fall final Flashcards

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1
Q

what is the fluid mosaic model?

A

the structure of the cell membrane

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2
Q

what are the 6 functions of proteins?

A

-maintain cell shape
-coordinate changes inside and outside the cell
-receptors for chemical messengers from other cells ;
-enzymes that catalyze reactions;
-glycoproteins are involved in cellular recognition
-the transport of substances across the membrane.

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3
Q

what is a selectively permeable cell?

A

cell mem that allows some substances to cross
more easily than others

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4
Q

what is diffusion?

A

passive transport, requires no energy, the movement of
a substance down its concentration gradient from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration

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5
Q

what is facilitated diffusion?

A

passive transport of a
substance across a membrane through a specific transport protein, down its concentration gradient.

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6
Q

What is aquaporin?

A

a pore forming prtein that allows for fast diffusion

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7
Q

what is osmosis?

A

the movement of water across a sleetivly permeable mem until equalibrium

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8
Q

what is hypertonic?

A

a higher concentration outside of the cell relative to the inside of the cell (crenates, loss of water)

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9
Q

what is hypotonic?

A

lower concentration outside of the cell, relative to the inside of the cell (bloating)

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10
Q

what is isotonic?

A

the same concentration
inside and outside of the cell

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11
Q

Define osmoregulation

A

describes how cells
control this water balance to maintain homeostasis

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12
Q

What is active transport? where does it get its energy from? What is actually transferred to the transport protein to give it energy?

A

substances move against CG and require energy.
ATP supplies energy
the phospahte group in ATP is transfered to get energy

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13
Q

In active transport do substances move up or down their concentration gradient?

A

move aginst CG from low CG to high CG

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14
Q

what is endocytosis?

A

get things from the outside of the cell to the inside
plasma membrane forms a vesicle surrounding
substances on the outside of the cell and this forms a vesicle within the cell

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15
Q

what are the three kinds of endocytosis?

A

-phagocytosis; cell eating, pseudopodia creates vacuole to be digested by a lysosoome
-pintocytosis; cell drinking, not specific, create small vesicles to get fluid from extracellular matrix that is brought into cell and does not get dissolved.
-receptor mediated; very selective, coated in proteins that
specifically bind particular molecules from their surroundings, these are pinched off to form vesicles within the cytoplasm.

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16
Q

what are the 2 basic forms of energy?

A

kinetic and potenial energy.
kinetic- the energy of motion like riding a bike, heat and light as well
potential- energy that matter possesses as a result of its location or structure, energy waiting to be used, like water held back behind a dam

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17
Q

what is Thermodynamics?
The First Law of Thermodynamics states:
The Second Law of Thermodynamics states:

A

the study of energy transformations.
1- law of energy conservation, Energy can be transferred and transformed, but it cannot be created or destroyed
2- the entropy law, all things tend towards max randomness

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18
Q

what is the primary difference between exergonic and endergonic reactions?

A

exergonic- reactants contain more energy than the products and the reaction releases
energy to the environment
endergonic- create products that are higher in energy, from reactants that are lower in energy

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19
Q

If the energy of the products is less than the energy of the reactants, the reaction must be..

A

exergonic

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20
Q

If the energy of the products is more than the energy of the reactants, the reaction must be..

A

endergonic

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21
Q

What is metabolism?

A

all exergonic and endergonic reactions in the body

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22
Q

what is energy coupling?

A

he use of energy released from exergonic reactions to drive essential endergonic reactions.

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23
Q

What is ADP and ATP?

A

ATP- cell energy, made of adenine, ribose, and 3 phosphate groups
ADP- what ATP becomes after energy is released (loss of a P group)

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24
Q

What is phosphorylation

A

he transfer of a phosphate group to another molecule. This
energizes the molecule so it can be used later in cellular work.

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25
Q

What is the energy barrier of a chemical reaction called and what do enzymes do to this barrier?

A
  • activation energy, the amount of energy that reactants must absorb before a chemical reaction will start
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26
Q

What is an active site on an enzyme? What would happen to the active site if the protein became denatured?

A

-The part of an enzyme where a substrate binds by groove
-stop functioning

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27
Q

What is a cofactor? what is a coenzyme?

A
  • non protein molecule required for functioning of enzymes (binds to active site) like iron
  • a cofactor that is organic molecule like folic acid
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28
Q

what is tonicity

A

the ability of a solution surrounding a cell to cause that cell to lose or gain water

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29
Q

what is exocytosis?

A

exporting large substances out of cell

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30
Q

what are competitive inhibitors?

A

the inhibitor binds to the active site and competes w substrate for the active site and slows rate of reaction

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31
Q

what are noncompetitive inhibitors?

A

binds to the enzyme at another location, referred to as an allosteric site so it changes the shape of the enzyme so that the
active site no longer fits the substrate

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32
Q

what is a proenzyme?

A

enzymes in the body are produced in an inactive form that eventually will be active.
protects cell from digesting itself

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33
Q

what is feedback inhabition?

A

a method of metabolic control in which the product of a metabolic pathway acts as an inhibitor of an enzyme within the pathway and shuts off its production when enough is made.

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34
Q

what is cellular respiration?

A

exergonic, a series of chemical reactions that break down glucose to produce ATP

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35
Q

when is a substrate oxidized?

A

when a substrate LOSES an electron and increases oxygen (lose H)

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36
Q

when is a substrate reduced?

A

when it GAINS electrons and H

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37
Q

what is a redox reaction?

A

a chem reaction that involves the transfer of electrons

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38
Q

What is NAD and what is its primary function in cellular respiration?

A

nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide is a
coenzyme made from vit niacin, used as an electron shuttle, accepting electrons in redox reactions and becoming reduced to NADH + H+

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39
Q

what is FAD?

A

Flavin adenine dinucleotide is another electron acceptor, becomes reduced to FADH2, so also carries/transfers 2 electrons

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40
Q

what is the final electron acceptor in cellular respiration?

A

oxygen

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41
Q

what are the steps in order of cell resp?

A

Glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, the Citric Acid Cycle, and
Oxidative Phosphorylation

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42
Q

what is glycolysis?

A

occurs in cytoplasm and doesnt require oxygen
6 glucose is broken down to ATP
adds 2 phosphate to 6 glucose on both ends
splits glucose in half called GP3
END PRODUCTION- 2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, 2 NADH, 2 H

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43
Q

what is citric acid cycle?

A

happens in mito matrix
2 carbons enter and make citrate
NAD reduced to NADH which releases Co2

END PRODUCT- 4 Co2, 2 ATP, 6NADH, 6H, 2 FADH

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44
Q

what is pyuvate oxidation?

A

happens in mitochandrial matrix
the pyruvate formed at the end of glycolysis enters the mitochondrion and is oxidized to become Acetyl Co-enzyme A (Acetyl CoA)
END PRODUCTS- acetyl CoA - 2Co2, 2 NADH, 2 H

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45
Q

what is total chem outcome of cell resp? how many total electrons?

A

4 ATP + 10 NADH + 10 H + 2 FADH
24 electrons total

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46
Q

During the Citric Acid Cycle, how many NAD+ and FAD are reduced and how many ATP are made per Acetyl CoA/ glucose?

A

6 NADH and 2 FADH2
2 ATP

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47
Q

Does the citric acid cycle consume oxygen?

A

no

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48
Q

what is oxidative phosphorylation? what are the 3 proteins?

A

elec transport
in mito matrix
1- gets elecs from NADH and pumps them across mem against CG
3 and 4

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49
Q

Hydrogen ions fall down their concentration gradient through a particular enzyme that is used add a phosphate group to ADP to make ATP, what is the name of the name of this enzyme?

A

ATP synthase, thru process called chemiosis phosphoralyzes ADP to ATP and can generate up to 28 ATP

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50
Q

How many ATP can be produced every second in a working muscle cell

A

10 million ATP

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51
Q

what would happen without oxygen in cell resp?

A

This whole system would back up and the production of the majority of your ATP would stop – this would starve your cells of energy

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52
Q

How does NADH + H+ get oxidized back to NAD if there is no oxygen?

A

lactic acid fermentation, pyruvate is reduced to lactate (lactic acid) and can make ATP
and ethanol/Alcohol fermentation, yeasts use this as they convert pyruvate to CO2 and
ethanol to oxidize NADH

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53
Q

what are faculative anaerobes?

A

yeast, They make ATP either by fermentation or oxidative phosphorylation,
depending on whether oxygen is available or not…but will always use oxidative phosphorylation if
given the option as it releases far more ATP

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54
Q

what are obligat aneieorobes?

A

oxygen is toxic to them and they need 16x more glucose to survive

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55
Q

In photosynthesis carbon dioxide becomes ______ to glucose and water becomes _______ to oxygen
what about in respiration?

A

reduced
oxidized

glucose is oxidized to carbon dioxide and oxygen is reduced to water

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56
Q

what is the stroma? granum? thylakoid membrane?

A

-in the mito matrix
-the stacks of thylakoid mems
- help absorb sunlight in order for photosynthesis contain the chlorophyll

57
Q

What are stomata and what are they for?

A

regulate gas exchange between the plant and environment and control of water loss

58
Q

where do light dependent reactions occur in chloroplasts? calvin cycle?

A
  • thylakoid membrane and result in light energy being converted to chemical energy with the release of oxygen
    -occurs in stroma
59
Q

During the light reactions oxygen is released, where does the oxygen come from?

A

water

60
Q

The conversion of carbon dioxide into sugar during the Calvin Cycle is called what?

A

carbon fixation. this is the first step

61
Q

does light with shorter wavelengths have more or less energy than longer wavemlengths?

A

shorter wavelengths have higher energy because the distance between each peak is shorter

62
Q

how is the colour we see visable?

A

the colour is being reflected rather than being absorbed, chlorophyll looks green
because it does not absorb, but reflects green light

63
Q

Where are the photosynthetic pigments, chlorophyll a and b located within the chloroplast?

A

a- seen as green because it absorbs purp and red
both located in the thylakoid mem

64
Q

what are accessory pigments?

A

secondary light absorbing pigments
include carotenoids (yellow, red or purple). The most important carotenoids are B- carotene (orange) and xanthophyll (yellow).
they absorb light so they increase the range of light that can be utilised by the plant for photosynthesis.

65
Q

what does it mean when an electron has been raised from a
ground state to an excited state?

A

When a pigment molecule absorbs a photon of light, one of its electrons jumps to an energy level further from the nucleus, increasing its potential energy

65
Q

what is a photosystem?

A

proteins embedded in thy mem, set of light absorbing pigments and associated electron carriers
theres 2 and 1

66
Q

when does photosys 1 ocur?

A

when an excited elec is transfered to a protein carrier which reduces NADP to NADPH

67
Q

The chlorophyll a in the reaction centre of photosystem II is called what? why?

A

P680, because it absorbs light best at this wavelength

68
Q

The chlorophyll a in the reaction centre of photosystem I is called what? why?

A

P700, because that is its maximum absorption wavelength

69
Q

This exergonic fall
of electrons provides energy to pump H+ across the thylakoid membrane from the stroma. This H+ gradient will then be used to what?

A

generate ATP as the hydrogen ions flow down their gradient through an ATP synthase enzyme.

70
Q

The Calvin Cycle has to turn what many times to generate one molecule of G3P

A

Co2

71
Q

What are the three main steps in the Calvin Cycle?

A

-Carbon fixation (adding carbon from carbon dioxide to a 5 carbon Ribulose bisphosphate
(RuPB)
* Reduction (of 3-PGA to G3P); so G3P can be released
* Regeneration of our starting molecule –RuBP (5 3-carbon G3Ps reconfigure themselves
through a series of steps to form 3 molecules of the 5 carbon RuBP, so the cycle can begin again.

72
Q

what two physical factors affect the rate of photosynthesis?

A

temp- lower temo is slower rate
light intensity- if the amount of light decreases the rate of photosynthesis declines

73
Q

what % of the carbohydrate made by photosynthesis is consumed as fuel for cellular respiration in the plant’s own mitochondria

A

50%

74
Q

All of the energy that we use originally came from where?

A

the sun

75
Q

what is photosynthesis

A

the process where sunlight is converted into chemical energy, which is a form of potential energy that can be used later to do work by plants

76
Q

what is the primary reason for CO2 levels rising?

A

human activities, the burning of fossil fuels

77
Q

what is the carbon cycle?

A

CO2 is release during cellular respiration and its consumption via photosynthesis

78
Q

Since the Industrial Revolution, the global average temperature has already increased by about..

A

2 degrees

79
Q

why do we need the natural greenhouse effect?

A

the effect traps heat in earths atmosphere and warms with, without this earth would be very cold (-18 degrees) because of it global temp is 15 degrees

80
Q

why is melting sea ice bad?

A

less sea ice coverage of the planet means a feedback of more heat because the suns heat is not being reflected back from the ice. this is a positive feedback loop

81
Q

Over the past 800,000 years, ice core data indicate that global CO2 levels never exceeded _____ ppm, but they are now over ____ ppm

A

never peaked above 280 ppm. We are now over 416 ppm.

82
Q

when did james hanson warm about climate change?

A

1988

83
Q

what are tipping points

A

when you add a certain amount of CO2 (for example), or
cause a certain amount of change in the system, the change causes feedbacks within the system that amplify the change (positive feedback) and may cause more rapid and dramatic effect

84
Q

List 10 effects of climate change

A

-warming temp
-glaciers melting
-shorter snow or ice months
-higher sea levels
-longer more intense heat waves
-more floods, droughts, and fires
-changes migration patterns because of the changing seasons
-more intense storms
-increased susceptibility of organisms
-changing precipitation patterns

85
Q

List 3 sources of energy that do not release carbon dioxide to the atmosphere

A

-solar energy from sun
-wind power
-Geothermal energy from heat inside the earth
-Hydropower from flowing water.

86
Q

List 5 things the average person can do to help reduce their carbon footprint

A

-Composting
-Eat less red meat
-plants trees
-Growing and purchasing of local food
-reduce, reuse, recycle

87
Q

what is solar geoengineering? who came up w the idea?

A

Dr. David Keith proposed this method to help cool the planet by injecting a fine sulfur dioxide aerosol into the upper atmosphere to reflect away some of the sun’s light before it can reach the earth

88
Q

what is ozone?

A

O3 which is oxygen found in only 2 parts of the atmosphere; the stratosphere aka ozone layer (90%) and troposphere which is where we live and breathe
it acts as UV protection

89
Q

What happened when we introduced CFCs (chlorofluorocarbons) into the atmosphere?

A

was used in the 30s as a repelent of in fridges.
learned that it damages the ozone layer as they enter the stratosphere UV hits H and releases chlorine splitting the ozone molecule makinf oxygen and chlorine which degrades the ozone layer so it cant be made fast enough to keep up w natural degration

90
Q

How is ozone formed and destroyed by UV?

A

O2 is hit w UV and split to O atoms, they can then bind to other O2 to make O3 making ozone

91
Q

what is the montreal protocol?

A

a document that was signed by 197 countries in 1987, where they agreed to stop producing and using CFCs.
This was the first global treaty ever signed, and it paved the way for the action that is largely responsible for reducing damage to the ozone layer

92
Q

If no action were taken to reduce CFCs, what do they think might be the current state of our ozone layer?

A

by 2050 we would have no ozone left

93
Q

what are 2 ways to asexually reproduce?

A

budding- new individual grows from an outgrowths of the parent and will split off, ex is yeast
binary fission- like mitosis

94
Q

what are genes?

A

units of hereditary information consisting of a specific sequence of DNA (or RNA in some viruses) located located on the chromosomes

95
Q

What are centrioles and how are they related to centrosomes?

A

Each centrosome has a pair of centrioles, can-shaped structures
made of microtubules
forms base of cillia and flagella

96
Q

What is a centromere? A kinetochore?

A

centromere- links sis chromatids and assembles kinetochore
kinetochore- protein structure that each chromatid has, allows for spindles to attach to pull apart chromosomes in cell div

97
Q

In an animal cell cytokinesis occurs via…

A

a cleavage furrow forms and the cell pinches into two

98
Q

In an plant cell cytokinesis occurs via…

A

cell plate, becasue they have cell walls, grows inside towards the outside until it reaches both ends of cell then cell div is complete

99
Q

how many pairs of autosomes chromosomes do humans have? how many sex?

A

22
1

100
Q

what two ways introduce genetic variability?

A

independent assortment- how the 23 pairs of chromosomes align and are pulled apart during metaphase 1
crossing over- the exchange of genetic material between homologous pairs in prophase 1

101
Q

how many possible gametes are there per parents

A

over 8 mill

102
Q

what is a polypoid organism?

A

happens when meiosis goes wrong, organism is one that has more than 2 complete sets of chromosomes. Thus, a new
species is born! Many are tetraploid – containing 4 full sets of chromosomes. This dramatically increases their
genetic variability

103
Q

what is cancer?

A

disease of the cell cycle control sys
develops thru abnormal rapid growth of cells

104
Q

what are the cancer checkpoints?

A

G1, G2, and mid mitosis/ m phases

105
Q

what is a tumour? what is a benign tumour?

A

-an abnormally growing mass of body cells.
-when abnormally growing cells
remain at the original site, the lump is called a benign tumour

106
Q

what is a malignant tumour? when are tumours considered cancerous?

A

-cancerous tumour, invades neighbouring tissues and has cells that can break away and
travel through the blood or lymphatic system and spread to other parts of the body
-cancerous when it metastizies and spreads

107
Q

what are the 5 types of cancers?

A

Carcinomas, most common, in skin or intestine
Sarcomas, in supportive tissues like bone or cart
Leukemia and Lymphomas, blood cancer
Blastoma, cancer embryonic tissue or immature cells

108
Q

how do you treat cancers that have metastisized?

A

chemo

109
Q

angiogenesis

A

rapidly dividing cancer cells release factors that stimulate the formation of new blood vessels towards them

110
Q

oncogene

A

a signle gene that causes a normal cell to become cancerous

111
Q

proto-oncogene

A

is a normal, healthy gene that, if changed, can become a cancer-causing oncogene.

112
Q

what are the 3 tumour types?

A

-Benign, non cancerous and dont spread
-Precancerous, may turn into cancer if not treated
-Cancerous, metastasize, cancerous

113
Q

How do proto-oncogenes become oncogenes?

A

mutate
An error in DNA replication or recombination generates multiple copies of the gene
The proto-oncogene might be moved from its normal location in the cell’s DNA to another
location

114
Q

what are tumour-suppressor genes

A

Cells also contain genes that inhibit cell division, prevent uncontrolled cell growth

115
Q

whats the RAS gene? whats the P53 gene?

A

in 30% of cancers, tells cells to div when not given the code to div.
in 50% of cancers, stops cell div

116
Q

what is a carcinogen? what is a mutagen?

A

-Cancer causing agents that alter DNA and make cells cancerous.
-substances that cause mutations. Most mutagens are carcinogens.
most potent are xrays, UV or radiation

117
Q

what causes the most cancer?

A

tobacco

118
Q

The Stem Cell Theory of Cancer

A

tells us that even if we physically remove or shrink the majority of a tumour with chemotherapy or radiation that the cancer may continue to come back unless we have removed these special cells

119
Q

list 5 ways to reduce risk of cancer

A

-dont smoke
-exercise
-eat veg
-reduce sun exposure
-routine testing

120
Q

what is most common cancer that leads to death?
what is the most common in women?

A

lung
breast

121
Q

90% of Canadians who develop cancer are over the age of what

A

50

122
Q

whats the best cancer and worst?

A

best- Thyroid and testicular Cancer (97%) survive
worst- Pancreas (10%) survive

123
Q

what is a Character? what is a trait?

A

-a variable (like flower colour)
-the variant of the character (purple)

124
Q

what is a Hybrid?

A

the offspring of two different varieties

125
Q

what is an Allele?

A

an alternate version of a gene that resides at the same
locus on homologous chromosomes.

126
Q

What were Mendel’s 4 hypotheses that he derived from all of his experiments? (pea guy)

A
  1. There are alternate versions of genes that account for variations in inherited characters
  2. For each character, an organism inherits 2 alleles, one from each parent which are hetero or homo
  3. there are dom and recessive traits and dom will always be expressed even if its only seen on one
  4. A sperm or egg carries only one allele for each inherited character
127
Q

What is a dominant allele? Recessive?

A

dom- an allele that needs to be present on only one of the homo chroms to be expressed and masks the expression of other alleles
rec-allele that must be present on both chroms to be expressed

128
Q

The probability that an event can
occur in two or more alternative ways is the sum of their separate probabilities

A

the rule of addition

129
Q

Epistasis

A

When the expression of one gene interferes with the expression of another, ex is the labs coat colour

130
Q

Incomplete dominance?
co dominence?

A

in- produces a mix of the two alleles, would see pink
co- express both alleles themselves, wouls see red and white

131
Q

why is type O uni donor? why is AB uni receiver?

A

o- has no antigens so wont harm anything if added to another blood type
ab- has antigens for a and b so can accept both and o has no antigens so it can also be accepted

132
Q

Pleiotropy

A

when a single gene affects many phenotypic characters, sickle cell

133
Q

Polygenic Inheritance

A

occurs when multiple genes affect a single phenotypic character, skin colour.
if all genes rec, youre light, if all dom, youre dark

134
Q

what is epigenetics

A

alterations in the genome that result in changes in gene expression that arent attributed to changes in DNA sequence, this can be caused by things like trauma or diet

135
Q

what are linked genes?

A

Genes located close together on the chromosome
tend to be inherited together

136
Q

what can turn off genes?

A

trauma

137
Q

what is The chromosome theory of inheritance

A

states that genes occupy specific loci on chromosomes and it is the chromosomes that undergo segregation
and independent assortment during meiosis

138
Q

what is sex-linked gene

A

A gene that codes for something other than sexual determination, that is on a sex chromosome,