FC Flashcards

1
Q

What is the general definition of anemia and how is it diagnosed?

A

Anemia can be defined as decreased hemoglobin content in red blood cells which implicates a potential condition of hypoxia of tissues generally counterbalanced by a series of compensatory mechanisms such as increased blood flow leading to tachycardia.

In order to diagnose anemia we have to look at specific threshold values of hemoglobin which change according to the sex of the patient:
• Men Hb < 13 g/dL
• Women Hb < 12 g/dL

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2
Q

Why is there a difference in the diagnostic threshold of Hb between men and women?

A

The difference is due to the effect of female steroid hormones which, acting on kidneys, induce a reduction of water filtration and a consequent accumulation of liquids : it is especially evident during first weeks of pregnancy, when there is a loss of 1.5/2 g of hemoglobin due to estrogens.
A common condition of reduction of hemoglobin occurs in fertile women even during menses when, due to the loss of blood, its value decreases to 10.5-11 g/dL.

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3
Q

What are some general clinical signs and symptoms of anemic patients?

A

Pallor, jaundice and petechiae in the skin. In black patients we may check the palms of hands or the conjunctiva.
Compensatory tachycardia. Splenomegaly due to spleen overload.

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4
Q

What are 1st level diagnostic tests? What are some important parameters?

A

Full blood count is important as it gives us Hb levels and other parameters. EDTA is used as an anticoagulant, hemolysis is induced putting the blood in a hypotonic solution so they lyse.

MCV : Mean Corpuscular Volume, defines how small or large on average are RBC giving us DDX between macrocytic and microcytic anemia.

RDW : RBC Distribution Width, measure the range of variation of the RBC volume.

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5
Q

What are reticulocytes? How are they measured and why are they important?

A

In case of presence of reticulocytes a certain increase in RDW will be seen (second peak). Reticulocytes, so called because they contain a reticular network of ribosomal RNA in the cytoplasm, are obtained during the last step of erythropoiesis in the bone marrow, and they are larger than normal red blood cells. They are counted through flowcytometry which should be always performed in order to assess the cause of anemia:
• Reduced production of RBCs : low levels of reticulocytes
• Increased destruction of RBCs (by hemolysis or haemorrhages) : high levels of reticulocytes
in a condition known as reticulocytosis, which arises as result of increased erythropoiesis induced to compensate the anemic state.

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6
Q

What are reticulocytes? How are they measured and why are they important?

A

They are immature RBCs that develop in the BM and then are released into the blood stream where they take a day to mature into RBCs. In case of presence of reticulocytes a certain increase in RDW will be seen (second peak). Reticulocytes, so called because they contain a reticular network of ribosomal RNA in the cytoplasm, are obtained during the last step of erythropoiesis in the bone marrow, and they are larger than normal red blood cells. They are counted through flowcytometry which should be always performed in order to assess the cause of anemia:
• Reduced production of RBCs : low levels of reticulocytes
• Increased destruction of RBCs (by hemolysis or haemorrhages) : high levels of reticulocytes
in a condition known as reticulocytosis, which arises as result of increased erythropoiesis induced to compensate the anemic state.

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7
Q

What is anisocytosis and poikilocytosis?

A

Anisocytosis is the presence of RBCs of different volumes while poikilocytosis is the presence of RBCs of different shapes.

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8
Q

What are schistocytes?

A

A schistocyte is a fragmented part of a red blood cell. Schistocytes are typically irregularly shaped, jagged, and have two pointed ends. They are reliable indicators of microangiopathy anemia.

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9
Q

What are second level diagnostics?

A

If the 1st level diagnostic tests cannot help us to find a diagnosis, we may go on through the second level blood tests which involve molecular tests as PCR or next generation sequencing in order to detect mutations associated with hereditary problems.

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10
Q

What is bone marrow aplasia? What are some examples? What can it be caused by?

A

Bone marrow aplasia refers to those hematologic conditions that are caused by a marked reduction and/or defect in the pluripotent or committed stem cells, or the failure of the bone marrow microenvironment to support hematopoiesis. The clinical outcome is anemia, leukopenia, and/or thrombocytopenia.

• Aplastic anemia : Occurs when the bone marrow doesn’t produce RBCs, WBCs and platelets anymore.
• Pure red cell aplasia : It is just limited to the erythroid lineage, meaning that the bone marrow stops producing RBCs only.

Bone marrow damage can be caused by : Autoimmune disorders, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, toxic drugs and viral infections such as Parvovirus, CMV or HHV-6.

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11
Q

What is CMV and why is it important?

A

Cytomegalovirus it is mild and presents flu like symptoms. It resides in macrophages and endothelial cells in all organs especially bone marrow, liver, spleen and brain. Immunosuppression by chemo or other toxic agents can cause reactivating of virus and specifically starts to infect HSC.

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12
Q

What are some deficiencies in constitutive factors?

A

Deficiencies in constitutive factors : B12, Iron, Folate, B6, B1 and proteins.

Macrocytic anemia : Caused by deficiencies in B12 and Folate.
Microcytic anemia : Caused by iron deficiency.
Haemolytic anemia

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13
Q

What is haemoglobin?

A

Haemoglobin is a tetramer composed by 4 globins and 4 eme-groups each of which is made in turn by protoporphyrin bound to ferrous iron (Fe2+) and 1 molecule of O2.
Haemoglobin undergoes a switch from the fetal to the adult kind changing the 2 globin chains which are coupled with the alpha ones:
• Hb F fetal type
• Hb A adult type
• Hb A2 variant of the normal adult type
This switch occurs as result of an epigenetic process which consists in activation of repressor of gamma gene called BCL11, following the exposure to high oxygen content. If we knockout the BCL11 the gamma gene starts to produce again the gamma chain.

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14
Q

How do the sites of hematopoiesis vary according to age?

A

In the prenatal age it occurs early on in the yolk sac followed by spleen and liver. The liver is the main site in the prenatal age. Then after birth the BM takes place.

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15
Q

What are hemoglobinopathies? How are they classified?

A

They are disorders of Hb, nearly always hereditary and can be asymptomatic, mild, severe or even cause death in utero.
They are distinguished based on qualitative (Sickle cell anemia) and quantitative (B thalassemia) dysfunctions.
Structural defects include abnormal variants of HB like HB s and HB c. Quantitative defects include a reduced glob in chain synthesis.

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16
Q

How are erythrocytes infected by malaria and what is the pathogenic mechanism?

A

P. Falciparum is the worst parasite causing malaria. It depletes the RBCs of ATP as it is needed for its Krebs cycle. The RBCs then explode due to lack of energy. Specific drugs are used to inhibit the plasmodium from competing for the ATP.

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17
Q

What is sickle cell disease? What due patients with this disease risk?

A

RBCs who bare the SS mutation have a sickle cell appearance due to the Hb that looses the capacity to be in solution and precipitates. Since they loose their ability to go in any kind of tissue the can cause thrombi. The main sites of a vaso occlusive crises are lungs, bone, liver and spleen.

SCD is associated to Sepsis, the major cause of death, because the enlargement of the spleen impedes its from properly phagocytosing circulating bacteria.

Stroke is also highly associated due to thrombi.

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18
Q

What are some prognostic factors and criteria in SCD patients?

A
  1. Number of crises in a year: more than 8 crises in a year (quite every month) for example, is a strong indicator of severity.
  2. Brain MRI. The MRI of a patient with a severe form and high risk of developing large strokes, we can see very small strokes, so if an MRI appears clean-> no risk; if it has several spots of infarction which are asymptomatic, it’s an indicator for severity.

Negative prognostic factors : Dactylitis within 1 year of age, WBCs > 13,000/mm3 within 10 years), Hb < 7 g/dL within 2 years, Hb-F < 8.6%-> an Hb-F higher is positive (protective) prognosis, Frequent pain crisis, Pulmonary crisis, neurological crisis and lack of response to hydroxyurea.

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19
Q

What if a patient only has one copy of Hb-S?

A

Heterozygosis for Hb-S, usually no clinical problems, can present with hematuria and isostenuria (incapacity to concentrate urine) due to renal papillary necrosis. Patients need to keep hydrated and avoid strenuous physical exercise.

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20
Q

What is Beta Thalassemia? What are the different mutations? Difference between homozygous and heterozygous patients?

A

Beta thalassemia is a quantitative defect. There is a genetic mutation that results in reduced or absent synthesis of the Hb’s b chain and associates to a variety of clinical manifestations. We can have different mutations which can can be : Beta 0 with no production of b chain or Beta+ were there is some production but less than normal.
A heterozygous patient is asymptomatic or presents very mild symptoms while homozygous patients presents thalassemia major.

21
Q

How is Beta Thalassemia classified?

A

Beta-thalassemic patients are distinguished in three groups: beta-thalassemia minor, intermedia and major.
Patients affected by beta-thalassemia minor are heterozygous carriers of the thalassemic mutation. Beta thalassemia intermedia patients are anemic but not transfusion dependent which is the most important factor in determining the severity of the disease. Nowadays it’s called Non transfusion dependent thalassemia (NTDT).
Beta-thalassemia major, ( TDT-> transfusion dependent thalassemia), patients carry a homozygous mutation and are transfusion-dependent. Transfusions are required to
bring Hb levels to normal values and to avoid all the beta-thalassemia- related complications.

22
Q

What is hemosiderosis? Why is it associated to blood transfusions in Beta Thalassemic patients?

A

Hemosiderosis is a form of iron overload disorder resulting in the accumulation of hemosiderin. There are different types, the one associated to B thalassemic patients is called transfusional hemosiderosis.
The accumulation of iron due to frequent transfusions, which the body cannot physiologically eliminate, can cause cardiomyopathies, impairment of endocrine glands and liver damage.

23
Q

What is the effect of chemotherapy on neutrophil count? How does it change based on the dose? Is it reversible?

A

The effect of chemo on neutrophil count is dose dependent. A small dose will induce small drop in peripheral neutrophil count, probably wouldn’t even reach the threshold for neutropenia. A medium dose results in absolute neutropenia and a 10% higher chance of neutropenic fever. A higher dose would approach 0 neutrophil count.

Chemotherapy affects only the progenitor cells and not the stem cells. Therefore after chemotherapy is interrupted, the progenitors and the mature cells are recovered. In other words it is an induced reversible aplasia.

24
Q

What is a Myeloablative regimen of chemotherapy?

A

If we increase the dose even further, for example 100 times, then we reach the so-called myeloablative regimen. This means that the count will reach 0 and never recover, even upon interruption of the therapy. Plotting the dose of chemotherapy against days of aplasia. As the dose of chemo increases, also the length of aplasia increases : It is a direct correlation. This is true up to a point where the dose becomes so high that the days of aplasia become infinite, in other words recovery will never occur.

25
What is the difference between autologous and allogeneic transplant?
In an autologous transplant, stem cells are removed from the patient, stored, and infused back into the same patient after chemotherapy. In an allogeneic transplant, stem cells infused into the patient after chemotherapy come from a compatible donor. Another difference is that in allogeneic transplant there is also the risk of leukocytes attacking the host, therefore you have graft vs host disease and host vs graft.
26
How do we measure hematopoietic toxicity?
It is measured based on drops in count of blood cells induced by chemotherapy. For example neutropenia is graded as follows : Grade I: neutrophil count >1500/µ Grade II: neutrophil count >1000/ µ Grade III: neutrophil count>500/µ Grade IV: neutrophil count<500/µ Common Toxicity Criteria, CTC, is used for various parameters to grade any organs function in a detailed and standard way.
27
What is marrow unrelated donor?
A donor is researched within a registry of volunteers. If a donor with a similar HLA type is found, he/she is elected to potentially donate to that patient. The results of MUD showed worse results compared to HLA identical transplantation, free survival was 70%. This is because fo the higher chance of rejection.
28
What is cord blood and peripheral blood stem cell transplant?
Cord blood, blood collected in the umbilical cord, can be quite advantageous in children because it is very rich in stem cells. Peripheral blood stem cell transplant exploits circulating immature hematopoietic stem cells.
29
What is haploidentical transplant?
It is defined as an allogeneic transplant in which the donor matches only 50% of the HLA of the patient. This carries a major challenge from the immunological point of view because 50% of HLA antigens are different between host and donors, these incompatibilities enhance the chances of rejection. Nevertheless, with the introduction of new immune suppressors, we now reach engraftment of 80%.
30
How and why are stem cells manipulated in gene therapy? What are some risks with gene therapy?
We target and manipulate stem cells to get the desired effect transmitted to the daughter cells. We first collect and select the stem cells, then we captivate them in vitro. Finally we through a vector insert new sequences within the original DNA. For example in thalassemia we aim to introduce sequences to produce beta globulin. lentiviral vectors target regions of DNA which are in an open chromatin state, that are full of proto-oncogenes, it may occur that the inserted sequences land on one of them. In this unfortunate event it may cause the activation of a mutation that would transform the proto-oncogene into a functional oncogene, inducing leukemia. In 2002, the first gene therapy-induced leukemia was observed.
31
How is blood separated for clinical use?
Whole blood is taken and prepared and placed into a tube with anticoagulant such as EDTA to prevent clot formation. The blood is centrifuged to separated RBC, WBC and plasma. Then the blood layers are separated into different tubes, this is done by a machine that selectively uses pumps to transfer the blood layers.
32
How do blood groups work?
The most important group is the AB0 group. Depending if the RBC has the A, B or no antigen. A mismatch in these groups can cause massive adverse effects. The Rh group is the second most relevant group. Rh has three antigens : C, D and E. Rh+ occurs when at least a D major is present otherwise it is Rh-.
33
What is Rhesus immunization?
Rh immunization occurs when an Rh-negative mother is exposed to Rh-positive fetal blood during pregnancy or delivery secondary to fetomaternal hemorrhage. To prevent immunization immunoglobulins against D major are administered to the mother so they can neutralize the RBC before they reach the lymph nodes.
34
What is agglutination?
Agglutination indicates that the blood has reacted with a certain antibody and is therefore not compatible with blood containing that kind of antibody. If the blood does not agglutinate, it indicates that the blood does not have the antigens binding the special antibody in the reagent.
35
How do you test for autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
In the case of autoimmune hemolytic anemia, antibodies will be present against your blood antigens. The test used for diagnosis is the Coombs test : an agglutination test in which the plasma of the patient is challenged with his/her red blood cells. It could be: 1. Direct: antibodies on the surface. 2. Indirect: antibodies in the plasma.
36
What is blood filtration?
They go through a process called 'leucodepletion'. It basically means they're filtered to remove as many of the white cells as possible, which reduces the risk of transfusion-related reactions such as herpes, CMV and EBV.
37
What is a Nucleic Acid Test? What is it used for?
It is used for the detection of HBV, HCV, HIV and West Nile virus. It is performed the day of the blood collection.
38
What are some transfusion complications?
We can have acute transfusion reactions such as hemolytic reactions, allergic reactions, bacteremia, TRALI, and coagulopathy. The first step is hydrating the patient with saline and giving steroids and diuretics. We can also have chronic transfusion reactions and transfusion related fusion related infections.
39
What are some typical signs of hemolytic reactions after a blood transfusion?
Severe shivering and fever, tachycardia, dyspnea, hypotension, dark urine and vasoconstriction.
40
What is bone marrow cellularity and why is it important?
It is the cell content of the BM. In newborns 60/70% is red marrow and the rest is fat, yellow marrow. The rest is fat, yellow marrow. During adolescence, there is a first drop of the red marrow content due to the influence of sexual hormones, that increase the fat % and the water content in interstitial spaces. Then, there is a slow decline leading to no more than 35% red marrow at 70 years old. It may be low because of chemotherapy treatment.
41
What is aplastic anemia?
It is an autoimmune disease characterized by a T cell autoimmune response. Currently we do not know the antigen responsible for AA. It may be caused by chemotherapy, pregnancy, toxin exposure and viral infections such as CMV, HIV, EBV and HBV. It causes failure in three lineages ; erythrocytes, lymphocytes and megakaryocytes.
42
What is the most common DDX of AA? How is it differentiated from AA?
The most important DDX is Hypoplastic MDS (Myelodysplastic Syndrome). Most MDS present as hypercellular. But in this case, in hypoplastic MDS, the defect is due to an expansion of the progenitor compartment leading to anemia with a very low reticulocyte count and BM empty of erythrocytes. No more than 20% of the total MDS are hypoplastic. Hypoplastic MDS shows a BM with low cellularity, few stem cells. Paramount for DDX is NGS panels where you look fro 80-120 gene. If there are patterns typical of MDS you confirm the diagnosis otherwise it may be AA.
43
What is Anti Thymocyte Globulin? What is it used for?
Antithymocyte globulin (ATG) is an antibody preparation derived from rabbits or horses hyperimmunized with human thymocytes, which is used to prevent or treat acute cellular rejection after solid organ transplantation and as a therapy of acute aplastic anemia.
44
Why are CD34+ blasts important parameters?
No CD34+ blast indicate that recovery from immunosuppression response may be compromised. Indeed, immunosuppression suppresses T cells, but if there is no residual stemness the BM does not recover and the treatment efficacy is 0 because if CD34+ are 0, the patient needs a marrow transplant.
45
What is the most common example of complete aplasia in only one lineage?
Pure erythroaplasia/RBC aplasia is the most common example. This condition may be autoimmune or caused by parvovirus. Parvovirus enters the erythroid lineage and the response to the virus kills the cells ofthe lineage. It is a transient RBC aplasia. Instead, when autoimmune, pure RBC aplasia is chronic.W hen immunized against the erythroid lineage there is a T cell response to the RBCs. As a treatment, you use Immunoglobulins against parvovirus if the disease is viral + immunosuppression in both cases (autoimmune and viral).
46
What is poor graft function?
The condition of hypoplastic marrow post-transplant is called poor graft function, it is a case of BM failure. Again, to discriminate if we need to give additional stem cells from the donor, we give cytokines. The additional dose of stem cells is called a boost.
47
How do you test the stem cell reserve in a patients bone marrow?
You administer cytokines like GCSF, erythropoietin and thrombopoietin and stress the BM to have a response.
48
What is the main option for AA treatment? What are some alternative treatments?
The best option is to find a HLA 10/10 match and perform transplant. If no matching donors are available, haplotype transplant is considered and also immunosuppression.