FAR Cross Reference 12 NOV 2012

Question 1

TAKEOFFS AND LANDINGS REQUIRED

Answer 1

All pilots must have 3 T/O and ldg. in type during the preceding 90 days. (sim may be used)

Question 2

SPECIAL AIRPORTS (C050)

Answer 2

If the WX at the airport is < 1000’ above the lowest MEA, MOCA, or initial approach altitude, or if the visibility is < 3 mi., then the following restrictions apply:

1. Either the PIC or SIC must have made an entry to that airport, including a T/O and ldg. within the last 12 calendar months.
   - OR-
2. The PIC must qualify using pictorial means.
3. Does not apply to C067 or SAAT 4 airports.

Question 3

PASSENGERS AND ALCOHOL

Answer 3

Except in an emergency, no pilot may carry a person who appears to be intoxicated or under the influence of drugs. (A medical patient under proper care is OK.)

No person may:
Drink alcohol aboard an aircraft unless the operator serves it. Be served alcohol if: 1. they appear intoxicated 2. they are acting as an escort or being escorted 3. they have a deadly weapon accessible.

Question 4

MEL / CDL / NEF

No person may takeoff an airplane with inoperable instruments and equipment unless:

Answer 4

a. The airplane has an approved MEL that provides for operation of the airplane with the components in an inoperable condition.
b. The pilot has records available, identifying the inoperable components. (MX log)
c. The airplane is operated in accordance with all conditions and limitations in the MEL, CDL, and NEF.

An airplane with inoperable components may be operated under a special flight permit.
Equipment requirements are addressed in the MEL.

Question 5

COMPLETE AIRWORTHINESS CHECK

A complete airworthiness check consists of:

Answer 5

a. Preflight of the aircraft
b. An airworthiness release signature from an authorized mechanic on a white flight log.
c. Review of discrepancies in the MX log / DMI sheet and MEL / CDL compliance.

Question 6

MAINTENANCE LOGS AND AIRCRAFT FLIGHT LOG HISTORY

Answer 6

Maintenance and Flight logs shall reference 5 days flight history.The PIC is not required to validate 5 days of flight history.
Voided entries must not be obliterated. Draw a line through the incorrect entry and append with your initials AND employee #.

Question 7

REQUIRED AIRCRAFT ITEMS

Answer 7

• Airplane Flight Manual (AFM)*
• Airworthiness, registration & radio license certificates*
• Dangerous Goods and Hazardous Materials Manual SP 5205 and
Emergency Response Guide (ERG)*
• FMS and FlightMax (EMB) Pilot Handbooks (if equipment is installed)*
• Ground Deicing Program Manual SP 2800 / Weight and Balance
Operations Manual SP 4100*
• Maintenance can*
• MEL, CDL, and NEF*
• QRH (CRJ requires both volumes)*
• Supplementary Performance booklet / Speed cards*
• Aircraft checklists (Two)
• Atlanta Radio U.S. Communications map
• HOT tables and deice checklist in MX can
• Jumpseat Safety Information card
• Manual manifest book
• Passenger Index Table
• Quick Reference Guide (EMB 120)
• TOLD cards

Question 8

FLIGHT PLANNING

Before flight, the PIC shall become familiar with all available information concerning the flight including:

Answer 8

a. WX reports and forecasts
b. Fuel requirements
c. Alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed
d. Known traffic delays
e. Runways and lengths at the airports of intended use
f. Required takeoff and landing distance
g. All appropriate NOTAMS (chart, local, distant, and FDC)

Question 9

A release may be in any form but must include the following:

Answer 9

a. ID of aircraft
b. Trip number
c. Type of operation (IFR, VFR)
d. Minimum fuel supply
e. Departure, destination, alternate and intermediate stop airports
f. Latest WX reports / forecasts for airports of intended use (either within the release or attached to it)

Question 10

A new release or amendment is required when:

Answer 10

a. A flight originates or is delayed more than 1 hour
b. A flight departs an intermediate station after a ground time (block) of more than 1 hr.
c. A flight cannot depart in accordance with the release
d. The PIC or dispatcher requests a change
e. A flight returns to the airport from which it departed
f. Crewmember change (SkyWest only)

FOM 4.7.M To amend a release, the PIC and dispatcher must both agree. The PIC will make the change by striking through the old entry and
writing the new entry adjacent to the old one. The dispatcher will also make the change on their copy.

Question 11

The PIC will carry a copy of the following to the destination:

Answer 11

a. Load manifest
b. Dispatch release
c. Flight plan (located on release)
d. Copy of CLR IF AVAILABLE
SkyWest will maintain a copy of each for 90 days.
Unless there was an incident, accident, or if an emergency was declared you may discard.

Question 12

No person may takeoff unless the aircraft has enough fuel to fly to the destination, then to the most distant alternate airport, then to fly for:

Answer 12

45 minutes at normal cruise.

Question 13

Some factors that should be considered when calculating the required fuel:

Answer 13

a. Forecast winds and weather
b. Anticipated traffic delays
c. One instrument approach and missed approach at the destination
d. Any other conditions that may delay landing

MINTO represents the minimum takeoff fuel. It complies with the above requirements.

Question 14

FUEL CHANGES

Answer 14

A fuel increase must be coordinated with the dispatcher.
A fuel decrease of 200 lbs. or 50% of the contingency fuel (whichever is less) may be made without notifying the dispatcher. A decrease beyond these limits must have the concurrence of the
dispatcher.

Question 15

CONDITIONAL LANGUAGE

Answer 15

Conditional statements include TEMPO, PROB, and BECMG

Question 16

Main body weather only changes with a:

Answer 16

FM, or at the end of a BECMG period.

Question 17

EXEMPTION 3585

Answer 17

However, we are authorized to use exemption 3585, which allows us to dispatch with conditional language below our minimum, as long as the conditional weather is not less than 1/2 of the minimum.
Exemption 3585 may be used to qualify a destination and/or first alternate. Exemption 3585 may not be used at a second alternate or takeoff alternate.

Question 18

To make sure we are legal to dispatch, all you need to do is plug in your ETA and ask yourself 2 questions:

Answer 18

1. Is the main body good enough?
   If no, you can’t go. If yes, ask yourself question 2.
2. Is the conditional weather (if any) good enough?
   Remember, if the conditional weather is below your minimum, you can use exemption 3585 as long as it is not less than 1/2 of the minimum.

Question 19

Exemption 3585 may be used to qualify a:

Answer 19

Destination and/or first alternate.

Exemption 3585 may not be used at a second alternate, takeoff alternate, or a driftdown alternate.

Exemption 3585 does not apply to:

a. A Canadian or Mexico destination or alternate
b. High minimum captains

Question 20

Exemption 3585, when used, always requires:

Answer 20

a. A second alternate must be listed.
b. While enroute, the PIC must obtain the most recent METAR and TAF for all 3 airports (destination, 1st alternate, 2nd alternate)

Question 21

No person may list an airport as an alternate unless the weather reports or forecasts or any combination thereof (WROFOAC), indicate that the weather will be:

Answer 21

At or above the alternate minimums specified

in the Ops Specs at the ETA.

Question 22

The only thing we care about on the Jeppesen alternate minimums table is:

Answer 22

“NA”. We cannot calculate alternate minimums using a procedure that is not authorized.

Question 23

To calculate alternate minima, refer to the CAT I approach charts at the airport and use either of the following methods:

Answer 23

Single approach method requires an approach
with an operational navigation facility that we are
authorized to use. (ex. CRJ cannot do NDB)
The approach may be straight in, circling, precision, or non-precision.
Using the appropriate approach minimums, add 400’ to the HAT (HAA for circling) and add 1 SM to the visibility requirement. The result is a legal derived alternate minimum.

Double approach method requires
1. 2 different straight in approaches (cannot use a circling approach)
2. To 2 different suitable runways (opposite ends of the same surface are still “different”). Wind limits, including gusts, must be considered in runway suitability.
3. Using 2 different navigation facilities (different identifiers constitute different NAVAIDS)
Using 2 approaches that meet these requirements, add 200’ to the higher HAT of the 2 approaches, and add 1/2 SM to the higher visibility of the 2 approaches.

These calculation procedures are used for all alternates (destination 1st alt., 2nd alt., and takeoff alt.)

Question 24

Single approach method requires an approach:

Answer 24

With an operational navigation facility that we are
authorized to use. (ex. CRJ cannot do NDB)
The approach may be straight in, circling, precision, or non-precision.
Using the appropriate approach minimums, add 400’ to the HAT (HAA for circling) and add 1 SM to the visibility requirement. The result is a legal derived alternate minimum.

These calculation procedures are used for all alternates (destination 1st alt., 2nd alt., and takeoff alt.)

Question 25

Double approach method requires:

Answer 25

1. 2 different straight in approaches (cannot use a circling approach)
2. To 2 different suitable runways (opposite ends of the same surface are still “different”). Wind limits, including gusts, must be considered in runway suitability.
3. Using 2 different navigation facilities (different identifiers constitute different NAVAIDS)
   Using 2 approaches that meet these requirements, add 200’ to the higher HAT of the 2 approaches, and add 1/2 SM to the higher visibility of the 2 approaches.

These calculation procedures are used for all alternates (destination 1st alt., 2nd alt., and takeoff alt.)

Question 26

EXEMPTION 3585 may be applied where and to what?:

Answer 26

We are authorized to use X3585 at the destination and first alternate only.
At the destination, we applied the exemption to the landing minimum (visibility).
At the alternate, we may apply it to the derived filing minimum (ceiling and/or visibility).

OVC, BKN, and VV are ceilings. FEW and SCT are not.

Question 27

We are authorized to use X3585 at the destination and:

Answer 27

First alternate only.
At the destination, we applied the exemption to the landing minimum (visibility).
At the alternate, we may apply it to the derived filing minimum (ceiling and/or visibility).

OVC, BKN, and VV are ceilings. FEW and SCT are not.

Question 28

Exemption 3585, when used, always requires:

Answer 28

a. A second alternate must be listed.
b. While enroute, the PIC must obtain the most recent METAR and TAF for all 3 airports (destination, 1st alternate, 2nd alternate).

Question 29

AT LEAST ONE ALTERNATE REQUIRED

Answer 29

1-2-3 Rule: Under IFR, an alternate is always required unless, during the period from 1 hr. before to 1 hr. after the ETA, the destination ceiling is forecast to be ≥ 2,000’ and the visibility is forecast to ≥ 3 SM.

FOM 6.8.D Freezing precipitation: If the destination is currently reporting or forecasting freezing rain or freezing drizzle, departure is still authorized. However, an alternate must be specified.

Question 30

TWO ALTERNATES REQUIRED

Answer 30

Anytime the conditional weather exemption is used, a second alternate is required.

121.619 Also, when the weather conditions forecast for both the destination and first alternate airport are marginal, at least one additional alternate must be designated.

Question 31

The FARs do not define marginal. SkyWest defines marginal as:

Answer 31

Destination is marginal when it is equal to the landing minimum (visibility).
Alternate is marginal when it is equal to the filing minimum (ceiling & visibility).
A second alternate is required if the destination and first alternate are both marginal.

Question 32

TAKEOFF ALTERNATE REQUIRED

Answer 32

If the weather at the departure airport is below the landing minimums (visibility only) in the Ops Specs for that airport, an alternate 121.619 airport must be specified within 1 hr. normal cruise, still air, with one engine inoperative (for 2 engine aircraft).

Question 33

NEW ALTERNATE FORECASTS

Answer 33

No person may continue flight to a destination unless the weather of an alternate specified in the dispatch release is forecast to be above alternate filing minimums at the ETA.
Once the decision has been made to divert to the alternate airport, the alternate airport becomes the
new destination and destination weather minimums apply.
(FAA Instrument Procedures Handbook 2-12)
The release may be amended enroute to include a new legal alternate within fuel range.

Question 34

The transponder code for emergency is:

Answer 34

7700

Question 35

A takeoff begins when:

Answer 35

The brakes are released, the thrust/power levers
are advanced for takeoff, and continues to a point of decision referenced as V1.

Entering and leaving the runway, even with a takeoff clearance, does not constitute a rejected takeoff if the thrust/power levers were not advanced and/or brakes applied to decelerate.
Notification to MX control may be delayed until arrival at the destination if the abort was not due to something mechanical.

Question 36

If severe turbulence is encountered:

Answer 36

Notify MX control over Atlanta Radio and write up the event in the aircraft MX log.

Question 37

Any unusual event or occurrence involving the reputation of the company should be reported with an:

Answer 37

IOR

Question 38

Transponder code for hijack is:

Answer 38

7500

Question 39

Transponder code for lost communication is:

Answer 39

7600

Question 40

After each takeoff, when the fasten seat belt sign is turned off, passengers must:

Answer 40

Be instructed to keep belts fastened while seated. Infants (<2 yrs.) may use an approved child restraint system or be held by an adult.

Question 41

AIRCRAFT SPEED AROUND AIRPORTS:

Answer 41

250 KIAS below 10,000' MSL. 
200 KIAS within 4 NM and 2,500' of primary airport in class C or D airspace.
200 KIAS underneath class B airspace, or through a class B VFR corridor.

Question 42

VFR MINIMUMS & CLOUD CLEARANCE

Answer 42

Class A - N/A: IFR
Class B - 3 SM / Clear of Clouds
Class C - 3 152
Class D - 3 152

Class E (Below 10,000MSL) - 3 152 
Class E (Above 10,000MSL) - 5 111 

Class G (≥10,000' MSL & >1,200' AGL) - 5 111 
Class G (1,200 AGL DAY) - 1 152
Class G (1,200 AGL NT.) -  3 152
Class G (≤1,200 AGL DAY) - 1 SM Clear
Class G (≤1,200 AGL NT.) - 3 152
*1 SM & clear of clouds within 1/2 mi. of runway in pattern at night.

Question 43

200 KIAS within ____ of airport?

Answer 43

4 NM and 2,500' of primary airport in class C or D airspace.
200 KIAS underneath class B airspace, or through a class B VFR corridor.

Question 44

Class B cloud clearance:

Answer 44

3 SM / Clear of clouds

Question 45

Class C cloud clearance:

Answer 45

3 SM, 1,000’ above, 500’ below, &

2,000’ horizontal

Question 46

Class D cloud clearance:

Answer 46

3 SM, 1,000’ above, 500’ below, &

2,000’ horizontal

Question 47

Class E (Below 10,000MSL) cloud clearance:

Answer 47

3 SM, 1,000’ above, 500’ below, &

2,000’ horizontal

Question 48

Class E (Above 10,000MSL) cloud clearance:

Answer 48

5 SM, 1,000’ above, 1000’ below, &

1,000’ horizontal

Question 49

Class G cloud clearance:

Answer 49

Class G (≥10,000' MSL & >1,200' AGL) - 5 111 
Class G (>1,200 AGL DAY) - 1 152
Class G (>1,200 AGL NT.) -  3 152
Class G (≤1,200 AGL DAY) - 1 SM Clear
Class G (≤1,200 AGL NT.) - 3 152
*1 SM & clear of clouds within 1/2 mi. of runway in pattern at night.

Question 50

TERRAIN CLEARANCE FAR 91.119

Non / Congested areas

Answer 50

Congested areas- 1,000’ above the highest obstacle within 2,000’ horizontal distance.
Non congested areas- 500’ above the surface. Water or sparsely populated areas- 500’ from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.

Question 51

MINIMUM SKYWEST ALTITUDES VFR & IFR

Answer 51

VFR, IFR- 1,000’ (2,000’ mountains) above the highest obstacle within 4NM (5SM).

Question 52

MINIMUM ALTITUDES ENROUTE

Answer 52

The minimum altitude on published IFR routes (MEA), or MOCA within 22NM of VOR.
The minimum off route altitude (MORA) clears the highest reference point by 2,000’ if the reference point is above 5,000’, otherwise it provides 1,000’ clearance.
AIM: Everything west of Denver is mountainous except the San Joaquin Valley in CA.

Question 53

“Radar contact” does or does not provide guarantee terrain clearance?

Answer 53

“Radar contact” does not guarantee terrain clearance. ATC will provide terrain clearance after radar vectors commence.

Question 54

Enter the traffic pattern at least:

Answer 54

1,500 AGL

Question 55

Standard traffic patterns are what direction?

Answer 55

Left

Question 56

Takeoff and landing are prohibited when braking action is reported ____. Takeoff and landing are prohibited when ____ is reported
with a crosswind component greater than ___ kts.

Answer 56

Takeoff and landing are prohibited when braking action is reported NIL. Takeoff and landing are prohibited when POOR is reported with a crosswind component greater than 10 kts.

Question 57

“Patchy” runway is / isn’t considered contaminated:

Answer 57

Patchy - A surface that has 25 percent or less of the surface covered by snow, ice, etc.
Patchy is NOT considered contaminated

Question 58

Part 121 takeoffs and landings at night require runway lights?

Answer 58

True

Question 59

While operating IFR in controlled airspace, the PIC must report as soon as possible:

Answer 59

a. Time & altitude passing each compulsory reporting point (non radar only).
b. Points requested by ATC.
c. Any unforecast weather conditions encountered.
d. Any information relating to the safety of flight. (AIM reports)
e. Any malfunction of navigational, approach, or communication equipment in flight. Include the degree to which IFR capability is impaired and what assistance is required.

Question 60

When not under radar contact, pilots should report:

Answer 60

a. Over each compulsory reporting point (when operating on airways or routes)
b. Over each point used to define the route (when operating on a direct route)
c. Leaving FAF inbound (non precision approach) or outer marker (precision).
d. A corrected estimate for error in excess of 3 min.

Question 61

Report at all times:

Answer 61

a. Vacating any assigned altitude for a new altitude
b. Change of altitude when on a VFR ON TOP clearance.
c. When unable to climb/descend at least 500’/min
d. Missed approach with request for a specific clearance.
e. Change in average cruise TAS by 5% or 10 kts, whichever is greater.
f. Time and altitude of reaching a holding fix or clearance limit.
g. When leaving any assigned holding fix.

Question 62

Position reports should include:

Answer 62

a. ID
b. Position
c. Time
d. Altitude
e. Next reporting point and ETA
f. Subsequent reporting point
g. Flight Conditions- required when encountering unexpected wx, such as icing or unexpected turbulence.

Question 63

The absence of holding instructions authorizes an aircraft/vehicle to taxi across all:

Answer 63

Taxiways that intersect the taxi route.

An explicit runway crossing clearance must be received for each runway (active/inactive or closed) crossing.
Preceding aircraft/vehicle must have crossed the previous runway before another runway crossing clearance may be issued.

Question 64

Touchdown zone markings begin____, spaced ____for the first____.

Answer 64

500’ from threshold, spaced every 500’ for first 3,000’.

Question 65

Runway edge lights color and length:

Answer 65

White, then amber last 2,000’ or 1/2 of runway, whichever is less.

Question 66

Runway Centerline Lights (RCL) alternate:

Answer 66

Red and white 3000 ft. from the runway end and continuous red 1000 ft.from the runway end.

Question 67

Standard takeoff minimums for 2 engine aircraft are:

Answer 67

1 SM or 5000 RVR.
If a takeoff minimum is not published, we may use standard and lower than standard.
If the published minimum is greater than standard with no alternate procedure (min. climb gradient), we must comply with the published minimum.

Question 68

LOWER THAN STANDARD TAKEOFF MINIMUMS
1/4 SM prevailing visibility or RVV Runway Requirements:
Substitutions?

Answer 68

Either HIRL or CL or RCLM or Adequate visual reference.

Question 69

LOWER THAN STANDARD TAKEOFF MINIMUMS

1600 RVR TDZ Runway Requirements: Substitutions?

Answer 69

Either HIRL or CL or RCLM

1 operative RVR required (TDZ or MID)

TDZ is Controlling.
MID report may be substituted for TDZ if TDZ is unavailable.

Question 70

LOWER THAN STANDARD TAKEOFF MINIMUMS
1200 RVR TDZ 
1200 RVR MID* (if available) 
1000 RVR RO
Runway Requirements: 
Substitutions?

Answer 70

Daylight: RCLM or HIRL or CL
Night time: HIRL or CL

2 operative RVRs required. All available RVR are
controlling. Any one report may be missing on a 3 or 4 RVR system. Far end RVR is non-controlling and cannot be used as one of the two required RVRs.

Question 71

LOWER THAN STANDARD TAKEOFF MINIMUMS
1000 RVR TDZ 
1000 RVR MID* (if available) 
1000 RVR RO
Runway Requirements: 
Substitutions?

Answer 71

CL or HIRL and RCLM

2 operative RVRs required. All available RVR are
controlling. Any one report may be missing on a 3 or 4 RVR system. Far end RVR is non-controlling and cannot be used as one of the two required RVRs.

Question 72

LOWER THAN STANDARD TAKEOFF MINIMUMS
600 TDZ 
600 MID* (if available) 
600 RO
Runway Requirements: 
Substitutions?

Answer 72

HIRL and CL

2 operative RVRs required. All available RVR are
controlling. Any one report may be missing on a 3 or 4 RVR system. Far end RVR is non-controlling and cannot be used as one of the two required RVRs.

Question 73

Far end RVR is ________ and ____ be used as one of the two required RVRs in the lower than standard takeoff minimums.

Answer 73

Far end RVR is non-controlling and cannot be used as one of the two required RVRs.

Question 74

Departing IFR (you have your IFR clearance), you are required to comply with either: (4)

Answer 74

1. ATC assigned SID (this includes radar vector departures i.e. “fly runway heading”)
2. Obstacle departure procedure (if no SID was assigned, SIDs require clearance)
3. VMC climb (if you were not assigned a departure and do not want to do the ODP)
4. In the absence of any specific departure instructions, published or verbal, a pilot would be expected to proceed on course via the most
   direct route. (FAA Instrument Flight Handbook 10-7.)

Question 75

If you wish to depart with a VMC climb when can you turn and where can you navigate to?

Answer 75

a. Request and receive an IFR clearance with a VMC climb.

b. No turns before 400 ft. AGL and must identify obstacles and use airport obstacle data which ensures that the performance requirements of
Subpart I of Part 121 are met.

c. Comply with your IFR clearance (fly to the first fix in your clearance). A VMC climb is not an authorization to deviate from your IFR clearance
and cut the course.

Question 76

If the airport does not have operating ATC facilities and it is not otherwise possible to obtain an IFR clearance, a VFR departure is authorized provided:

Answer 76

Remain VMC while operating under VFR. Obtain an IFR clearance as soon as possible, but not later than 50 NM from the departure airport.

Question 77

NO turns shall be commenced below ____ above field elevation (AFE) when takeoff weather is less than ____ ceiling and ____ visibility unless:

Answer 77

NO turns shall be commenced below 1,000’ above field elevation (AFE) when takeoff weather is less than 1,000’ ceiling and 3 sm visibility unless a special Departure Procedure prescribes otherwise or the assigned instrument departure procedure specifically requires a turn before reaching 1,000’ AGL.

Question 78

Always report ____ & ____ when reaching the clearance limit, and leaving the clearance limit i.e. hold.

Answer 78

Always report time and altitude when reaching the clearance limit, and leaving the clearance limit.

Question 79

MAX HOLD SPEEDS

≤ 6,000’ MSL

Answer 79

200 KIAS

Question 80

MAX HOLD SPEEDS

6,001’ - 14,000’ MSL

Answer 80

230 KIAS

210 KIAS where published

Question 81

MAX HOLD SPEEDS

≥ 14,001 MSL

Answer 81

265 KIAS

Question 82

MAX HOLD SPEEDS
≤ 6,000’ MSL:
6,001’ - 14,000’ MSL:
≥ 14,001 MSL:

Answer 82

≤ 6,000’ MSL: 200 KIAS

6,001’ - 14,000’ MSL: 230 KIAS 210 KIAS where published.

≥ 14,001 MSL: 265 KIAS

Question 83

SOP HOLD SPEEDS

SOP EMB- MINIMUM

Answer 83

170 KIAS

Question 84

Are special VFR and contact approaches approved?

Answer 84

No

Question 85

The certificate holder is authorized precision CAT 1 landing minimum as low as 1800 RVR to approved runways with operative TDZ lights and/or CL lights.
1800 RVR without/inoperative TDZ lights and/or CL lights approved provided:

Answer 85

a) The instrument approach has an 1800 RVR minimum in the procedure.
b) The flight crew is required to engage the Flight Director and keep it engaged until DA, the initiation of a missed approach or the runway is in sight.

Question 86

EMB are authorized to conduct a circle to land maneuver with what minimums?

Answer 86

The reported weather is at least:

a. 1,000’ ceiling and 3 SM visibility, or
b. the charted minimums, whichever is higher

The MDA must be 1,000’ or the charted minimum, whichever is higher.

Question 87

Protected airspace during a circling approach provides:

Answer 87

300’ terrain clearance with no secondary protection.

Question 88

A visual approach requires:

Answer 88

a. The flight is operated and remains within class B, C, or D airspace, within 35 miles of the destination if in class E, or beneath the designated transition area.
b. The flight is under the control of ATC.
c. The crew must maintain basic cloud clearances of 91.155.

Question 89

When can you cancel IFR at an uncontrolled airport?

Answer 89

For uncontrolled airports:
a. The flight is operated within 10 NM of the destination, or visual reference with the landing surface is established and maintained.

b. During the terminal phase, the crew maintains direct communication with an air/ground facility or agent that provides traffic advisories and information pertinent to the conditions on and around the landing surface.

(CTAF qualifies)

Question 90

A pilot may continue below the MDA, DH provided:

Answer 90

a. The aircraft is continuously in a position, using normal maneuvers and descent rates to land within the first 3,000’ of the runway (touchdown zone).
b. The FLIGHT (not reported) visibility is ≥ the minimum for the procedure.

c. One of the following references is distinctly visible and identifiable:
1) Threshold, markings, or lights
2) Runway, markings, or edge lights
3) Touchdown zone, markings, or lights
4) REIL
5) Visual approach slope indicator (VASI, PAPI, etc.)
6) Approach light system*
* If the approach light system is being used as the visual reference, the aircraft may not descend below 100’ above the TDZ, unless the red side row bars (ALSF II), red terminating bars (ALSF I), or one of the others mentioned above is in sight.

d. The aircraft has reached the VDP (non-precision only).

Question 91

DME method of VDP:

Answer 91

HAT / (VPA X 100)

ex. 600’ HAT & 3° VPA: 600 / (3 X 100) = 2.0 DME from runway

Question 92

Time method of VDP:

Answer 92

10% of HAT

ex. 600’ HAT: .10 X 600 = 60 seconds from runway

Question 93

When should you execute a missed approach on a circling approach and how?

Answer 93

An identifiable part of the airport is not distinctly visible.

Execute a missed approach by making a climbing turn toward the landing runway and establish the aircraft on the missed approach procedure.

Question 94

Lost Communication transponder code:

Answer 94

Transponder code is 7600.

If operating in VMC, or if VMC is encountered, remain VMC and land as soon as practicable.

Question 95

LOST COMMUNICATIONS ROUTE TO BE FLOWN:

Answer 95

AVEF

a. Route in the last clearance
b. If on a vector, fly direct to the fix, route, airway specified
c. Route in expected further clearance (if no clearance)
d. Route filed (if no clearance or expected clearance)

Question 96

LOST COMMUNICATIONS ALTITUDE TO BE FLOWN:

Answer 96

MEA
 (THE HIGHEST OF THE FOLLOWING)
a. Lowest IFR altitude
b. Altitude in expected further clearance
c. Altitude in last clearance

Question 97

LEAVING A CLEARANCE LIMIT IN LOST COMMUNICATIONS ENVIRONMENT:

Answer 97

If the clearance limit is an IAF, start the descent and approach at the EFC time. If no EFC, start at the ETA based on filed or amended time enroute.

If the clearance limit is not an IAF, proceed to an IAF (if EFC was given, hold until EFC before proceeding), then commence descent and approach at the ETA.

ETAs are continuously updated in radar environments. (ETA is when you get there)

If a hold is required for ETA in a non-radar environment, or for EFC purposes, use the holding pattern depicted. If no published hold, use inbound course, right turns.

Question 98

SIC < 100 HOURS IN TYPE (INCLUDING IOE) PIC MUST MAKE ALL T/O AND LANDINGS WHEN:

Answer 98

a. Special Airports FOM 4.3-4.5, Ops Spec C067
b. Prevailing Visibility ≤ ¾ SM.
c. RVR ≤ 4000.
d. Contaminated runway.
e. Braking action less than Good.
f. Crosswind component more than 15 knots.
g. Windshear reported near the airport.
h. Any other condition determined by the PIC.