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IFR written prep > FAR's > Flashcards

FAR's Flashcards

1
Q

A coded transponder with altitude reporting capability is required for all controlled airspace when

A

at or above 10,000’ MSL (excluding airspace at or below 2,500’ AGL)

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2
Q

What are the IFR proficiency requirements?

A

Within the last 6 months

6 instrument approaches
Holding Patterns
Tracking and intercepting courses using nav systems

OR
Passed an instrument proficiency check

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3
Q

To meet the instrument experience requirements, a pilot enters the condition of flight in the pilot logbook as simulated instrument conditions. What other qualifying information must be entered?

A

Location and type of each instrument approach completed and the name of the safety pilot

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4
Q

What portion of dual instruction time may a certificated instrument flight instructor log as instrument flight time?

A

All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor in ACTUAL imc

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5
Q

Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an IFR flight plan?

A

Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments

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6
Q

After a recent IFR experience lapse, how much time is available before you must pass an instrument proficiency check to act as pilot in command under IFR

A

6 months

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7
Q

An instrument rated pilot, who has not logged any instrument time in 1 year or more cannot serve as pilot in command under IFR, unless the pilot has

A

passed an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved, given by an approved FAA examiner, instrument instructor, or FAA inspector

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8
Q

A pilot’s recent IFR experience expires on July 1st of this year, what is the latest date available for the pilot to meet the experience requirements without having to take an instrument proficiency check?

A

December 31st, this year

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9
Q

Can a pilot use a simulator to meet IFR currency?

A

Yes, as long as it is an approved instrument ground trainer. The pilot may also make the approaches in an actual aircraft, and may use any combination of the two.

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10
Q

A certified commercial pilot who carries passengers for hire at night or in excess of 50 NM must have

A

an instrument rating in the same category of aircraft

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11
Q

What limitations are imposed on a certified commercial airline pilot if that person does not hold an instrument pilot rating?

A

The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights of more than 50 NM or at night is prohibited

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12
Q

The use of certain portable electronic devises is prohibited on aircraft that are operating under

A

IFR

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13
Q

Verifying that the altimeter meets the requirements of an instrument flight is the responsibility of

A

the pilot-in-command

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14
Q

Before begining any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight, including

A

the runway lengths at airports intended for use, the aircraft’s takeoff and landing data.
also
weather reports, forecasts, fuel requirements, alternative airports

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15
Q

To serve as a safety pilot for simulated instrument flight, the safety pilot must hold

A

a private pilot certificate and an appropriate category and class rating for the aircraft to be flown

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16
Q

Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?

A

Climb on the center line of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions

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17
Q

What action should be taken if your DME fails at FL 250?

A

Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the airport of intended landing unless directed otherwise

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18
Q

If flying in a mountainous area where no other minimum altitude is prescribed, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below an altitude of

A

2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4nm

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19
Q

If a pilot receives clearance to maintain VFR conditions on top, the pilot should maintain a VFR cruising altitude based on

A

the magnetic course

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20
Q

What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet with VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?

A

5 SM, 1,000’ above, 1,000’ below, 1 mile horizontal

5-1-1-1

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21
Q

What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 9,500 with VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?

A

3 SM, 1,000’ above, 500’ below, 2,000’ horizontal

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22
Q

To meet the fuel requirements for an IFR flight the pilot must have

A

Fuel to reach the intended landing airport, then reach the alternative airport, and then have 45 minutes of reserve fuel at normal cruising speed

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23
Q

Except when necessary for t/o and landing or unless otherwise authorized, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is

A

2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over mountainous terrain,
1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere

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24
Q

What data must be recorded in the aircraft log or other appropriate log by a pilot making a VOR operational check for IFR operations

A

Date, place, bearing error, and signature

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25
Q

Operation in which airspace requires filing an IFR flight plan?

A

Controlled airspace with IMC and Class A airspace

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26
Q

When departing an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR flight plan and receive clearance before

A

entering Class A, B, C, D, or E airspace

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27
Q

If you plan to file an airport as an alternate that only has a VOR approach, what minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at the alternate airport?

A

800 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility

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28
Q

You must file an alternate airport in the IFR flight plan if the weather at the ETA has

A

ceiling of less than 2,000 feet above airport elevation and visibility less than 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA

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29
Q

For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternative airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available?

A

ceiling of less than 2,000 feet above airport elevation and visibility less than 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA

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30
Q

For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum conditions must exist at the alternate airport on a IFR flight plan if the airport has a VOR approach only?

A

Ceiling and visibility at ETA is at least 800 feet and 2 miles respectively

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31
Q

What are the minimum weather conditions that must be forecast to list and airport as an alternate when the airport has no approved IAP?

A

The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR

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32
Q

For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum conditions must exist at the alternate airport on a IFR flight plan if the airport has a precision approach procedure?

A

600 foot ceiling and 2 sm visibility at ETA

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33
Q

In the event of two-way radio communications failure while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR conditions, the pilot should

A

continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable

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34
Q

When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?

A

The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected

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35
Q

A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM (outer marker) to a runway which has a vasi. What action should be taken if the electronic glide slope malfunctions and the pilot has the VASI in sight?

A

The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the electronic glide slope

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36
Q

If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible at the DH, the pilot should

A

immediately execute the missed approach procedure

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37
Q

In operations over mountainous terrain, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of

A

4nm from the course flown

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38
Q

An airport without an IAP may be listed as an alternate if the current weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and visibility at the ETA will

A

allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR conditions

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39
Q

If the aircraft’s transponder fails during flight in Class B airspace,

A

Tell ATC! ATC may authorize deviation from the transponder requirements to allow aircraft to continue to the airport of ultimate destination

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40
Q

In the 48 contiguous states, excluding airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder with Mode C capability is required in all controlled airspace at and above

A

10,000’ MSL

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41
Q

Aircraft being operated under IFR are required to have, in addition to the equipment required for VFR and night,

A

a slip skid indicator (combination of ball and rate of turn indicator)

In addition to VFR requirements TOMATO FLAMES and FLAPS… use GRABCARD for IFR

G-generator or alternator
R- radio/Navigation Appropriate for flight
A-Attitude indicator
B-Ball (inclinometer)
C-clock
A-altimeter
R-rate of turn indicator
D-directional gyro
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42
Q

At what altitude is DME or suitable RNAV equipment required for flight

A

FL 240

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43
Q

What is the maximum IFR altitude you may fly in an unpressurized aircraft without providing passengers with supplemental oxygen?

A

15,000 feet

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44
Q

What is the minimum navigation equipment required for IFR flight?

A

Navigation equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used

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45
Q

What are the oxygen requirements for an unpressurized aircraft?

A

12,500’ and above- minimum crew must be given supplemental oxygen if at or above altitude for more than 30 minutes

14,000’- minimum flight crew must be given supplemental oxygen

15,000’- all passengers and crew must be provided with supplemental oxygen

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46
Q

Your aircraft had the static pressure system and altimeter tested and inspected on March 9th of this year, when are they required to be reinspected?

A

March 31st, 2 years later

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47
Q

Which publication covers the procedures required for aircraft accident and incident reporting?

A

NTSB Part 830

48
Q

What substitution is permitted when an ILS component is inoperative?

A

A compass locator or precision radar may be substituted for the ILS outer or middle marker

DME, when specified in the procedure, may be substituted for the OM

49
Q

If the ILS has an inoperative glide slope, what substitution is appropriate?

A

Localizer minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums

50
Q

If the ILS has an inoperative localizer what substitution is appropriate?

A

No substitution is appropriate. An ILS approach is not authorized

51
Q

When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?

A

When weather conditions permit

52
Q

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?

A

To advise of changes in flight data that affect IAP’s, aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication

53
Q

You file a IFR flight plan with VFR-on-Top clearance. After being given this clearance you fly a course of 180 degrees. What altitudes should you fly?

A

An even thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500’

54
Q

Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an off airways IFR flight over non mountainous terrain?

A

1000’ above the highest obstacle within 4 nm of course

55
Q

Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an off airways IFR flight over mountainous terrain?

A

2,000’ above the highest obstacle within 4 nm of course

56
Q

The aircraft’s transponder fails during flight within Class D airspace. What do you do?

A

No deviation is required because a transponder is not required in Class D airspace

57
Q

While operating on an IFR clearance in controlled airspace, what service is provided by ATC?

A

Seperation from IFR and participating VFR aircraft

58
Q

If you plan to fly under IFR in controlled airspace, you must file an IFR flight plan and

A

receive an appropriate clearance from ATC

59
Q

When an aircraft is not equipped with a transponder, what requirement must be met before ATC will authorize a flight within class B airspace?

A

A request for the proposed flight must be made to ATC at least 1 hour before the flight

60
Q

Where are VFR-on-Top operations prohibited?

A

In Class A airspace

61
Q

When are you required to establish communications with the tower in Class D airspace if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 minutes before the destination?

A

Before entering Class D airspace

62
Q

Which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?

A

The class E airspace extending upwards from 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace

63
Q

The vertical extend of Class A airspace in the conterminous US extends from

A

18,000’- FL 600

64
Q

What is the floor of class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airway?

A

1,200’ AGL

65
Q

What altitude is the normal upper limit for Class D airspace?

A

2,500’ AGL

66
Q

What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airport which has an approved IAP

A

700’ AGL

67
Q

What is generally the maximum altitude for Class B airspace?

A

10,000’ MSL

68
Q

What are the normal lateral limits of Class D airspace

A

4nm

69
Q

What minimum aircraft equipment in required while flying in Class C and B airspace?

A

Two way radio communication and Mode C Transponder

70
Q

MOAs are established to

A

separate certain military activities from IFR traffic

71
Q

When should your transponder be on Mode C while in IFR flight?

A

At all times if the equipment is calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC

72
Q

What does declaring ‘minimum fuel’ to ATC imply?

A

An advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible

73
Q

When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000’ of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of

A

between 500’ per minute and 1,500’ per minute

74
Q

What is the significance of ATC clearance which reads “…Cruise Six Thousand…”

A

Climbs may be made to, or descents made from 6,000 feet at the pilot’s discretion
“CRUISE” indicates a block of airspace to a pilot from the minimum IFR altitude up to and including the altitude specified in the cruise clearance

75
Q

What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?

A

Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level-offs until 1,000’ below the assigned altitude, then climb at a rate of 500-1,500 feet/min

76
Q

What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircrafts?

A

Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and an part requiring verification.

Use CRAFT for clearances

C- clearance limit
R- route
A- altitudes
F- frequencies
T- transponder setting
77
Q

What clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance in a Radar environment

A

Destination airport, Altitude, DP (departure procedure) name and number, and/or transition, if appropriate

78
Q

When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?

A

When priority has been given.

79
Q

Which rules apply to the PIC when operating on a VFR-on-Top clearance?

A

VFR and IFR

80
Q

When can a VFR-on-Top clearance be assigned by ATC?

A

Only upon request of the pilot when conditions are indicated to be suitable

81
Q

Which ATC clearance is required to climb through a cloud layer and then continue to flight VFR?

A

TO VFR-on-Top

82
Q

When on a VFR-on-Top clearance, the cruising altitude is based on

A

magnetic course

83
Q

In which airspace is VFR-on-Top prohibited?

A

Class A airspace

84
Q

What minimums must be considered in selecting an altitude when operating with a VFR-on-Top clearance?

A

Minimum IFR altitude, minimum distance from clouds, and visibility appropriate to altitude selected

85
Q

What is expected of you as a pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions

A

execute gentle banks left and right to visually scan the airspace

86
Q

What is expected of you as a pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are flying straight and level in VFR conditions

A

scan the airspace in segments in a frequency that allows you to maintain separation from other aircraft

87
Q

When may a pilot file a composite flight plan?

A

Any time a portion of the flight will be VFR

88
Q

What is the recommended procedure for transition from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan?

A

Prior to transitioning to IFR, contact the nearest FSS, close the VFR portion, and request ATC clearance.

89
Q

While on an IFR flight plan, you should notify ATC of a variation in speed when

A

average true airspeed changes by 10 knots or 5%

90
Q

For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways

A

Fixes selected that can define the route

91
Q

From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAMS?

A

FAA AFSS/FSS

92
Q

When departing a non-towered airport with a void clearance, you must

A

advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes of intentions if not airborne by the void time

93
Q

When not in radar contact, you should always report

A

departing the FAF inbound

94
Q

Unless otherwise specified on the chart, the minimum en route altitude along a jet route is

A

18,000 feet MSL

95
Q

During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot advised “Radar service terminated.” What action is appropriate?

A

Resume “normal” position reporting

96
Q

You are cruising at 190 knots, ATC instructs you to reduce speed to 160. You comply by reducing

A

IAS (indicated airspeed) to 160 kts and maintaining that speed plus or minus 10 knots

97
Q

When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?

A

Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower

98
Q

During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered (fire, mechanical or structural failure). The pilot should

A

IMMEDIATELY declare and emergency and obtain an amended clearance

99
Q

During an IFR flight in IMC, you enter a holding pattern with an EFC (expect further clearance) time of 1530. At 1520, you experience complete two-way communication failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to landing?

A

Depart the holding fix at the EFC and complete the approach

100
Q

Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way radio communication failure at a holding fix without an EFC time?

A

Continue holding until filed ETA and then begin approach

101
Q

While flying on an IFR flight plan, you experience two-way radio communication failure while in VFR conditions. You should continue by

A

flying under VFR rules and landing as soon as practicable

102
Q

You are in IMC and have two way radio communication failure. If you do not exercise emergency authority, what procedure are you expected to follow?

A

Set transponder to 7600, continue flight on assigned route and fly at last assigned altitude or the MEA, whichever is highest

103
Q

Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix by

A

an instrument departure procedure (DP), or radar vectors

104
Q

What information does Distand (D) NOTAMS provide?

A

taxiway closures, runway closures, runway lighting, snow/weather conditions

105
Q

What facilities, if any, may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during an ILS approach without affecting the straight in minimums?

A

Substitution is not necessary, minimums do not change

106
Q

How can a pilot determine if a GPS installed in an aircraft is approved for IFR enroute and IFR approaches

A

Flight manual supplement

107
Q

Who is responsible for collision avoidance?

A

PIC when weather conditions permit

108
Q

Immediate changes in flight data which affect IAP’s, aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication are disseminated by

A

FDC NOTAMs

109
Q

A person who has a commercial airplane rating but not an IFR rating may carry passengers with what restrictions?

A

A cross country flight may not exceed 50nm during the day

All flights during the night are prohibited with passengers for hire

110
Q

No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless that person has

A

Filed an IFR flight plan

and received an appropriate ATC clearance

111
Q

An abbreviated departure clearance “CLEARED AS FILED” means that

A

you are cleared to fly the filed route unless ATC otherwise directs

112
Q

You have an IFR clearance and are operating VFR-on-Top in a non radar environment. This requires you to

A

make position reports

113
Q

What data must be recorded in the aircraft log or other appropriate log by a pilot making a VOR operational check for IFR operations?

A

Location, bearing error, date, and signature

114
Q

Under what condition may you fly above 18,000 MSL when using BasicMed medical qualifications?

A

Flight above 18,000 MSL is not allowed under BasicMed

115
Q

What conditions allow a pilot to exercise the privileges of BasicMed to as act as PIC under IFR?

A

When the PIC is instrument rated and current

IFR written prep (5 decks)

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