitch command target speed is:

A

1) V2, if airspeed is below V2
2) existing airspeed, if airspeed is between V2 and V2+15
3) V2+15, if airspeed is above V2+15

62
Q

Runway alignment occurs at ?

A

1) 500 ft for crosswinds requiring more than 10 deg crab angle. Side slip of 5 deg reduces crab angle
2) for crosswinds requiring crab angle between 5 and 10 deg, initial alignment at 500 ft followed by second at 200 ft to further decrease crab angle
3) no runway alignment for required crab angle less than 5 deg

63
Q

If an engine fails prior to the approach the AFDS introduces a side slip at …….
If an engine fails during the approach ….

A

1300 ft to establish wing level configuration.

The wing level configuration is established when the engine failure is detected

64
Q

LAND 2 is inhibited below ?

A

200 ft

65
Q

Automatic Flight - Go Around
TO/GA switches are inhibited on the ground, including when below ……. for a period greater than ….., and enabled again when airborne ( above ….. )

A

2 ft RA, 3 secs, above 2 ft RA

66
Q

LNAV engages at ?

A

50 ft when autopilot is not engaged

200 ft when autopilot engaged

67
Q

During go-around from LAND 2 or 3 approach, automatic LNAV engagement causes disconnect of …..

A

Autopilot rudder control, careful if TAC inop

68
Q

APU to pack takeoff is prohibited at airport altitudes above ?

A

6900 ft field elevation

69
Q

Passenger oxygen masks automatically drop when cabin altitude approximately exceeds ?

A

13500 feet

70
Q

APU to pack take-off prohibited above ?

A

6900 ft field elevation

71
Q

TAC is available except ?

A

When below 70kts on ground
When reverse thrust is applied
When auto disengaged

72
Q

The highest and lowest elevations of the obstacles and terrain displayed are inhibited when further than ?

A

320 nm

73
Q

PWS is enabled to provide windshear alerts …. seconds after radar begins scanning for windshear.

A

12

74
Q

In flight weather radar begins scanning for windshear below …… feet radio altitude.

A

2300ft

75
Q

Immediate windshear detected below ?

A

1500 feet and begins at rotation