Fatal Offences Flashcards

1
Q

What is murder?

A

Unlawful killing of a reasonable person with malice, as defined by 17th century judge Lord Coke. It is a common law offence not defined in any act of parliament.

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2
Q

What is the Actus Reus of murder?

A
  1. V is killed (R v Malcherek confirms brain stem as the current medical term for death).
  2. Of a reasonable creature in being (Foetus cannot be murdered; AG’s Reference (1997) states that a child being born alive and then dying is murder).
  3. Under the King’s Peace (killing of an enemy in war is not murder).
  4. The killing was unlawful (the D does not have a defence).
  5. Can be an act or omission (Defendant must be at least 10 years old and sane).Stephen J
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3
Q

What are the exceptions to the rule that an omission cannot make someone liable for an offence?

A
  1. Contractual duty (e.g., R v Pittwood).
  2. Duty due to a relationship (e.g., R v Gibbins and Proctor).
  3. Voluntarily undertaken duty (e.g., R v Stone and Dobinson).
  4. Duty through official position (e.g., R v Dytham).
  5. Duty arising from a chain of events (e.g., R v Miller).
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4
Q

What is Factual Cause in the context of Actus Reus?

A

D can only be guilty if the consequence would not have happened but for the D’s conduct, known as the ‘but for’ test (R v Pagett).

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5
Q

What is Legal Cause?

A

D will be guilty if his conduct was more than a minimal cause, even if there are other acts by other people leading to the consequence (R v Kimsey).

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6
Q

What is the Thin-Skull Rule?

A

The D must take the V as he finds them (R v Blaue).

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7
Q

What are Intervening Acts?

A

There must be a direct link from the D’s conduct to the consequence; an intervening act interrupts the chain of causation.

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8
Q

What constitutes an intervening act?

A
  1. An act of a 3rd party (independent and serious).
  2. V’s own act (unforeseeable act is an intervening act, R v Williams; foreseeable reaction is not, R v Roberts).
  3. A natural but unpredictable event.
  4. V’s self-neglect or suicide (R v Wallace).
  5. Medical treatment (R v Smith is not an intervening act; R v Jordan is).
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9
Q

What is the Mens Rea for murder?

A

The mens rea for murder is with Malice Aforethought, either express or implied (R v Inglis).

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10
Q

What is Direct Intention?

A

Defined by Mohan as ‘the decision to bring about the prohibited consequence’.

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11
Q

What are the two types of intention for murder?

A
  1. Express malice aforethought (intention to kill, Moloney).
  2. Implied malice aforethought (intention to do grievous bodily harm, R v Vickers).
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12
Q

What is Oblique Intention?

A

When the D intends one consequence but another (murder) occurs, known as Foresight of consequences (R v Woolin).

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13
Q

What is the Transferred Malice Rule?

A

D could be guilty if he intended to commit a similar crime against a different victim (Latimer). The mens rea established on person A is transferred to person B. However, the MR for one offence cannot be transferred to a different offence (Pembilton).

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14
Q

What is the Coincidence of Actus Reus and Mens Rea Rule?

A

The actus reus and mens rea elements of a crime must occur at the same time, with an exception for the transaction theory (Thabo Meli).

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15
Q

What is the Continuing Act Rule?

A

Where there is a continuing act of the actus reus and at some point the mens rea is present, then there is a crime (e.g., Fagan).

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16
Q

What type of defences are loss of control and diminished responsibility?

A

They are partial defences available only to murder, reducing the charge to manslaughter.

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17
Q

What is the first requirement for loss of control under S54 (1) of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009?

A

D must have lost self-control.

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18
Q

What must there be for the loss of control defence to be successful?

A

A qualifying trigger.

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19
Q

What is the ‘normal person test’ in the context of loss of control?

A

A person of the same age and sex would have reacted in the same way.

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20
Q

In R v Jewell, what factors were deemed insufficient for a loss of self-control?

A

Being tired, depressed, and unable to think straight.

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21
Q

Is the loss of self-control required to be sudden for the defence to succeed?

A

No, it does not need to be sudden.

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22
Q

Under what condition is the loss of control defence not available?

A

If D is acting out of revenge.

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23
Q

What are the two qualifying triggers for loss of control under S55 (3)?

A
  • A fear of serious violence from the victim or another identified person
  • A thing or things done or said which caused D to have a justifiable sense of being wronged.
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24
Q

What does S55 (6)(a) state regarding incited violence?

A

D cannot rely on the first qualifying trigger if they have incited the violence.

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25
Q

What must the circumstances be for there to be a qualifying trigger under R v Hatter?

A

The circumstances must be extremely grave.

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26
Q

What does S55 (6) state about self-induced loss of control?

A

There is no qualifying trigger if the loss of control is self-induced.

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27
Q

Is sexual infidelity considered a qualifying trigger?

A

No, as established in Clinton.

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28
Q

What are the factors considered in the normal person test?

A
  • Age
  • Sex
  • Circumstances of D.
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29
Q

What personal characteristics are relevant in the normal person test according to R v Holley?

A

Only sex, age, and circumstances relevant to D.

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30
Q

What circumstances might be considered in the normal person test?

A
  • Depression
  • Epilepsy
  • History of sexual abuse.
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31
Q

What circumstance is explicitly excluded from the normal person test?

A

Voluntary intoxication.

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32
Q

What must a person suffering from diminished responsibility demonstrate under S2 (1) Homicide Act?

A

They must be suffering from an abnormality of mental functioning.

33
Q

What are the three criteria for diminished responsibility under S2 (1) Homicide Act?

A
  • Arose from a medical condition
  • Substantially impaired D’s ability to understand the nature of his conduct, form a rational judgement, or exercise self-control
  • Provides an explanation as to why D killed.
34
Q

What does the term ‘abnormality of mental functioning’ imply according to Byrne?

A

D’s mental functioning was so different that a reasonable man would declare it abnormal.

35
Q

What must the abnormality provide according to the criteria for diminished responsibility?

A

An explanation for D’s acts.

36
Q

What does S52 of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009 require regarding the medical condition?

A

The abnormality must arise from a medical condition.

37
Q

What types of conditions fall under the definition of a medical condition?

A
  • Psychological conditions
  • Physical conditions.
38
Q

What case confirmed that learning disabilities and autistic spectrum disorders are included in medical conditions?

39
Q

What does ‘substantially impaired’ mean according to R v Lloyd?

A

It does not mean total but does not mean minimal.

40
Q

What does ‘understand the nature of his conduct’ cover in diminished responsibility?

A

Situations where D is in an automatic state and does not know what they are doing.

41
Q

What conditions may prevent someone from forming a rational judgement?

A
  • Schizophrenia
  • Battered wife syndrome.
42
Q

What case illustrates an inability to exercise self-control due to mental abnormality?

A

R v Bryne.

43
Q

What is the causal relationship required for diminished responsibility?

A

The mental abnormality must cause the conduct.

44
Q

What is the key requirement for using the diminished responsibility defence while intoxicated according to Dietschmann?

A

There must be a recognised medical condition causing the abnormality.

45
Q

Is intoxication by itself considered a recognised medical condition?

46
Q

What is considered a recognised medical condition in R v Wood?

A

Alcohol Dependency Syndrome.

47
Q

What is involuntary manslaughter due to gross negligence?

A

It is committed when the D owes the victim a duty of care but breaches that duty in a very negligent way.

48
Q

What type of negligence is required for gross negligence manslaughter?

A

Criminal negligence.

49
Q

What are the four elements of gross negligence manslaughter from R v Adomako?

A
  • Existence of a duty of care by the D to the V
  • A breach of that duty that causes death
  • Gross negligence which the jury considers to be so bad as to be criminal
  • Risk of death from D’s conduct
50
Q

What is an example of a duty of care?

A

Doctor to patient.

51
Q

What case established the ordinary principles in the civil law of tort related to duty of care?

A

Caparo v Dickman.

52
Q

In R v Singh, what relationship establishes a duty of care?

A

Between a landlord and its tenants.

53
Q

In R v Litchfield, what relationship establishes a duty of care?

A

Between a ship captain and the passengers.

54
Q

What is the ‘but for’ test in the context of causation?

A

D can only be guilty if the consequence would not have happened but for the D’s conduct.

55
Q

What does R v Pagett illustrate?

A

The application of the ‘but for’ test.

56
Q

What is required for legal causation?

A

D’s conduct must be more than a minimal cause.

57
Q

What does the Thin-Skull Rule state?

A

The D must take the V as he finds them.

58
Q

Which case provides an example of the Thin-Skull Rule?

A

R v Blaue.

59
Q

What is an intervening act in the context of causation?

A

An act that interrupts the chain of causation, meaning D is not guilty.

60
Q

In R v Smith, was there an intervening act?

A

No, because death was still possible from original conduct.

61
Q

In R v Jordan, was there an intervening act?

A

Yes, the act caused the death.

62
Q

Do life support machines being switched off break the chain of causation?

A

No, as established in R v Malcherek.

63
Q

What is required for gross negligence to be considered criminal?

A

The negligence must be gross.

64
Q

What does R v Bateman explain about gross negligence?

A

It is a disregard for life and the safety of others.

65
Q

What does involuntary manslaughter due to unlawful act entail?

A

It is an unlawful killing where the D does not intend to kill or cause grievous bodily harm.

66
Q

What is another term for involuntary manslaughter due to unlawful act?

A

Constructive manslaughter.

67
Q

What must the D do for unlawful act manslaughter?

A

The D must do an unlawful act and have the required mens rea.

68
Q

What case illustrates that an omission cannot be an unlawful act?

69
Q

What is the objective test for dangerousness in unlawful act manslaughter?

A

All sober and reasonable people must realize some risk of harm.

70
Q

Which case established the objective test for dangerousness?

A

R v Church.

71
Q

What is the legal definition of an unlawful act?

A

It must be a criminal act, not a civil act.

72
Q

What does R v Newbury clarify about mens rea?

A

It must be proved that the D had the necessary mens rea for the unlawful act.

73
Q

What is the significance of R v Dawson in terms of unlawful act manslaughter?

A

Fear and apprehension alone are not sufficient for dangerousness.

74
Q

What happens if the unlawful act did not cause the death?

A

The D is not liable for manslaughter.

75
Q

What is the test for intervening acts regarding a third party?

A

The act must be independent of the D and sufficiently serious.

76
Q

What is the effect of a natural but unpredictable event on causation?

A

It can interrupt the chain of causation.

77
Q

What does R v Dalby illustrate regarding drug supply?

A

If the D supplies drugs but does not inject them, the chain of causation is broken.

78
Q

What does R v Cato illustrate regarding drug supply and injection?

A

If the D supplies and injects the drugs, the chain of causation is not broken.