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Hazmat State Test > Fallon 1 > Flashcards

Fallon 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the standards set by OSHA?

A

OSHA standards apply to all workplaces

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2
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the regulations set by the EPA?

A

EPA regulations apply primarily to hazardous wastes

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3
Q

Which of the following organizations issues mandatory standards?

A

OSHA

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4
Q

The OSHA standard that protects workers in hazardous waste operations and emergency response is?

A

29 CFR 1920.120

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5
Q

OSHA’s Hazard Communication standard is:

A

A worker right-to-know law

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6
Q

Which of the following organizations issues hazard classes & divisions?

A

DOT

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7
Q

UN identification numbers indicate that a chemical may be shipped:

A

Internationally

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8
Q

Hazardous materials that must always be placarded, regardless of quantity, are:

A

Table 1 materials

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9
Q

Title 49 in the Code of Federal Regulations includes all:

A

DOT Regulations

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10
Q

The superfund Amendment and Reauthorization Act is administered by:

A

EPA

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11
Q

How can DOT subsidiary placards be distinguished from primary placards?

A

Subsidiary placards do not carry hazard class or UN numbers

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12
Q

Bulk containers for liquids hold a maximum capacity of more than:

A

118.9 gallons

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13
Q

An “MC 331” is a:

A

Pressure cargo tank

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14
Q

Non-pressure cargo tanks have:

A

Elliptical cross-sections and flat heads

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15
Q

Caustic Soda is frequently transported in:

A

Covered hopper cars

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16
Q

Non-pressure cargo tanks primarily carry:

A

Petroleum products

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17
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding shipping papers:

A

DOT requires that MSDSs accompany shipping papers

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18
Q

Non-pressure tank containers transport liquid & solid materials at pressures up to:

A

100 psig

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19
Q

Tube trailers carry:

A

Pressurized gases

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20
Q

Which of the following best describes the most common type of tank container?

A

Single compartment, stainless steel tank in metal frame

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21
Q

Medical surveillance for emergency responders is part of which federal regulation?

A

29 CFR 1910.120

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22
Q

The primary route of chemical exposure for firefighters is:

A

Inhalation

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23
Q

Secondary contamination refers to:

A

Contamination from someone who has already been contaminated

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24
Q

Which of the following statements is not true of the skin?

A

Water-soluble substances are more easily absorbed by the skin

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25
Q

Which of the following items will provide minimum shielding from gamma radiation?

A

Several inches of lead

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26
Q

Under federal regulations, medical surveillance is required for:

A

Members of hazardous materials teams only

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27
Q

Biological monitoring measures:

A

The amount of an agent in your body

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28
Q

Simple asphyxiants displace oxygen in the air. Chemical asphyxiants:

A

Prevent the body from using inhaled oxygen

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29
Q

Etiologic means that an agent is:

A

Infectious

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30
Q

Which of the following organs is considered the primary “transfer point” for chemicals in the body?

A

The lungs

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31
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the hazard identification phase of pre-incident planning?

A

Transportation routes as well as fixed sites should be identified

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32
Q

What influence does topography have on the spread of a poisonous gas that is heavier than air?

A

It may either increase or prevent the spread of the gas

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33
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding weather conditions?

A

Cold temperatures have little effect because of physical demands in firefighting

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34
Q

The hazard identification phase of pre-incident planning primarily involves:

A

Gathering information

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35
Q

Facilities that use only very small quantities of hazardous materials:

A

May not need to follow government reporting procedures

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36
Q

What is the next step in a pre-incident plan once you have collected all pertinent information?

A

Develop a comprehensive plan of action

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37
Q

If after pre-planning a facility, you find you would not have sufficient resources to respond to an incident, your department should:

A

Take preventive measures

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38
Q

Generic pre-incident plans can be developed for:

A

Each pre-incident plan must be site specific

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39
Q

Which of the following statements is not true of pre-incident planning?

A

A site visit may not be necessary if previous pre-incident plans are available

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40
Q

The right response to an incident is to:

A

Work within limitations of resources & training

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41
Q

Air is assigned a vapor density of:

A

1

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42
Q

If a material is “water miscible”, it is:

A

Infinitely soluble in water

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43
Q

Substances with high vapor pressures are:

A

More likely to evaporate

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44
Q

The rate of a chemical reaction can usually be increased by:

A

Increasing temperature, concentration, and pressure

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45
Q

Vapors and gases with molecular weights greater than 29 tend to:

A

Sink in air

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46
Q

Although specific gravity has no unit of measure, it does have a value relative to:

A

The weight of water

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47
Q

Ignition temperature” refers to:

A

The temperature at which a material burns without a flame

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48
Q

A “pyrophoric” material describes a material that spontaneously ignites in air at or below:

A

130 F

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49
Q

All gases have vapor pressure higher than:

A

760 mm Hg

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50
Q

A chemical’s “explosive limit” depends on its:

A

Concentration

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51
Q

Which of the following is the best definition of response time as it applies to detection devices?

A

The period between beginning measurement & obtaining a reading

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52
Q

Detector tubes are used to:

A

Measure the concentration of know gases, vapors, & unknown hydrocarbons

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53
Q

Alpha & beta radiation survey meters usually display readings in:

A

Counts per minute

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54
Q

On a combustible gas indicator with a reading in % LEL, the reading indicates 0-100% of:

A

The lower explosive limit

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55
Q

The most common calibration gases for combustible gas indicators are:

A

Methane, pentane

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56
Q

Which of the following is true of direct read-out instruments?

A

Direct read-out instruments provide measurements in real time

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57
Q

Which of the following instruments should you use in a flammable atmosphere?

A

Instruments marked “intrinsically safe” and “UL” or “FM”

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58
Q

Which of the following is the best definition of relative response as it applies to detection devices?

A

The instrument’s reading compared to the calibration gas

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59
Q

If you are monitoring a gas with an LEL of 2% and your combustible gas indicator reads 50% LEL, what is the actual percentage of gas in the atmosphere?

A

1%

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60
Q

An atmosphere is assumed to be oxygen-enriched if concentrations of oxygen are greater than:

A

23.5%

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61
Q

Vapor-protective clothing for hazardous chemical emergency response is described in:

A

NFPA 1991

62
Q

Chemical protective clothing is specifically designed to:

A

Prevent or limit skin exposure

63
Q

The process by which a chemical moves through a material by molecular means is called:

A

Permeation

64
Q

Which type of respirator should be worn in emergency response?

A

Positive pressure self contained breathing apparatus

65
Q

Which of the following organizations assigns protection factors to respirators?

A

NIOSH

66
Q

The longest approved air line for supplied air respirators is:

A

300 feet

67
Q

Support function garments should never be used for:

A

Emergency response

68
Q

Liquid splash-protective clothing for hazardous chemical emergency response is described in:

A

NFPA 1992

69
Q

Break though time refers to the time it takes for a chemical to:

A

Permeate protective clothing

70
Q

Which type of resistance data is most valuable when using vapor-protective clothing?

A

Permeation

71
Q

When must a decontamination area be set up?

A

Before personnel enter the Hot Zone

72
Q

In emergency decontamination, which of the following is a primary concern?

A

Prevent severe injury

73
Q

If contaminants are corrosive, skin an mucous membranes must be flushed with:

A

Large amount of water

74
Q

Non-soluble contaminants should be removed from the skin with:

A

Liquid soap & water

75
Q

Although other factors are involved, protective clothing is more likely to the permeated if:

A

The chemical is highly concentrated

76
Q

“Deactivation” is the use of cleaning agents, neutralizers, or disinfectants for
decontamination and is generally used for:

A

Organic compounds

77
Q

In the decontamination process for liquid splash-protective garments, the SCBA face piece is removed:

A

After the splash suit is removed

78
Q

How should you decontaminate a contaminated entry team member who experience heat stress in the Hot Zone?

A

Perform an emergency decontamination, then remove the clothing

79
Q

Exposure to which type of chemical automatically prohibits the reuse of PPE?

A

Carcinogens

80
Q

PPE contamination levels can only be determined by:

A

Destructive testing

81
Q

Most 55-gallon drums have openings in the top fitted with plugs & caps. These opening are called:

A

Bungs

82
Q

The best type of control technique for trapping solid materials floating on running water is:

A

None of the above

83
Q

Oxygen gas would most likely be transported in which type of tank car?

A

High pressure tube car

84
Q

Which of the following is usually built to contain releases on land?

A

Dikes

85
Q

Which of the following statements is true of over packing?

A

Over pack drums must be marked

86
Q

Which of the following control techniques are firefighters usually responsible for?

A

None of the above

87
Q

Which of the following control techniques involves releasing gas vapors into the atmosphere to reduce tank pressure?

A

Venting

88
Q

Which of the following control items is often used as an absorbent?

A

Clay

89
Q

Cargo tanks can be constructed from any of the following materials. Which one is softest & will puncture most easily?

A

Aluminum

90
Q

Which type of tank car is the most common?

A

Non-pressure tank cars

91
Q

An incident management system (I.M.S.) should be established when:

A

The first responding unit arrives

92
Q

Which of the following function is not a command staff position?

A

Logistic

93
Q

In a I.M.S., which of the following statements best describe the function of the
Operations function?

A

Operation is responsible for management of tactical operations to stabilize &
control the incident

94
Q

A rest & rehabilitation unit at a large-scale incident would fall under the:

A

Logistics function

95
Q

During a hazardous materials incident, transfers of command should take place:

A

As necessary

96
Q

The Integrated Emergency Management System is implemented at large scale incidents by the:

A

FEMA

97
Q

In addition to Incident Command, what are the four primary divisions at a hazardous materials incident?

A

Operations, Planning, Logistic, Finance

98
Q

Which of the following statements is true of the Incident Safety Officer?

A

The incident Safety Officer can halt operations if unsafe practices occur

99
Q

Coordination of communication at a hazardous materials incident is the responsibility of which division?

A

Logistic

100
Q

Which organization mandates the use of Incident Command System at hazardous materials incidents?

A

OSHA

101
Q

How should a seriously injured patient who has been contaminated with a toxic chemical be decontaminated?

A

The patient should undergo gross decontamination prior to medical treatment

102
Q

How should burns from alkali corrosive agents be treated?

A

The chemical should be thoroughly flushed and the burn covered with a dry
dressing

103
Q

Which of these asphyxiants carries the highest risk of secondary contamination?

A

Cyanide

104
Q

The acronym DUMBELS is associated with symptoms produced by exposure to which of the following insecticides?

A

Organophosphates

105
Q

The acronym DUMBELS is associated with symptoms produced by exposure to which of the following insecticides?

A

Rapid, strong pulse and flushed, dry skin

106
Q

Exposure to hydrogen fluoride can depletion of blood:

A

Calcium

107
Q

Carboxyhemoglobin occurs when carbon monoxide inhibits:

A

The blood’s ability to carry oxygen

108
Q

Cyanide is easily absorbed through:

A

All three routes of exposure

109
Q

How should hypothermic patients be treated?

A

The patient should be warmed slowly by placing heat packs close to the body

110
Q

Which of the following chemicals can produce methemoglobinemia?

A

Nitrates

111
Q

Non-soluble contaminates should be removed from the skin with:

A

Liquid, soap & water

112
Q

A DOT 407 is a:

A

Low pressure cargo tank

113
Q

The Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL) is defined as:

A

The average airborne concentration of potentially toxic substance to which an
employee may be exposed for an 8 hour day.

114
Q

In emergency gross decontamination, the primary concern is to:

A

Prevent severe injury

115
Q

When used as weapon of mass destruction, biological agents can be dispersed as:

A

All of the above (solids, liquids, & gases)

116
Q

Breakthrough time refers to the time it takes for a chemical to:

A

Permeate protective clothing

117
Q

Chlorine A kits are designed to help you handle leaks from:

A

100 and 150 lb. Cylinders

118
Q

The warfare agent SARIN is an example of a:

A

Nerve agent

119
Q

The “persistence” of a product refers to:

A

The rate at which a product evaporates

120
Q

When used as a terrorist weapon, which of the following chemicals is considered a blood agent?

A

Hydrogen cyanide

121
Q

Cryogenic liquids are generally stored at maximum temperature of:

A

Minus 130 F

122
Q

Diazinon & malathion are examples of which type of insecticide?

A

Organophosphates

123
Q

A chlorine B kit is designed to handle leaks in:

A

Ton containers

124
Q

An MC 338 cargo tank carries:

A

Cryogenic materials

125
Q

Based on its molecular weight, which one of the following gases will tend to rise in air?

A

Acetylene(MW=26)

126
Q

DOT hazard class 5 includes:

A

Oxidizers

127
Q

When doffing chemical protective clothing, the last item removed should be:

A

SCBA

128
Q

When a hazardous material contains multiple hazards, which types of labels should be used on the packaging?

A

Labels for the primary hazards & at least one subsidiary label for a secondary hazard

129
Q

Hydrocarbons containing a molecular structure in the form of a ring are known as:

A

Aromatic hydrocarbons

130
Q

Photoionization detectors (PIDs) are generally used to detect:

A

Organic vapors in low ppm ranges

131
Q

Non-pressure Type I intermodal tank containers transport liquid & solid materials at pressures up to:

A

100 psig

132
Q

If you are exposed to a hazardous material, OSHA requires that your medical records be kept for how many years after you leave your job:

A

30 years

133
Q

Approximately how much of a displacing gas is needed to drop oxygen concentrations by 1%?

A

5%

134
Q

Inorganic peroxides act as both oxidizers and:

A

Corrosives

135
Q

Compressed gases are defined by DOT as having an absolute pressure exceeding:

A

40 psi at 70 F

136
Q

Of the following heat-related stresses, which symptom indicates the most serious condition?

A

Flushed, dry skin

137
Q

The types of weapon most commonly used by terrorists are:

A

Explosives

138
Q

DOT hazards class 4 includes:

A

Flammable solids

139
Q

How should you decontaminate a contaminated entry team member who experiences heat stress in the hot zone?

A

Perform an emergency decon, then remove the clothing

140
Q

Which type of respirator should be worn in emergency response?

A

Positive pressure SCBA

141
Q

The first step in conducting pre-incident planning for fixed site is:

A

Conducting a site visit

142
Q

MC 306/DOT 406 cargo tanks generally carry what type of products?

A

Fuels

143
Q

In the decontamination process for liquid splash protective garments, the SCBA face piece is removed:

A

After the splash suit is removed

144
Q

Which of the following is not an example of a containment technique?

A

Diking

145
Q

Which of the following must be placarded regardless of the amount being transported?

A

Table 1 materials

146
Q

You must know the different type of cargo tankers & what they look like:
a. MC 306 / DOT 406
b. MC 307 / DOT 407
c. MC 312 / DOT 412
d. MC 331
e. MC 338

A

a. MC 306 / DOT 406 Non-pressure
b. MC 307 / DOT 407 Low-pressure
c. MC 312 / DOT 412 Corrosive
d. MC 331 Pressure
e. MC 338 Cryogenic

147
Q

You must know the different type of railroad tank cars & what they look like:

A

a. Non-pressure
b. Pressure
c. Corrosive
d. Cryogenic

148
Q

You must know the different types of fixed storage tanks & what they look like:

A

a. Flat roof
b. Dome roof
c. Floating flat roof
d. Floating dome roof
e. Cone roof
f. Cryogenic tank

149
Q

A chemical with a PH less than 7 is alkaline; a chemical with a pII greater than 7 is acidic.

A

False

150
Q

A product with a Class Division number of 5.2 at the bottom of the placard would be considered an:

A

Organic peroxide

Hazmat State Test (1 decks)

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