Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

M3 Drugs > Family Medicine > Flashcards

Family Medicine Flashcards

(112 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

1st line dyslipidemia plus concerning side wffects

A

Statins hmg coa reductase
Myopathy ( fatigue elevated creatinine kinase)
Hepatoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Intermittent claudication from peripheral arterial disease

A

Cilostazol + antiplatelet agent (aspirin or clopidegrel) + statin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What lipid lowering agent can cause itching

A

Niacin B3 ( increases prostaglandin synthesis). Give ibprofen half hour before taking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Doxazosin

A

Alpha one blocker, reduces systemic vascular resistance, decreases blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Prazosin

A

Alpha 1 blocker for htn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name 2 nonselective beta blockers

A

Labetalol
Carvedilol

Beta 1 on heart
Alpha 1 smooth vascular mm
Beta in kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Prevention for thromboembolism in a fib

A

Warfarin to inhibit synthesis of vitamin k dependent factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers like amlodipine cause systemic vascular vasodilation, which increases hydrostatic pressure in precapillary blood vessels and can lead to peripheral edema. What can be added to reduce edema?

A 
Ace inhibitor (pril)
Arbs (angiotensin ii receptor blockers ) (sartan)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Important contraindications for metformin

A 
Renal failure
Iodinated contrast medium
Heart failure
Sepsis
Alcoholism

Elderly and ppl with renal and cardiac insufficiency are high risk for metformin associated lactic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Amiodarone

A

Vtach and refractory AFib
Amiodarone has low negative inotropic effect so it can be used for ppl with low ejection fraction

Side effects thyroid probs, neuropathy, rare but serious: pulmonary fibrosis, chronic interstitial pneumonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

First line medical tx for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

Metoprolol, other beta blockers (rate control, longer diastole, less contractility and therefore o2 demand) plus avoid strenuous exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Prophylaxis for dental procedures for high risk patients

A

Oral amoxicillin 1 hour before

High risk pts for endocarditis include pts with prosthetic heart valves, hx of infectious endocarditis, unrepaired cyanotic heart defect

Viridins streptococci s. Sanguinis s. Mutans s. Mitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what do you give for beta blocker overdose (bradycardia, wheezing, hypoglycemia, hypotension, prolonged PR intervals)

A

try IV fluid resuscitation and atropine; if that doesn’t work, IV glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

antidote for cholinergic syndrome (SLUDGE-M)
Sweating/Salivation; Lacrimation, Urination, Diarrhea, Gastrointestinal distress, neuromuscular Excitation/Emesis - Miosis/Muscle spasms)

A

pralidoxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

histoplasmosis treatment

A

supportive for mild disease; oral itraconazole for chronic cavitation >1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

antibody against RSV (preventative for kids at high risk of severe complications)

A

palivizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pertussis treatment

A

macrolides (azithromyocin, erythromycin, clarithromycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

moa for macrolides; side effects

A

block bacterial protein synthesis at ribosomal subunit 50s

QT prolongation, GI distress, acute cholestatic hepatitis, exanthem, eosinophila

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

treatment for moderate to severe croup ( dyspnea and tachycardia at rest but airway compromise isn’t imminient, i.e. not hypoxic or bradycardic)

A

nebulized epinephrine + oral/parenteral glucosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

treatment for confirmed GAS tonsilitis

A

penicillin V

alt: macrolides, erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

treatment for acute exacerbations of asthma

A

low dose inhaled corticosteroid (eg budesonide) + formeterol (b2 agonist)

ICS (budesonide, flutacisone, beclomethasone, mometasone, triamcinolone) reduce inflammation and the beta 2 agonist formeterol dilates bronchial smooth mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

upper airway cough syndrome (post nasal drip syndrome)

A

first generation anti histamine e.g. oral diphenhydramine for 2 weeks to confirm diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

moa of amlodipine

A

inhibits Ltype calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle, reduces vascular resistance and thus blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

treatment for most common cause of septic arthritis

A

most common cause of septic arthritis is staph aureus. treat with penicillinase-resistant penicillines:
oxacillin
nafcillin
cefazolin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
treatment for gonococcal arthritis
IV ceftriaxone
26
treatment of septic arthritis in kiddos >3moths
cefazolin +nafcillin
27
a patient treated for salmonella gastritis has a positive Thompson test (lying in prone position; squeeze calf, plantar flexion is absent). What medicine should be immediately discontinued.
fluoroquinolone | positive Thompson test suggest achilles tendon rupture, a rare side effect of fluoroquinolones. discontinue immediately.
28
etanercept
TNF alpha inhibitor, a disease modifying antirheumatic drug that can be used for rheumatoid arthritis
29
first line long term therapy for moderate to severe rheumatoid arthritis
methotrexate (slow onset >6 weeks, use nsaids or glucocorticoids as bridge) methotrexate is a folic acid antagonist decreases dna synthesis and thus anti proliferative
30
what prophylaxis should be given when starting a high dose methotrexate
leucovorin (folinic acid); because methotrexate inhibits folic acid in dna synthesis, a side effect can be myelosuppression (macrocytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, leukocytopenia)
31
treatment for neonate with HSV (vesicular skin lesions, meningioencephalitis)
IV acyclovir
32
combination therapy for chronic hep C infection
ledipasvir/sofosbuvir AND ribavirin
33
syphilis treatment
penicillin G
34
treatment to prevent progression to deafness in congenital CMV
prolonged ganciclovir
35
tx for cholestasis of pregnancy?
ursodial (ursodeoxycholic acid)
36
what kind of birth defects are caused by valproic acid
neural tube defects like spina bifida
37
what kind of birth defect is caused by lithium exposure?
heart defect especially epstein's anomaly (posterior displacement of tricuspid valve, atrialization of right ventrical and enlargement of right atrium)
38
what is the anticoagulant of choice in pregnancy
heparin, low dose aspirin can also be used espeically for high risk preeclampsia but high doses must be avoided especially in third trimester. warfarin can cause abortion and intracranial hemorrhage so do not ever use in pregnancy
39
adrenal steroid inhibitors
ketoconazole, metyrapone
40
diuretic of choice for hyperaldosteronism
spironolactone (potassium sparing diuretic; hyperaldosteronism causes hypokalemia (weakness, constiation, arrhythmia) and hypernatremia and metabolic alkalosis)
41
drug to increase fertility in pcos pts
clomiphene
42
name three first line drugs for tx of painful diabetic neuropathy
Pregabalin (usually first choice) Amitriptyline (tricyclic antidepressant) Duloxetine or Venlafaxine (SNRIs)
43
moa of tramadol
opioid analgesic that also inhibits serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake
44
tx for graves disease
- thioamide (anti thyroid peroxidase, reduces t3 and t4) - beta blockers - radioiodine therapy - thyroidectomy
45
medical blockade for pheochromocytoma given prior to surgical resection
phenoxybenzamine (alpha blocker)
46
antithyroid drug for graves disease during the FIRST trimester
propylthiouracil (use methimazole during 2nd and 3rd trimester)
47
antithyroid drug for graves disease during second and third trimesters
methimazole
48
nefedipine
calcium channel blocker, antihypertensive
49
acarbose
alpha glucosidase inhibitor/blocks glucose uptake in small intestine used in DM2. can cause GI probs like flatulence. no risk of hypoglycemia. Do not use if patient has malabsorption, renal failure, or inflammatory bowel disease
50
sitagliptin
inhibits breakdown of GLP-1 by blocking DDP4; results in increased insulin release from B cells. Used in DM2. Can cause diarrhea, constipation, arthralgia, pancreatitis, renal failure.
51
saxagliptin
inhibits breakdown of GLP-1 by blocking DDP4; results in increased insulin release from B cells. Used in DM2. Can cause diarrhea, constipation, arthralgia, pancreatitis, renal failure.
52
miglitol
alpha glucosidase inhibitor/blocks glucose uptake in small intestine used in DM2. can cause GI probs like flatulence. no risk of hypoglycemia. Do not use if patient has malabsorption, renal failure, or inflammatory bowel disease
53
voglibose
alpha glucosidase inhibitor/blocks glucose uptake in small intestine used in DM2. can cause GI probs like flatulence. no risk of hypoglycemia. Do not use if patient has malabsorption, renal failure, or inflammatory bowel disease
54
repaglinide
DM2 med, can cause weight gain and hypoglycemia
55
nateglinide
DM2 med, can cause weight gain and hypoglycemia
56
glyburide
sulfonylurea used for DM2; increases insulin release. Causes weight gain and alcohol intolerance. can lead to dangerous hypoglycemia
57
glipizide
sulfonylurea used for DM2; increases insulin release. Causes weight gain and alcohol intolerance. can lead to dangerous hypoglycemia
58
dapagliflozin
DM2 drug, makes you pee out the glucose. Can lead to weight loss. often used in younger pts. decreases BP. Risk of UTIs and genital infections, dehydration and severe DKA
59
empagliflozin
DM2 drug, makes you pee out the glucose. Can lead to weight loss. often used in younger pts. decreases BP. Risk of UTIs and genital infections, dehydration and severe DKA
60
canagliflozin
DM2 drug, makes you pee out the glucose. Can lead to weight loss. often used in younger pts. decreases BP. Risk of UTIs and genital infections, dehydration and severe DKA
61
exenatide
GLP-1 receptor agonist that increases insulin release. Used in DM2. Weight loss and no risk of hypoglycemia. Risk of GI upset, pancreatitis, pancreatic cancer
62
_______________ can mask the warning signs of hypoglycemia and decrease blood glucose further
beta blockers
63
treatment for primary hyperaldosteronism
eplerenone, an aldosterone antagonist
64
treatment for uncomplicated pyleonephritis
fluoroquinolone like ciprofloxicin, outpatient, 7days; if need be you can initiate with single IV dose of ciprofloxicin, gentamycin, or ceftriaxone. Encourage fluids. Check on pt at 24-48 hrs, if no improvement get CT abdomen and tailor antibiotics to culture
65
treatment for urge incontinence
oxybutynin, avoid bladder irritants
66
first line treatment for BPH
alpha blockers: doxasozin terazosin tamsulosin
67
second line treatment for BPH if alpha blockers dont relieve symptoms
finesteride, dutasteride, or other 5 alpha reductase inhibitor
68
a first line treatment for functional constipation
polyethylene glycol, lactulose
69
contraindications of pegylated IFN alpha for chronic hep B
``` autoimmune disorders (IFN alpha upregulates the immune system), also severe cardiac problems, uncontrolled seizures, uncontrolled psych issues instead: tenofovir, entecavir ```
70
first line for mild ulcerative colitis
mesalamine
71
tx for tropical sprue
tetracycline + folic acid
72
triple therapy for H pylori eradication
PPIs (-prazole) at 2x dose plus clarithromycin + amoxicillin or metronidazole
73
first line for lyme disease in children <8
amoxicillin
74
Active TB regimin
isoniazid, ethambutol, pyranizamide, and rifampin for 2 months followed by 4 months of isoniazid and rifampin remember to give pyridoxine with isoniazid to prevent perpheral neuropathy from sideroblastic anemia (B6 deficiency because the isoniazid competes with pyridoxine, B6).
75
prophylaxis against P. falciparum in pregnant women
mefloquin (chloroquin is also safe but chloroquin resistance is widespread)
76
what do you add to acute leukemia treatment if the patient has the philadelphia translocation (9;22)?
BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitor like imatinib
77
management of antiphospholipid syndrome
acute: low molecular weight heparin; chronic prophylaxis: mild cases - aspirin, severe cases-- warfarin unless they want to be pregnant then low molecular weight heparin plus aspirin
78
tx for CD 20+ B cell non hodgkin lymphoma
rituximab
79
major risk of antineoplastic agent bleomyocin
pulmonary fibrosis
80
trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole can cause _______, predisposing pts to bacterial infection
agranulocytosis
81
ABVD therapy
adriamycin (myelosupp/cardiotox) (or doxorubicin) bleomycin (pulmonary fibrosis) vinblastin (myelosuppression) dacarbazin
82
adverse effects of methimazole (antithyroid drug)
agranulocytosis (stop right away!) pruritic rash teratogen
83
what drug would cause hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, decreased reflexes, autonomic instability like HTN and tachycardia, altered mental status, elevated transaminases, creatinine kinase, and leukocytosis?
high potency typical antipsychotics like haloperidol but also low potency atypical antipsychotics and antiemetics like metoclopromide ; over 1-3 days
84
glimepiride
sulfonylurea; stimulates insulin secretion | weight gain, hypoglycemia risk esp if kidney disease; may increase cv risk; may stop working after a couple years
85
glyburide
sulfonylurea; stimulates insulin secretion | weight gain, hypoglycemia risk esp if kidney disease; may increase cv risk; may stop working after a couple years
86
glipizide
sulfonylurea; stimulates insulin secretion | weight gain, hypoglycemia risk esp if kidney disease; may increase cv risk; may stop working after a couple years
87
empagliflozin
sodium glucose cotransporter 2 inhibiot--> increased urinary excretion of glucose **reduces overal CV morality. weight loss but also risk of dehydration, UTI/mycotic genital infection, bone loss & fracture
88
canagliflozin
sodium glucose cotransporter 2 inhibiot--> increased urinary excretion of glucose weight loss but also risk of dehydration, UTI/mycotic genital infection, bone loss & fracture DKA can occur with stress
89
dapagliflozin
sodium glucose cotransporter 2 inhibiot--> increased urinary excretion of glucose weight loss but also risk of dehydration, UTI/mycotic genital infection, bone loss & fracture DKA can occur with stress
90
nateglinide, repaglinide
increases insulin secretion **weight gain, risk of hypoglycemia
91
linagliptin
DPP-4 inhibitorneutral re weight
92
sitagliptin
dipeptidyl-peptidase 4 inhibitor neutral re weight
93
saxagliptin
DPP4 inhibitor neutral re: weight; may increase hospitalization for HF
94
alogliptin
DPP4 inhibitor neutral re:weight; may increase hospitalization for HF
95
pioglitazone
``` a thiazolidedione; increases glucose uptake by fat and mm; decreases hepatic glucose production **weight gain may reduce stroke risk good for nonalcoholic steatohepatitis **do not use in CHF risk of fractures ```
96
rosiglitazone
``` thiazolidedione; incrases glucose uptake by fat and mm and decrease hepatic gluc production **weight gain **do not use in CHF may reduce stroke risk risk of fractures ```
97
colosevelam hydrocholoride
bile acid sequesterant; decreases LDL! may cause constipation
98
acarbalose
alpha glucosidase inhibitor for DM2; gi symptoms!
99
miglitol
alpha glucosidase inhibitor for DM2, gi symptoms!
100
pramlintide
DM2 med, **weight loss, increased satiety, GI effects
101
bromocriptine mesylate
D2 agonist used in DM2. may have CV benefits . can cause nausea, rhinitis, fatigue, orthostatic hypotension. **do not use for pts taking antipsychotics
102
exenatide
glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonist, injectable. increases insulin secretion/decreases glucagon secretion; slows gastric emptying and increases satiety *weight loss; GI symptoms do not use if CrCl<30
103
liraglutide
glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonist, injectable. increases insulin secretion/decreases glucagon secretion; slows gastric emptying and increases satiety * weight loss; GI symptoms * decreased CV mortality
104
albiglutide
glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonist, injectable. increases insulin secretion/decreases glucagon secretion; slows gastric emptying and increases satiety *weight loss; GI symptoms
105
dulaglutide
glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonist, injectable. increases insulin secretion/decreases glucagon secretion; slows gastric emptying and increases satiety *weight loss; GI symptoms
106
semaglutide
glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonist, injectable. increases insulin secretion/decreases glucagon secretion; slows gastric emptying and increases satiety *weight loss; GI symptoms
107
symptomatic management of diabetic neuropathy pain
venlafaxine (SNRI)
108
immunmodulator for severe, poor controlled asthma (step 5-6)
omalizumab (xolair); anti IgE
109
name 3 leukotriene receptor antagonist (alternatives for steps 2-4 of asthma control)
montekulast, zafirlukast, zileuton
110
name three short acting beta 2 agonists
albuterol, levalbuterol, pirbuterol. Given prn for step 1; quick relief
111
name three long acting beta 2 agonists + inhaled corticoid steroids
formeterol +budesonide (symbicort) fluticasone + salmetoral (advair) mometasone _ formeterol (dulera)
112
omeprazole
proton pump inhibitor

M3 Drugs (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions