FAMILY PLANNING (CompreGyne) Flashcards

1
Q

Among women who experience unintended pregnancy, what proportion are not using contraception?

A

More than half.

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2
Q

What are the most common contraceptive methods used in the U.S.?

A

Oral contraceptive pill (16%), female sterilization (15.5%), condoms (9.4%), LARC (7.2%), IUDs, and implants.

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3
Q

What are the two types of contraceptive effectiveness?

A

Typical use effectiveness and perfect use effectiveness.

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4
Q

What factors influence the difference between typical and perfect use effectiveness?

A

Complexity of correct use and user dependency.

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5
Q

What is ‘dual method use’ in contraception?

A

The use of two contraceptive methods for added protection.

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6
Q

What additional health benefit does combining a hormonal method with a condom provide?

A

Reduction of sexually transmitted infections (STIs).

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7
Q

What are Tier 1 contraceptive methods?

A

Highly effective methods with fewer than 1 pregnancy per 100 women per year, including IUDs, implants, and sterilization.

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8
Q

What does LARC stand for?

A

Long-acting reversible contraception.

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9
Q

What are the advantages of LARC methods?

A

Highly effective, reversible, minimal user error, high continuation rates, and cost-effective in the long term.

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10
Q

What types of LARC methods are available in the U.S.?

A

Etonogestrel subdermal implant (Nexplanon), Copper T380A IUD, and LNG-IUS.

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11
Q

Which contraceptive method is the most commonly used reversible method worldwide?

A

Intrauterine devices (IUDs).

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12
Q

What is the first-year failure rate for the Copper T 380A IUD and LNG-IUS?

A

Less than 1%.

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13
Q

What factors influence IUD pregnancy rates?

A

Skill of clinician inserting the device and correct high-fundal placement.

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14
Q

What is the cumulative pregnancy rate for the Copper T 380A IUD after 12 years?

A

1.7%.

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15
Q

What is the pregnancy rate for the LNG-IUS after 5 years of use?

A

About 1.1%.

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16
Q

What is the only copper-bearing IUD marketed in the U.S.?

A

Copper T 380A IUD (Paragard).

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17
Q

What is the approved duration of use for the Copper T 380A IUD in the U.S.?

A

10 years (effective for at least 12 years).

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18
Q

What is the daily release rate of levonorgestrel from the LNG-IUS (Mirena)?

A

About 20 μg per day.

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19
Q

What additional benefit does the LNG-IUS provide besides contraception?

A

Reduction of menstrual blood loss and treatment for excessive uterine bleeding.

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20
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action for all IUDs?

A

Inducing a local inflammatory reaction that creates a hostile environment for sperm.

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21
Q

How does the Copper IUD prevent pregnancy?

A

Increases inflammatory reaction, impairs sperm transport and viability, and prevents fertilization.

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22
Q

How does the LNG-IUS prevent pregnancy?

A

Thickens cervical mucus, decreases tubal motility, and creates a thin, inactive endometrium.

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23
Q

When can an IUD be safely inserted?

A

Any day of the cycle (if not pregnant), immediately postabortion, or immediately postpartum.

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24
Q

What is the risk of expulsion for an LNG-IUS inserted immediately postpartum following vaginal delivery?

A

Up to 24%.

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25
Q

Can the Copper IUD be used as emergency contraception?

A

Yes, within 5 days of unprotected intercourse.

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26
Q

What is the most common reason for discontinuing the Copper IUD?

A

Heavy or prolonged menses.

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27
Q

How does the LNG-IUS affect menstrual blood loss (MBL)?

A

Reduces MBL by 60%, with 50% experiencing amenorrhea after 24 months.

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28
Q

What is the risk of uterine perforation with IUD insertion?

A

1 in 1000 insertions.

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29
Q

What is the primary way to prevent uterine perforation during IUD insertion?

A

Straighten the uterine axis with a tenaculum and measure the cavity with a uterine sound.

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30
Q

What should be done if a patient with an IUD becomes pregnant?

A

Perform a pelvic ultrasound to confirm pregnancy location and remove the IUD if intrauterine.

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31
Q

Why should an IUD be removed in the case of an intrauterine pregnancy?

A

Leaving it increases the risk of spontaneous abortion threefold.

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32
Q

What is the increased risk of PID in the first 3 weeks after IUD insertion?

A

Six times higher than after 3 weeks.

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33
Q

Does routine use of prophylactic antibiotics before IUD insertion prevent PID?

A

No, studies show no significant change in infection risk.

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34
Q

What should be done if an IUD user tests positive for gonorrhea or chlamydia?

A

Treat the infection; IUD removal is usually unnecessary unless symptoms persist.

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35
Q

What are the six absolute contraindications to IUD insertion?

A

Pregnancy, acute PID, postpartum endometritis, suspected malignancy, unexplained bleeding, and an unretrieved previous IUD.

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36
Q

What historical event led to a decline in IUD use in the 1970s?

A

The complications associated with the Dalkon Shield.

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37
Q

What organization recommends LARC as first-line contraception?

A

The American Congress of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG).

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38
Q

What is the relationship between IUD use and the risk of endometrial or cervical carcinoma?

A

“IUD use is not associated with an increased incidence of endometrial or cervical carcinoma; rather it is associated with a reduction in risk.”

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39
Q

What potential fertility-sparing use does the LNG-IUS have?

A

“It has promising data for use as a fertility-sparing treatment for early-stage endometrial cancer.”

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40
Q

What is the most common contraceptive implant used in the United States?

A

“Nexplanon, which contains 68 mg of etonogestrel (ENG) and is approved for up to 3 years.”

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41
Q

What is the main mechanism of action of the Nexplanon implant?

A

“Ovulation, inhibition additional thickening of cervical mucus.”

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42
Q

How long is ovulation completely inhibited after Nexplanon insertion?

A

“At least 30 months.”

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43
Q

What is the most common reason for discontinuation of Nexplanon?

A

“Bleeding irregularities , accounting for about 60% of early removals.”

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44
Q

What are the different bleeding patterns observed with Nexplanon use?

A

“Amenorrhea (20%) , infrequent bleeding (27%), prolonged bleeding (12%), and frequent bleeding (6%).”

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45
Q

What is the most effective method of contraception among subdermal implants, IUDs, and sterilization?

A

“Subdermal implants are as effective or even superior to sterilization and IUDs.”

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46
Q

What is the most cost-effective contraceptive method?

A

“Vasectomy.”

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47
Q

How long after a vasectomy does it take for the ejaculate to become sperm-free?

A

“About 13 to 20 ejaculations.”

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48
Q

What is the success rate of vasectomy reversal (vas reanastomosis)?

A

“Approximately 50%.”

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49
Q

What is the most common method of contraception used by U.S. women over the age of 30?

A

“Female sterilization.”

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50
Q

What is the five-year cumulative failure probability of transabdominal sterilization according to the CREST study?

A

“13 per 1000 procedures.”

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51
Q

What female sterilization method had the lowest 10-year cumulative risk of failure in the CREST study?

A

“Postpartum partial salpingectomy (7.5 per 1000 procedures).”

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52
Q

What is the main advantage of vasectomy over tubal sterilization?

A

“Lower cost, can be performed in an office setting, and does not require entry into the peritoneal cavity.”

53
Q

What is the only injectable contraceptive available in the United States?

A

“Depo-Provera (DMPA) , given as 150 mg IM or 104 mg SC every 3 months.”

54
Q

What are the three mechanisms of action of DMPA?

A

“1) Inhibits ovulation , 2) Thickens cervical mucus, 3) Alters the endometrium causing atrophy.”

55
Q

What is the typical failure rate of DMPA?

A

“Around 6%.”

56
Q

What is the median delay to conception after discontinuing DMPA?

A

“9 to 10 months.”

57
Q

What is the major side effect of DMPA?

A

“Changes in menstrual cycle, with irregular bleeding initially and amenorrhea over time.”

58
Q

What percentage of DMPA users experience amenorrhea after one year?

A

“About 55%.”

59
Q

What effect does DMPA have on bone mineral density (BMD)?

A

“It decreases BMD during use but the loss is reversible after discontinuation.”

60
Q

What noncontraceptive health benefits does DMPA provide?

A

“Reduces iron deficiency anemia , PID, endometrial cancer risk, dysmenorrhea, ovulation pain, functional ovarian cysts, and may reduce seizure frequency in epilepsy patients.”

61
Q

What must be done before confirming sterility after a vasectomy?

A

“A semen analysis must confirm absence of sperm.”

62
Q

Which contraceptive method has been associated with a reduced risk of ovarian cancer?

A

“Tubal ligation.”

63
Q

What is the most common method of laparoscopic sterilization?

A

“Bipolar cautery, clip, or Silastic band (Falope ring).”

64
Q

What is the mechanism of action of the Essure device?

A

“It causes tissue ingrowth leading to permanent tubal occlusion.”

65
Q

When should a hysterosalpingogram be performed after Essure insertion?

A

“Three months after insertion to confirm tubal occlusion.”

66
Q

What is the recommended backup contraception duration after Essure placement?

A

“Until tubal occlusion is confirmed, typically three months.”

67
Q

What anesthesia options are available for transcervical sterilization?

A

“Local anesthesia , IV sedation, or general anesthesia.”

68
Q

What are the key clinical recommendations for DMPA use?

A

“Can be started anytime if pregnancy is ruled out , requires backup contraception if started >7 days into the cycle, and should be preceded by counseling on menstrual changes.”

69
Q

How soon after DMPA discontinuation do serum etonogestrel levels become undetectable?

A

“Within one week.”

70
Q

What are some alternative sterilization techniques used worldwide but not available in the U.S.?

A

“Jadelle (two-rod system , 75 mg levonorgestrel, 5 years), Sino-implant (two-rod system, 75 mg levonorgestrel), and Norplant (six-rod system, 216 mg levonorgestrel, 7 years).”

71
Q

What is the failure rate of transcervical sterilization based on a model predicting pregnancy probability?

A

“57 per 1000 in the first year.”

72
Q

What is the primary method of sterilization performed postpartum?

A

“Partial salpingectomy via infraumbilical minilaparotomy.”

73
Q

How soon can Nexplanon be inserted in relation to a woman’s menstrual cycle?

A

“Anytime, as long as she is not pregnant.”

74
Q

What effect does DMPA have on migraine headaches?

A

“No evidence suggests it increases the incidence or severity of migraines.”

75
Q

What is the most common side effect leading to discontinuation of DMPA?

A

“Irregular bleeding.”

76
Q

What is the major contraceptive effect of the progestin component in combination oral contraceptives?

A

Inhibition of ovulation

77
Q

What are the secondary contraceptive actions of progestins in combination oral contraceptives?

A

Thickening of cervical mucus and thinning of the endometrium

78
Q

What is the main role of estrogen in combination oral contraceptives?

A

Maintaining the endometrium and preventing unscheduled bleeding

79
Q

What is the main mechanism by which combination oral contraceptives suppress ovulation?

A

Inhibition of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) release from the hypothalamus

80
Q

What effect does estrogen have on follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)?

A

Prevents a rise in FSH

81
Q

What effect does progestin have on luteinizing hormone (LH)?

A

Inhibits the LH surge

82
Q

What are the three major types of oral contraceptive formulations?

A

Progestin-only pills (POPs), monophasic combination pills, multiphasic combination pills

83
Q

How do monophasic and multiphasic combination pills differ?

A

Monophasic pills contain the same hormone dose each day, while multiphasic pills contain varying doses

84
Q

What is the most widely used type of oral contraceptive?

A

Combination oral contraceptives (estrogen + progestin)

85
Q

What is the failure rate of oral contraceptives with perfect use?

86
Q

What is the failure rate of oral contraceptives with typical use?

87
Q

What is the most important pill to take in an oral contraceptive cycle?

A

The first pill of each cycle

88
Q

What should a woman do if she misses two or more oral contraceptive pills?

A

Take emergency contraception and use backup contraception

89
Q

What type of oral contraceptive regimen results in withdrawal bleeding only four times a year?

A

Extended cycle regimens (84 active pills followed by a 7-day hormone-free interval)

90
Q

What is the primary contraceptive mechanism of progestin-only pills (POPs)?

A

Thickening of cervical mucus and thinning of the endometrium

91
Q

Why must progestin-only pills (POPs) be taken at the same time every day?

A

To maintain effective blood levels and prevent ovulation

92
Q

What metabolic side effect of oral contraceptives is commonly reported but not supported by research?

A

Weight gain

93
Q

What is the primary risk associated with estrogen-containing oral contraceptives?

A

Increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE)

94
Q

Why should women with a history of idiopathic venous thromboembolism avoid estrogen-containing oral contraceptives?

A

Because estrogen increases VTE risk threefold

95
Q

What are absolute contraindications to oral contraceptive use?

A

History of thromboembolism, vascular disease, uncontrolled hypertension, active liver disease, hormone-sensitive cancers, smoking over age 35

96
Q

What are the two cancers that oral contraceptives significantly reduce the risk of?

A

Endometrial cancer and ovarian cancer

97
Q

Which type of cancer has a slight increased risk with prolonged oral contraceptive use?

A

Breast cancer (risk disappears after stopping use)

98
Q

What effect do oral contraceptives have on cervical cancer risk?

A

Prolonged use may slightly increase the risk of cervical cancer

99
Q

What effect do oral contraceptives have on acne?

A

They reduce acne by lowering androgen levels

100
Q

What effect do oral contraceptives have on menstrual blood loss?

A

They reduce blood loss, lowering the risk of iron deficiency anemia

101
Q

What is the term for bleeding that occurs when active oral contraceptive pills are taken?

A

Breakthrough bleeding

102
Q

What is the term for bleeding that occurs during the hormone-free interval?

A

Withdrawal bleeding

103
Q

What is the recommended action if a woman experiences prolonged breakthrough bleeding on continuous oral contraceptive use?

A

Discontinue active pills for 3 days, then restart

104
Q

Why should women over 35 who smoke avoid combination oral contraceptives?

A

Increased risk of myocardial infarction

105
Q

When should combination oral contraceptives be initiated postpartum in non-breastfeeding women?

A

No sooner than 6 weeks postpartum due to thromboembolism risk

106
Q

Why should women with migraines with aura avoid combination oral contraceptives?

A

Increased risk of stroke

107
Q

What are some non-contraceptive benefits of oral contraceptive use?

A

Reduced acne, decreased menstrual bleeding, reduced risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer

108
Q

How do oral contraceptives affect fertility after discontinuation?

A

Fertility returns quickly with no long-term effects on conception

109
Q

What cancer risk is significantly decreased in long-term oral contraceptive users?

A

Colorectal cancer

110
Q

What component of oral contraceptives is responsible for increasing the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE)?

111
Q

Which group of women should be screened for coagulation deficiencies before starting oral contraceptives?

A

Women with a family history of thrombotic events

112
Q

How does obesity affect the risk of venous thromboembolism in oral contraceptive users?

A

Obesity increases the risk of VTE, and extreme obesity (BMI >40) is a relative contraindication

113
Q

How do oral contraceptives affect prolactin-secreting adenomas?

A

They may mask symptoms, so OCs should not be used until a diagnosis is made

114
Q

What hormones does the contraceptive patch contain?

A

Ethinyl estradiol (75 μg) and norelgestromin (6 mg).

115
Q

How often should the contraceptive patch be applied?

A

One patch per week for 3 consecutive weeks, followed by 1 patch-free week.

116
Q

What are the four recommended application sites for the contraceptive patch?

A

Buttocks, upper outer arm, lower abdomen, upper torso (excluding breasts).

117
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action of the contraceptive patch?

A

Inhibition of gonadotropin release and prevention of ovulation.

118
Q

How does the contraceptive effectiveness of the patch compare to oral contraceptives?

A

Similar contraceptive effectiveness and metabolic effects as combination oral contraceptives.

119
Q

What is a potential concern regarding contraceptive patch effectiveness in overweight women?

A

Effectiveness may be slightly lower in women over 90 kg (198 lbs).

120
Q

How effective was the patch in the heaviest women in clinical trials?

A

Even in the heaviest women, the patch was 90% effective.

121
Q

What hormones does the contraceptive vaginal ring contain?

A

Ethinyl estradiol (2.7 mg) and etonogestrel (11.7 mg).

122
Q

How is the contraceptive vaginal ring used?

A

Inserted into the vagina for 21 days, removed for up to 7 days for withdrawal bleeding, then a new ring is inserted.

123
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action of the contraceptive vaginal ring?

A

Inhibition of gonadotropins and prevention of ovulation.

124
Q

What happens if the contraceptive vaginal ring is left in place beyond 21 days?

A

It can still inhibit ovulation for up to 6 weeks.

125
Q

How does bleeding control with the vaginal ring compare to oral contraceptives?

A

Less irregular bleeding than with oral contraceptives.

126
Q

What is the reported expulsion rate of the contraceptive vaginal ring?

A

Expulsion is uncommon.

127
Q

How do partners typically report acceptability of the vaginal ring?

A

High acceptability from both partners.

128
Q

Does obesity affect the efficacy of the contraceptive vaginal ring?

A

No significant difference in efficacy, with sufficient hormone levels to inhibit ovulation in obese women.