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ATR72-500 > FCOM > Flashcards

FCOM Flashcards

1
Q

ACW GEN 1 supplies…

A

ACW BUS 1

ACW SVCE BUS

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2
Q

ACW GEN 2 supplies…

A

ACW BUS 2

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3
Q

TRU is supplied by…

A

ACW BUS 2

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4
Q

BPCU functions…

A

BTC operation
Moniters HOTEL-mode
Isolates failed busses
Auto load sheds

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5
Q

ACW comes online

A

70% NP

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6
Q

Starter/generator transits…

A

0-45% NP Starter

61,5% > NP Generator

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7
Q

TCAS RA’s inhibit when…

A

below 1100’ in climb
below 900’ in descend

Decends:
below 1200’ in climb
below 1000’ in descend

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8
Q

TCAS self-test takes…

A

20 sec

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9
Q

ATR72-500 SHP…

A

2750

2450 on T/O

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10
Q

MRM…

A

22970 kg

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11
Q

MZFM…

A

20800 kg

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12
Q

MTM…

A

22800 kg

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13
Q

MLM…

A

22350 kg

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14
Q

Max range…

A

890 NM

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15
Q

Ceiling…

A

25000’

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16
Q

Wing span…

A

27,05 m

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17
Q

Danger areas…

A

22/27m behind

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18
Q

Left pack supplies…

A

Flight deck & cabin

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19
Q

Right pack supplies…

A

Cabin only

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20
Q

Pack flow

A 
22 psi
30 psi (hotel-mode)
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21
Q

Pack heat exchangers are cooled by…

A

Ram air above 150 kts

Cooling fans below 150 kts

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22
Q

Aircondition overheat caution…

A

T > 274c

controlled by MFC

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23
Q

Aircondition leak caution…

A

Tloop > 153c

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24
Q

Airconduct temp high…

A

If above 88c: Hot air valve closes

If above 92c: Warning on CCAS and no aut action

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25
Q

Pack valve closes automatically if…

A

downstream temp from compressor reaches 204c

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26
Q

Max differential cabin pressure…

A

+6.35 psi, guarded by manometric valve

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27
Q

Manual mode cabin rate of change…

Cabin pressure

A

+ 2500 ft/min

- 1500 ft/min

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28
Q

Cabin descend rate…

Pressurization

A

Norm: - 400 ft/min
Fast: - 500 ft/min

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29
Q

Altitude alert…

AFCS

A
  • 1000 ft from selected altitude

- 250 ft from selected altitude

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30
Q

High bank/low bank…

AFCS

A

27/15 degrees bank

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31
Q

Proximate traffic…

TCAS

A

+/- 850ft and 6nm out

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32
Q

Stickpusher is inhibited…

A
  • On ground
  • 10 sec after T/O
  • below 500’ during descend
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33
Q

T/O inhibit pb…

CCAS

A

All amber light except;

  • EFIS COMP
  • PRKG BRK
  • GPWS
  • MAIN PNL
  • ENG
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34
Q

VFE flaps 15

A

185 kts

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35
Q

VFE flaps 30

A

145 kts

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36
Q

VLE

A

180 kts

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37
Q

VMO

A

250 kts

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38
Q

Starter/generator nominal voltage…

A

27-31 volt DC

Norm: 30v

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39
Q

Starter/generator output…

A

12 KW @ 400 A

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40
Q

Warnings not process by MFC…

A 
ENG FIRE
EXCESS CAB P
EXCESS CAB ALT
NAC OVHT
SMOKE
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41
Q

Air bleed LEAK…

A

T loop > 153c

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42
Q

Air bleed OVHT…

A

Bleed duct T > 274c

Not to confuse with PACK OVHT 204c

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43
Q

PACK valve functions

A

Pack shut off

Pressure control

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44
Q

PACK cooling fans start…

A

IAS < 150 kts gear DN
IAS < 150 kts gear UP + 10 min
ENG OIL LOW PRESS opposite side

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45
Q

DUCT temp > 88c ?

aircondition

A

Hot air bypass valve closes

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46
Q

Aircondition OVHT caution…

A

duct temp > 92c

PACK remain open

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47
Q

Overheat condition downstream PACK compressor?

A

PACK closes at T > 204c

Not to confuse with BLEED OVHT 274c

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48
Q

For passanger comfort; right PACK has a delay of…

A

6 seconds

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49
Q

PACK flow… (PSI)

A

22 psi NORM

30 psi HIGH

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50
Q

High/low bank select PB…

AFCS

A

Low 15 degrees
High 27 degrees

Annunciated on ADU

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51
Q

TCS resyncronization limits…

AFCS

A

Pitch 15 degrees up
Roll 6 - 35 degrees

Below 6 ; AP roll wings level

1.04.10

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52
Q

During ILS approach…

AFCS

A

DUAL CPL if both NAV set to ILS

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53
Q

Emergency light has ____ capacity and powered by ____ v integral battery

A

10 min; 6 volt

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54
Q

Emergency light ARM switch, the emergency lights illuminate when…

A

DC bus voltage is below 18v or dual GEN loss

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55
Q

Stick pusher is inhibited…

A
  • 10 min after T/O
  • On GND
  • Below 500’ RA
56
Q

There are ____ ILS recievers, and ___ ILS antennae

A

2; 1

signal sent to RCAU

57
Q

DME values are sent to the ____

A

SGU

58
Q

Bleed air is normally drawn from _____ compressor

A

LOW

HP can be use during low engine setting and descends

59
Q

During start the bleed valve is closed for ______ (time), after reaching 45% NH

A

30 sec

60
Q

Bleed air X-bleed valve is ______ open on the ground with one engine running.

A

always

61
Q

In case of bleed air leak. The following closes automaticall

A
  • HP valve
  • Bleed SOV
  • Pack valve
  • GND x-feed (if left is affected)
62
Q

Bleed OVHT

A

temp duct > 274c

  • HP valve closes
  • Bleed SOV closes

Not to confuse with PACK OVHT 204c

63
Q

Max FL with one PACK

A

FL200

64
Q

Accessory gearbox driven by the HP speel, drives…

A
  • HP fuel pump
  • DC Starter/GEN
  • The oil pumps
65
Q

The reduction gearbox drives…

A
  • ACW generators
  • Prop valve module PVM
  • Prop brake
  • OVSP govenor
66
Q

The PR127F has _____ Fuel nozzles

A

14

67
Q

PVM allows…

Propeller valve module

A
  • Np to be set
  • Reverse
  • Prop syncing
  • Prop feathering
  • Low pitch in flight protection
68
Q

PEC achieves syncro phasing by adjusting the speed of the _____ propeller
(Propeller electronic control)

A

Right hand propeller

one unit per engine.

It has to channels, and in case of failure, the back up channel takes over.

69
Q

After TO a ______ prevents PL to go below flight idle

A

gate

Idle gate super seeds this precaution, ?????

70
Q

CL is connected to…

A
  • PVM

- HMU SO

71
Q

PEC button off…

Propeller electronic control

A

NP blocket at 102% when power is sufficient

72
Q

EEC control the …

electronic engine control

A

fuel flow to the HMU

when selected off the fuel flow is controlled solely by the PL angle

73
Q

EEC fault means…

A

At high PL setting, above 52’, the NH is frozen to its prior value.

EEC is deselected when PL is retarded below 52’

74
Q

Tourque sensor has failed if ….

A

000 is indicated

75
Q

Torque sensor shows “ - - - “

A

the Handling Bleed valve is uncontrollable and closed

76
Q

ITT alert light illuminates…

A

CCAS & ITT > 800c

Hotel mode: 715c

77
Q

Low oil pressure warning…

A

40 psi

inhibited 30 sec after CL is set to FTR during start, to avoid false warnings

NB:
Local + CCAS -> react

78
Q

Normal oil pressure…

A

55-65 psi

79
Q

normal oil temp…

A

45-125 degrees

80
Q

Normal fuel temp…

A

0-50 degrees

81
Q

Fuel clog light illuminates, CCAS is…

A

NOT illuminated

82
Q

prop brake hyd source

A

blue

DC ess bus

83
Q

Engine starter automatically deavtivates when NH reaches ____

A

45%

DC ess bus

84
Q

crossstart fail…

A

start sequence will continue on the batteries

85
Q

ADC switch…

A

determines what souce the EEC is supplied from.

IF ADC1 is lost BOTH ADC’s are lost, and direct sensing from the engine takes over.

86
Q

FDAU calculates the…

A

Torque value which is displayed by a torque bug and transmits it to the EEC

87
Q

EEC regulates the fuel flow…

A

by a metering valve in the HMU

88
Q

HMU delivers

A

fuel flow to the PVM

89
Q

Nominal TO power is ___ % lower than ____

A

10% ; RTO power

90
Q

In case of engine failure the ____ will increase the _____ on the remaining engine to _____

A

ATPCS ; power ; RTO

102,5% torque

91
Q

Power levers behinde the notch

A

the EEC controls FF

92
Q

Prop feathering can be obtained by …

A
  • CL to FTR
  • Pulling fire handle
  • ATPCS triggering
93
Q

In case of EEC failure …

A
  • MC
  • Metering valve freezes

PL retarded below 52’

  • Fail fix i deactivated
  • EEC inop
  • PL controls the HMU directly
  • PEC operates normally

NB: NP will drop below 70,8 and associated ACW is shed

94
Q

In case of PEC failure …

A
  • MC
  • NP increases to 102,5%
  • Revers is lost

NB: NP will drop below 70,8 and associated ACW is shed

95
Q

ATPCS dis/arming conditions…

Auto Takeoff Power Control System

A
  • ATPCS pb on
  • Both PL above 49’
  • Torque above 46 %

disarming

  • ATPCS pb off
  • Both PL below 49’
  • Torque below 46 %
96
Q

ATPCS in case of engine failure…

A
  • uptrim after drops below 18% torque
  • Bleed valve closes on failed engine
  • 2.15 sec delay on failed engine
97
Q

Ignition system exciters …

A

On ground:
- either exciters a/b

In flight:
- both exciters regards of SW pos

During start:
Igniters avtivate when CL is out of fuel SO and deactivated the NH > 45%

98
Q

NH drops below 60% …

ignition

A
  • Both igniters activate

inhibited:

  • NH drops below 30%
  • EEC off
  • CL set to FTR / fuel SO
99
Q

Prop brak avail when

A
  • WOW depressed
  • Gust lock engaged
  • CL in FTR / SO
  • Blue hyd avail
100
Q

Cooldown after ATPCS test…

A

10 min

101
Q

normal start time …

engine

A

15-20 sec

ITT > 200 = delay fuel up to 19 sec

oil pressure warning is delayed 30 sec

102
Q

Engine shall run for ____ (time) after landing…

A

1 min

and feather for 20 sec

103
Q

Fuel clog light illuminates

A

at 45 psi

104
Q

Turn radius..

A

21,4 m

105
Q

Min RWY width for T/O…

A

30 m

106
Q

Ice detection cycle?

A

60 sec

107
Q

Horn anti-ice on ground…

A

inhibited

108
Q

Propeller anti ice modes…

A

NORM: 3 x 10 sec - 10 sec break
HIGH: 3 x 20 sec - no break

Prop anti ice inhibited below 63% NP!

109
Q

To operate icing equipent…

A

Manual mode MUST be selected

110
Q

De Icing boots cylce rates

A

norm cycle: 40 sec
fast rate: cycle every 60 sec
slow rate: cycle every 180 sec

Slow mode: below -20
Fast mode: above -20

111
Q

Bleed OVHT warning

A

T > 274 c

not to confuse with

OVHT pack which is 204 c

112
Q

Bleed valve is inhibitet during start sequence for ____ (time) untill NH reaches ____%

A

30 sec, 45%

113
Q

During manual control of cabin pressure the electro plneumatic outflow valve remain _________

A

closed

The other one is directly controlled by the knob

114
Q

Max differential pressure for landing?

A

.35 psi

115
Q

ATPCS arming conditions…

A
  • PWR MGT in TO
  • both PL above 49 degrees
  • Torque above 53%
116
Q

Oil system quantity…

A

14,4 liters

117
Q

The two chip detectors are located…

A
  • Oil tank

- Reduction gear box

118
Q

Syncro phasing is done by the ______ and adjusts the ______ propeller

A

EEC; right hand

119
Q

EEC fault flight flashed when…

A

PL is set ABOVE 52’ and fail fix mode is active

note: EEC fault ligt is steady when PL is BELOW 52’ and EEC is automaticly deselected

120
Q

PEC failure locks the _____ in _____% when power is sufficient

A

NP; 102,5%

121
Q

ATPCS arm conditions met?

A

ATPCS “ARM” illuminates blue

122
Q

On the torque indicator, the yellow target bug is the ______ torque, calculated by the ______

A

target torque; FDAU

Flight Data Aquisition Unit

123
Q

ITT alert when ….

A

ITT above T > 800c

(715c in hotel mode)

Note: 950c limit for 5 sec

124
Q

oil pressure green sector …

A

55-65 psi

low oil pressure warning CCAS: >40 psi

125
Q

ATPSC is triggered when ______ on the failed engine drops below _______%

A

torque; 18

in addition;
bleed valve closes on failed engine, og 2,15 sec delay for FTR

126
Q

Both igniters are activated if _____ drops below ____ %

A

NH ; 60%

Inhibited if:

  • EEC off
  • NH drops below 30%
  • ATPCS sequence
  • FTR or SO pos
127
Q

Hotel mode can be use with the EEC off

A

True

128
Q

Blue AUX hud pump will run for _____ (time)

A

30 sec while pb depressed + 15 sec additionally

129
Q

ATPCS test cool down in respect of FTR pump is _____ (time) before T/O

A

10 min

130
Q

ITT must rise within _____ (time)

A

10 sec

131
Q

Normal starter running time

A

15-20 sec

132
Q

after start, when CL is set from FTR to AUTO…

A

NP starts to rise and ACW GEN comes on line at 71% NP

133
Q

After landing; engines must run in GI for ______ (time) to cool down before shutdown

A

1 minute

Note:
Engines should be set to FTR for a minimum of 20 sec to allow oil to run back in the system

134
Q

Stick pusher acts on ______ yoke

A

left

A/P on the right

(Important note when coupling the elevator)

135
Q

Auto pilot actuator acts on the _______ yoke

A

Right

Stick pusher on the left

(Important note when coupling the elevator)

ATR72-500 (3 decks)

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