FAR 91 Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is the responsibility of the Pilot in Command who deviates from a regulation?

A

Upon request of the FAA administrator, send a written report of the deviation.

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2
Q

How do the FARs state the prohibition on interference with crewmembers?

A

No person may

  • assualt
  • threaten
  • intimidate, or
  • interfere

with a crewmember in the performance of their duties.

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3
Q

What is the criteria regarding the use of alcohol or drugs as a crewmember

A

No person shall act as a crewmember:

  • within 8 hours of consuming alcohol
  • under the influence of alcohol
  • while using any drug that impairs
  • while having blood alcohol level of .04 or higher
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4
Q

When shall required cremembers be at their station, and when shall the shoulder harness be kept fastened

A
  • Must be at station during takeoff and landing and while enroute unless
    • absence is necessary in performance of duties
    • physiological needs
  • Shoulder harness must be kept fasted while at the crewmember station during takeoff and landing.
  • Safety belt shall be fastened while at the station.
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5
Q

Who is responsible to ensure that each person aboard a US registered civil aircraft is provided a seat belt and briefed on its use?

A

The Pilot in Command

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6
Q

What are the restrictions on flight instruction in civil aircraft

A
  • Must have fully functioning dual flight controls
  • In simulated instrument flight, the other control seat must be occupied by a safety pilot with at least a private pilot certificate and adequate vision forward and to the side
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7
Q

Explain the Right of Way Rules

A

When another aircraft has the right of way, the pilot shall give way to that aircraft and may not pass over, under or ahead unless well clear.

  • An aircraft in distress always has right of way
  • When converging, the aircraft on the right has the right of way
  • When Head on, each aircraft shall alter course to the right
  • When overtaking, the overtaken aircraft has the right of way. The overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right
  • Landing aircraft have the right of way.
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8
Q

What is the maximum speed below 10,000’ MSL

A

250 KIAS

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9
Q

What is the maximum speed below 2,500’ AGL within Class C or D airspace

A

200 KIAS within 4nm of the primary airport in the Class C or D airspace

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10
Q

What is the maximum speed in the airspace underlying Class B?

A

200 KIAS below Class B airspace or in a VFR corridor designated through Class B.

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11
Q

What is the maximum speed within Class B airspace?

A

There is no maximum speed designated within Class B airspace unless other airspace restrictions apply (eg 250 KIAS below 10,000’ MSL)

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12
Q

Except for takeoff and landing, what are the minimum operating altitudes

A
  • Anywhere - an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard
  • Over a Congested Area - 1,000’ above the highest obstacle within a 2,000’ radius
  • Over other than a Congested Area -
    • 500’ above the surface, except
    • over open water or sparsely populated areas, no closer than 500’ to any persons, vessel, vehicle or structure
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13
Q

What is the requirement for obtaining and using an altimeter setting below 18,000’ MSL

A
  • Set the altimeter to the current reporte altimeter setting along the route within 100NM
  • If no station is available, the current reported altimeter setting of an appropriate available station
  • With no radio communications available before takeoff, the altimeter setting to obtain airport elevation
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14
Q

What is the responsibility of the pilot as a result of deviation in response to a TCAS warning which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance or instruction?

A

PIC shall notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible

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15
Q

What is the responsibility of a pilot that is given priority by ATC in an emergency?

A

PIC shall submit a detailed report of the emergency within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility i_f requested by ATC._

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16
Q

Explain the ATC light signals with respect to aircraft on the surface of the airport

A

Flashing Green Cleared to taxi

Steady Red Stop

Steady Green Cleared for takeoff

Flashing Red Taxi clear of runway in use

Flashing White Return to starting point on airport

Alternating Red/Green Exercise extreme caution

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17
Q

Explain the pertinent rules for operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class G airspace

A
  • When approaching to land without an operating control tower, all turns will be to the left unless signals or markings indicate otherwise.
  • With an operating control tower, communications must be established prior to 4NM from the airport, up to and including 2,500’ AGL
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18
Q

Explain the pertinent rules for operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class D airspace.

A
  • Aircraft must establish communications prior to entering or as soon as practical if departing
  • If the radio fails while IFR, follow IFR lost comms procedures (FAR 91.185).
  • If VFR continue to operate and land if weather at or above basic VFR, visual contact with the tower is maintained and a clearance to land is received
  • Circle the airport to the left unless otherwise required
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19
Q

Explain the pertinent rules for operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class C airspace

A
  • Aircraft must establish communications prior to entering or as soon as practical if departing
  • If the radio fails while IFR, follow IFR lost comms procedures (FAR 91.185).
  • If VFR continue to operate and land if weather at or above basic VFR, visual contact with the tower is maintained and a clearance to land is received
  • Circle the airport to the left unless otherwise required
  • Must have an operating Mode C transponder
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20
Q

Explain the pertinent rules for operating in Class B airspace

A
  • Aircraft must establish communications prior to entering or as soon as practical if departing
  • If the radio fails while IFR, follow IFR lost comms procedures (FAR 91.185).
  • If VFR continue to operate and land if weather at or above basic VFR, visual contact with the tower is maintained and a clearance to land is received
  • Circle the airport to the left unless otherwise required
  • Must receive ATC clearance prior to entering
  • PIC holds at least a private pilot certificate
  • For IFR, an operable VOR or TACAN
  • An operable two-way radio
  • Operable Mode C Transponder
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21
Q

Explain the pertinent rules for operating in restricted or prohibited airspace

A

Must have permission of the using or controlling agency, as appropriate.

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22
Q

Explain the pertinent rules for operating in Class A airspace

A
  • ATC clearance required prior to entering
  • Two-way radio communication is required
  • Mode C transponder is required
  • ATC may immediately approve an operation within an inop transponder, allowing the flight to continue to airport of ultimate destiniation, making either intermediate stops or proceeding to a place for repairs
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23
Q

Explain the rules for operating in the vicinity of disaster / hazard areas

A

When a NOTAM for a TFR has been issued, at least one of the following conditions must be met:

  1. The operation is conducted directly to or from an airport within the area, or is necessary because of impractical VFR flight above or around the area due to weather or terrain. The operation is not conducted for the purpose of observing the incident or event.
  2. The aircraft is operating under IFR flight plan.
  3. The aircraft is carrying incident or event personnel, or law enforcement officials
  4. The aircraft is carrying news representatives AND has filed a flight plan.
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24
Q

Explain the rules for operating in the proximity of Presidential or other parties.

A

No operations unless otherwise specified in the NOTAM.

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25
Q

How much fuel is required to operate under VFR conditions?

A

Need enough fuel to fly to point of first intended landing.

Assuming normal cruise speed need:

  • Day - 30 minutes reserve
  • Night - 45 minutes reserve
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26
Q

What information is required to file a VFR flight plan?

A
  • Aircraft ID and/or radio call sign
  • Type of aircraft
  • Full name and address of PIC
  • Point and proposed time of departure
  • Proposed route, cruising altitude, true airspeed
  • Destination and ETE
  • Fuel on board (in hours)
  • Number of persons on board
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27
Q

What are the basic VFR weather minimums in Class A airspace?

A

Not applicable - VFR Flight not allowed in Class A

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28
Q

What are the basic VFR weather minimums in Class B airspace?

A
  • 3 SM visibility
  • Clear of Clouds
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29
Q

What are the basic VFR weather minimums in Class C airspace?

A
  • 3SM visibility
  • 500’ below clouds
  • 1000’ above clouds
  • 2000’ horizontally to clouds
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30
Q

What are the basic VFR weather minimums in Class D airspace?

A
  • 3SM visibility
  • 500’ below clouds
  • 1000’ above clouds
  • 2000’ horizontally to clouds
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31
Q

What are the basic VFR weather minimums in Class E airspace

A

Less than 10,000’ MSL

  • 3SM visibility
  • 500’ below clouds
  • 1000’ above clouds
  • 2000’ laterally to clouds

Greater than or equal to 10,000’ MSL

  • 5SM visibility
  • 1,000’ below clouds
  • 1,000’ above clouds
  • 1SM laterally to clouds
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32
Q

What are the basic VFR weather minimums in Class G airspace?

A

<= 1200’ AGL Day

  • 1SM visibility
  • Clear of Clouds

<= 1200’ AGL Night

  • 3SM visibility
  • 500’ below, 1000’ above, 2000’ laterally to clouds

<= 10,000’ MSL / >1200’ AGL Day

  • 1SM visibility
  • 500’ below, 1000’ above, 2000’ laterally to clouds

<= 10,000’ MSL / > 1200’ AGL Night

  • 3SM visbility
  • 500’ below, 1000’ above, 2000’ laterally to clouds

>= 10,000’ MSL / > 1200’ AGL

  • 5SM visibility
  • 1000’ below, 1000’ above, 1SM laterally to clouds
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33
Q

When may Special VFR operations be conducted?

A
  • With ATC clearance
  • Clear of clouds
  • Flight visibility > 1 SM
  • Between sunrise and sunset unless pilot and aircraft are certified IFR
  • Takeoffs and landings require 1 SM ground visibility and 1SM flight visibility from the cockpit in takeoff position
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34
Q

Describe the VFR cruising altitudes

A

Below 18,000’ MSL

  • East (Magnetic 0 - 179): Odd thousand + 500’
  • West (Magnetic (180 - 359): Even thousand + 500’

Above 18,000’ MSL

  • As assigned by ATC
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35
Q

How much fuel is required to operate an airplane in IFR conditions?

A

Enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing, and, assuming normal cruising speed,

  1. Fly to the alternate airport
  2. 45 minutes reserve

An alternate is not required if a standard approach procedure exists and the weather report/forecast indicate weather at least:

  • within 1 hour +/- of ETA
  • 2000’ MSL ceiling
  • 3SM visibilibity
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36
Q

What information is required to file an IFR flight plan?

A
  • Aircraft Identification
  • Aircraft type
  • True Airspeed KIAS
  • Departure point
  • Proposed Departure time
  • Cruising Altitude
  • Route of flight
  • Destination name
  • Estimated time enroute
  • Fuel on Board (hours)
  • Alternate Airport
  • Pilot Name and Address
  • Number aboard
  • Color of aircraft
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37
Q

What are the standard IFR alternate airport weather minima?

A
  • Precision Approach: 600’ ceiling / 2SM vis
  • Non-Precision Approach: 800’ ceiling / 2SM vis

With no published approach, must be able to descend from the MEA through the approach and landing under VFR conditions

38
Q

Describe the VOR equipment check for IFR operations

A

The VOR must be checked and recorded as satisfactory within the preceding 30 days with the following tolerances:

  • Ground VOT Signal: +/- 4 degrees
  • Ground VOR Checkpoint: +/- 4 degrees
  • Airborne Airborne Checkpoint: +/- 6 degrees
  • Airborne VOR Airway: +/- 6 degrees
  • Airborne Dual VOR: +/- 4 degrees
39
Q

When may a pilot operate an aircraft below the DH or MDA of an approach?

A
  • Able to descend at normal rate using normal manuevers
  • Visibility not less than required for approach
  • At least one of the following visual references is distinctly visibile and identifiable:
    • ALS: continue below 100’ above TDZE if red terminating bar/red side bars in view; or
    • Threshold, markings, or lights, or REIL, VASI; or
    • Touchdown zone, marking or lights; or
    • Runway markings or lights
40
Q

When must a pilot execute a missed approach from a circling manuever?

A

Whenever an identifiable part of the airport is not distinctly visible to the pilot - unless the inability is from a normal bank of the aircraft during the circling approach

41
Q

What are the takeoff minimums required for operations conducted under FAR Part 91?

A

No takeoff minimums are prescribed.

42
Q

What are the standard takeoff minimums required for operations conducted under FAR Part 121 or Part 135?

A
  • The published takeoff minimums
  • If no published takeoff minimums exist:
    • For aircraft with 2 engines or less - 1SM vis
    • For aircraft with more than 2 engines - 1/2 SM vis
43
Q

Convert ground visibility in SM to RVR (feet)

A

1/4 mi = 1600’

1/2 mi = 2400’

5/8 mi = 3200’

3/4 mi = 4000’

7/8 mi = 4500’

1 mi = 5000’

1 1/4 mi = 6000’

44
Q

When being radar vectored to the final approach course of an instrument procedure, when may the pilot descend from the last assigned altitude

A

When established on a segment of the published instrument approach unless otherwise assigned by ATC.

45
Q

When may a pilot not make a procedure turn as part of a published instrument approach procedure?

A

No pilot may make a procedure turn unless cleared to do so by ATC under the following conditions:

  • Radar vector to final approach course or fix
  • Timed approach from a holding fix
  • NoPT specified
46
Q

What is the minimum altitude for IFR operations?

A

The applicable minimums published.

If no minimums are published:

  • Mountain areas: 2000’ above the highest obstacle within 4NM
  • Non-Mountain areas: 1000’ above the highest obstacle within 4NM

If both a MEA and MOCA are published, you may operate below the MEA down to the MOCA when within 22NM of the VOR.

47
Q

Describe the IFR cruising altitudes

A

Below 18,000’ MSL

  • East (Magnetic 0-179): Odd thousand
  • West (Magnetic 180-359): Even thousand

18,000’ MSL up to FL290

  • East (Magnetic 0-179): Odd FL
  • West (Magnetic 180-359): Even FL
48
Q

What are the required radio reports when operating IFR in controlled airspace?

A
  • Time and altitude of each _designated reporting poin_t, or specified by ATC
  • While under radar control, only the reporting points specifically r_equested by ATC_
  • Any unforecasted weather conditions
  • Any other information relating to the safety of flight
49
Q

Describe the two-way radio communications failure procedures while operating IFR under VFR conditions

A

Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.

50
Q

Describe the two-way radio communications failure procedures while operating IFR under IFR conditions

A
  • Continue the route by the latest of the
    • Assigned,
    • Vectored,
    • Expected or
    • Filed
  • Continue at the highest altitude for the route segment of assigned, minimum or expected altitude.
  • If clearance limit is fix from which approach begins (IAF), commence descent and approach at EFC (expected further clearance). If fix is not form which an approach begins, leave clearance limit at EFC, proceed to IAF and being approach and descent at ETA.
51
Q

What types of malfunction reports are required to be reported to ATC when operating in controlled airspace under IFR?

A

Any malfunction of navigational, approach, or communications equipment occuring during flight.

52
Q

What documents or records must be on board an aircraft during flight?

A
  • Airworthiness Certificate
  • Registration Certificate
  • Radio Station Certificate
  • Operating Limitations & flight manual
  • Weight and Balance information
53
Q

What equipment is required for certification of civil aircraft for VFR (day)?

A
  • Gas (fuel) gauge
  • Oil Pressure
  • Oil Temperature
  • Seat Belts
  • ELT
  • Altimeter
  • Compass
  • Airspeed Indicator
  • Tachometer
54
Q

What equipment is required for certiication of civil aircraft for VFR (night)?

A

In addition to VFR Day requirements:

  • Fuses (spare)
  • Landing Lights (if for hire)
  • Anti-collision lights
  • Position Lights
  • Source of Power
55
Q

What equipment is required for certification of civil aircraft for IFR?

A
  • Clock (w/second hand)
  • Directional Gyro
  • Attitude Indicator
  • Rate-of-Turn Indicator
  • Two-way Radio
  • Generator (or alternator)
  • Altimeter (sensitive)
  • Slip/skid Indicator
56
Q

When is DME required?

A

Above FL240, if VOR is required for navigation with the 50 US States and District of Columbia

57
Q

What is the required maintenance and inspection interval for ELT, altimetry system and transponder

A
  • ELT - 12 calendar months
  • Pitot Static (Altimetry) - 24 calendar months
  • Transponder - 24 calendar months
58
Q

When are the position lights required to be on?

A
  • Inflight - during the period from sunset to sunrise
  • On the ground - prior to movement at night, unless otherwise illuminated
59
Q

When are the anticollision lights required to be on?

A

Prior to aircraft movement or operations, unless the PIC determines that operating conditions make use of the lights dangerous to safety of flight.

60
Q

What are the supplemental oxygen requirements for unpressurized aircraft?

A

Flight Crew

  • Must be used when Pressure altitude above 12,500’ MSL to 14,000’ MSL for that part of flight 30 minutes or more in duration
  • Must be used when Pressure altitude above 14,000’ MSL

Passengers

  • Must be provided above Pressure Altitude 15,000’ MSL
61
Q

When must an aircraft be equipped with an operable Mode C transponder?

A
  • All aircraft in Class A, B or C airspace
  • All aircraft in all airspace within 30NM of airports listed in Append D of FAR 91 (Class B airports), from surface up to 10,000’ MSL
  • All aircraft above the ceiling and lateral boundaries of Class B or C airspace up to 10,000’ MSL
  • All aircraft above 10,000’ MSL in the 48 contiguous states and DC, excluding airspace at and below 2500’ AGL
62
Q

When must aircraft be equipped and have approved terrain awareness and warning system?

A
  • All turbine airplanes built after 3/29/2002 that are US registered and carry six or more passengers
  • All turbine airplanes built before 3/29/2002 that are US registered and carry six or more passenger seats must have it installed by 3/29/2005.
63
Q

When may an aircraft not be flown in aerobatic flight?

A
  • Over any congested area of a city, town or settlement
  • Over an open air assembly of persons
  • Within the lateral confies of the surface area of Class B, C, D or E airspace
  • Within 4NM of the centerline of a Federal airway
  • Below 1500’ AGL
  • When flight vis is less than 3SM
64
Q

Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworth condition?

A

The owner or operator

65
Q

What must a new maintenance record being used for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the manufacturer include?

A
  • Previous changes required by airworthiness directives
  • Each change made as required by the Airworthiness Directive
66
Q

To act as Pilot in Command, what must the pilot have in their physical posession or readily available?

A
  • Current pilot certificate
  • Current medical certificate
  • Photo identification
67
Q

What are the requirements to remain current as a private pilot?

A
  1. Accomplish a flight review in an aircraft for which the pilot is rated, with a CFI within the preceding 24 months
  2. To carry passengers, must have 3 take-offs and landings within the _preceding 90 day_s
  3. For night operations with passengers must have made 3 take-offs and landings (to complete stop) in a period beginning 1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise.
68
Q

What are the various types and durations of medical certificates?

A

Third Class - For Students, recreational and private pilots.

  • Medical is required every 5 years if the person hasn’t reached their 40th birthday,
  • Otherwise, every 2 years.

Second Class - Commercial priviledges. Medical required every 12 months.

First Class - ATP priviledges. Medical required every 12 months

69
Q

What records or documents should be checked to determine the owner or operator has complied with required inspections and ADs?

A
  • Verify maintenance records (aircraft and engine logbooks)
  • Very maintenance personnel have made appropriate entries in log books indicating the aircraft may be put back into service.
70
Q

What regulations apply to an aircraft that has had alterations or repairs which may have substantially affected its operations in flight

A

May not carry passengers until an appropriately rated pilot:

  • Flies the aircraft
  • Makes an operational check of the maintenance performed or alterations made
  • Logs the flight in the aircraft records
71
Q

Can you legally fly an aircraft with inop flap position indicator?

A
  • No, all equipment installed must be operational, unless
  • It is covered by the Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
72
Q

What responsibilities should a pilot be familiar with regarding inop equipmement?

A

You can’t take off with inop instruments or equipment unless:

  • an approved MEL exists for the aircraft
  • A letter of authorization from the FAA is carried within the aircraft authorizing use of a MEL; and
  • Aircraft records available to the pilot must include an entry describing the inop instruments and equipment allowed by the MEL

Can’t take off with inop instruments or equipment without an approved MEL provided:

  • The flight is in a non-turbine aircraft for which no MEL has been developed
  • The inop equipment is not part of VFR-day requirements
  • The inop instruments and equipment are removed from the aircraft, the cockpit control placarded and the maintenance recorded, or
  • The inop instruments and equipment are de-activated and placarded “INOPERATIVE”
  • a determination by mechanic or rated pilot determine that operating with inop equipment is not hazardous to flight
73
Q

List the effects of stable and unstable air on clouds, turbulence, precipitation and visibility

A

Stable Unstable

Clouds: Stratiform Cumuliform

Turbulence: Smooth Rough

Precipitation: Steady Showery

Visibility: Fair to Poor Good

74
Q

Define Freezing level and how can you determine where that level exists?

A

Freezing level is the lowest altitude over a give location at which the air temperature is 0 degrees Centigrade.

Pilot should use icing forecasts and PIREPS to determine approximate freezing levels.

Area forecasts, AIRMETs, SIGMETs and low-level significant wx charts also show icing information.

75
Q

What conditions must exist for structural icing to occur

A

Visibile moisture and below freezing temperatures at the point the moisture strikes the aircraft.

76
Q

What action is recommended if you indavertently encounter ice?

A

Change course or altitude

Usually climb to a higher altitude if possible.

77
Q

Is frost considered a hazard to flight? Why?

A

Yes

It disrupts the flow of air over the wing thus causing a slow of airflow, resulting in a loss of lift.

78
Q

What factors must be present for a thunderstorm to form?

A
  • A source of lift
  • Unstable air
  • High moisture (temp/dew point spread is low)
79
Q

Why is fog a hazard to pilots?

A

Fog can reduce horizontal and vertical visibility to zero-zero.

It can occur instantly from a clear condition creating a hazard for operations.

80
Q

Why is wind shear a hazard to pilots?

A

Creates unexpected changes in direction and speed of the wind which affects performance of the aircraft.

Especially dangerous at low altitudes when your margin for error above stall is reduced.

81
Q

What is the primary method for obtaining a weather briefing?

A

Obtain a tailored briefing for your specific flight from Flight Service. Call 1-800-WX-BRIEF

82
Q

What types of weather briefings are available from Flight Service?

A
  • Standard Briefing - Request anytime you are planning a flight and have not received a prior briefing or have not received information through other mass dissemination sources (DUATS).
  • Abbreviated Briefing - Request when you only need supplemental information, need to update a previous briefing or need only one or two items
  • Outlook Briefing - Request when ETD is six or more hours away. For planning purposes only.
83
Q

What type airspace is depicted in the picture below?

A

Class B Airspace

Class B is depicted by a solid blue line.

84
Q

What type airspace is depicted in the picture below?

A

Class C Airspace.

Class C Airspace is depicted by the solid magenta line.

85
Q

What type airspace is depicted in the picture below?

A

Class D.

Class D is represented by the dashed Blue line.

86
Q

What type airspace is depicted in the picture below?

A

Class E Airspace.

Class E Airspace is represented by the brushed magenta line.

Class E surface area is represented by the dashed magenta line

87
Q

On an IFR approach plate, what is the meaning of the symbol below?

A

A dark triangle with a capital A in the center indicates standard alternate minimums are not applicable to this airport.

You must now look at the alternate minimums page to determine the published alternate minimums.

When the A is accompanied by an N/A, the airport may not be used as an alternate.

88
Q

On an IFR approach plate, what is the meaning of the T symbol below?

A

Other than standard IFR take-off miniums are published.

89
Q

Explain the meaning of the X and altitudes on the approach plate segment shown below.

A

The “X” or Maltese Cross, marks the Final Approach Fix and the beginning of the final approach course.

The altitudes with the bars shown above and below the number indicate a mandatory altitude which must be flown exactly.

90
Q

Explain the “V” and lightening bolt symbols in the approach plate segment below.

A

The V symbol is the Visual Descent Point which is the point from which you could make a normal descent to the runway from the minimum descent altitude.

The lightening bolt symbol is the Glideslope Intercept Altitude which indicates the minimum altitude to intercept the glideslope on a precision approach.

91
Q
A