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Resident Benchmark MC > Fall 2022 > Flashcards

Fall 2022 Flashcards

1
Q

Which one of the following is the equation for pulmonary vascular resistance?
a. (MAP-right atrial pressure)/CO
b. (mean pulmonary arterial pressure-left atrial pressure)/CO
c. (mean pulmonary arterial pressure-right atrial pressure)/CO
d. (MAP-left atrial pressure)/CO

A

(mean pulmonary arterial pressure-left atrial pressure)/CO

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2
Q

Which one of the following is responsible for increase in pulmonary arterial pressure?
a. NO
b. Prostacyclin
c. Endothelian
d. atrial natriuretic peptide

A

Endothelian

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3
Q

Which of the following is the mechanism for developing pulmonary vasodilation in response to NO?
a. NO increases cGMP concentration
b. NO decreases cGMP concentration
c. NO increases cAMP concentration
d. NO decreases cAMP concentration

A

NO increases cGMP concentration

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4
Q

Your patient has a urethral obstruction with severe hyperkalemia. You elect to start calcium gluconate for cardio protection. What is the mechanism by which calcium gluconate can exert the cardio protective effect?
a. decreases the resting membrane potential
b. decreases the threshold membrane potential
c. increases the resting membrane potential
d. increases the threshold membrane potential

A

Increases the threshold membrane potential

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5
Q

A young patient presents with acute abdominal pain and distention. Peritoneal effusion is diagnosed, and a serosanguinous fluid is collected. Testing is performed on the fluid, and a diagnosis of uroperitoneum is reached due to
a. effusion BUN > 1.5x blood BUN
b. effusion crea >2.0 x blood crea
c. effusion K >3.0 x blood K
d. effusion lactate >2.0 x blood lactate

A

effusion creatine > 2.0 x blood creatine

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6
Q

The following hormone or autocoid is responsible for constricting afferent and efferent arterioles resulting in a reduction of GFR and renal blood flow:
a. angiotensinogen
b. Endothelial derived NO
c. Epinephrine
d. Prostaglandins

A

Epinephrine

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7
Q

Binding of ___ to the platelet surface results in the generation of a procoagulant membrane surface and release of platelet granules.
a. thrombin
b. tissue factor
c. microparticles
d. collagen

A

thrombin

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8
Q

Although there are several factors that have been linked to ATC, only ____ has been globally accepted as a cause of ATC.
a. systemic inflammation
b. hypothermia
c. ongoing tissue hypoperfusion
d. hemodilution

A

ongoing systemic hypo perfusion

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9
Q

Thrombin limits the advancement of hemostatic plugs into normal vascular endothelium by:
a. inactivating thrombomodulin that is bound to endothelial cells
b. activating protein S when it is complexed with thrombomodulin
c. thrombin-thrombomodulin activation of TAFI
d. activating protein C which up-regulates FVa and FVIIa activity

A

thrombin-thrombomodulin activation of TAFI

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10
Q

According to the 2019 CURATIVE guidelines published in JVECC, which of the following patients are at high risk for thrombosis?
a. a dog with severe pancreatitis
b. a cat receiving steroid therapy
c. a dog with adrenal gland carcinoma
d. a cat with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

a cat with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

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11
Q

Which of the following drug options are preferred choices for prevention of thrombosis in dogs and cats based on the 2019 CURATIVE guidelines published in JVECC
a. direct Xa inhibitors and low molecular weight heparin
b. unfractionated heparin and direct Xa inhibitors
c. warfarin and low molecular weight heparin
d. direct Xa inhibitors and warfarin

A

Direct Xa inhibitors and low molecular weight heparin

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12
Q

Based on the 2019 CURATIVE guidelines in JVECC which anticoagulant should be monitored using anti-Xa levels?
a. rivaroxiban
b. unfractioned heparin
c. low molecular weight heparin
d. warfarin

A

Rivaroxiban

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13
Q

Which cells are thought to be responsible for generating slow, undulating changes in resting membrane potential in the GI tract, also known as “slow waves”
a. oxyntic cells
b. interstitial cells of Cajal
c. ganglion cells
d. enterochromaffin-like cells

A

Interstitial cells of Cajal

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14
Q

An animal is intubated while undergoing mechanical ventilation and has decreased saliva production. Reduced amounts of which components of saliva predisposes the animal to oral ulceration despite frequent oral rinses?
a. Thiocyanate ions, proteolytic enzymes, and antibiotics
b. HCO3, ptyalin, mucin, glycoproteins
c. K+, alpha-amylase, water
d. Cl, neutrophils, ferritin

A

thiocyanate ions, proteolytic enzymes, and antibiotics

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15
Q

By what mechanism may NSAIDs induce gastric ulceration?
a. increased prostaglandin concentrations
b. local hyperopia causing increased free radical production
c. reduce production of bicarbonate-rich mucous secretions
d. increased formation of NO

A

reduced production of bicarbonate- rich mucous secretions

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16
Q

Transport of CO2 in the blood is enhanced
a. due to carbonic anhydrase in RBCs converting CO2 and HCO3
b. when hemoglobin is oxidized allowing more CO2 to bind as carbaminohemoglobin
c. due to the affinity of CO2 for deoxygenated hemoglobin created by the Bohr effect
d. when the dissolved fraction carried in the bloodstream increases to 30%

A

due to carbonic anhydrase in RBCs converting CO2 to HCO3

17
Q

Which of the following accurately characterizes the 5 normal phases of a capnograph?
a. no CO2 should be measured at phase II
b. the steep incline in phase II is when CO2 are gas enters the airway
c. inspiration begins in phase III
d. end tidal CO2 is measured at the end of the alveolar plateau

A

end tidal CO2 is measured at the end of the alveolar plateau

18
Q

The clinical effect of both hyponatremia and hypernatremia are mostly related to their effects on cell volume. By interacting with which of the molecules listed below, does sodium directly mediate this effect?
a. aldosterone
b. ATP
c. water
d. glucose

A

water

19
Q

which of the following is the primary stimulus fro vasopressin release from the neurohypophysis
a. volume depletion
b. nausea
c. hyperkalemia
d. hypertonicity

A

hypertonicity

20
Q

Which of the following diseases causes hypernatremia?
a. typical Addisons
b. nephrogenic DI
c. hypoaldosteronism
d. primary polydipsia

A

nephrogenic DI

21
Q

Deficiencies in which of the following may cause clinical signs of obtundation, weakness, incoordination, cervical ventroflexion, that may be misinterpreted as hepatitic encephalopathy?
a. K and Phos
b. Cobalamin and thiamine
c. Thiamine and mg
d. Thiamine and K

A

Thiamine and K

22
Q

Amino acid solutions for parenteral administration range from 3% to 15%. Due to the osmolarity, use of a central venous catheter is recommended for administration of solutions greater than____
a. 4%
b. 6%
c. 10%
d. 12%

A

6%

23
Q

The supplementation of arginine may be contraindicated in patients with:
a. PH
b. AKI
c. severe sepsis
d. ALI

A

severe sepsis

24
Q

The mechanism by with staphylococci become resistant to methicillin and related antimicrobials is:
a. decreased number of penicillin binding proteins in the cell wall
b. decreased number of drug receptors in the cell wall
c. mutations in gene struture of the penicillin-binding proteins in the cell wall
d. mutations in the gene structure of the drug receptors

A

c. mutations in the gene structure of the penicillin binding proteins in the bacterial cell wall

25
Q

Which of the following antimicrobials is bacteriostatic at clinical concentrations
a. amino glycoside
b. macrolides
c. beta lactam
d. fluroquinolones

A

beta lactam

26
Q

which of the following is the ideal dosing of an antibiotic with a concentration dependent activity
a. once daily
b. total daily dose, divided
c. continuous infusion
d. based on the post-antibiotic effect

A

once daily dosing

27
Q

Which of the following make up the APPLE fast 5 variable model?

A

BG, platelet count, albumin, lactate, mentation

28
Q

The VetCOT in canine trauma patients was constructed based on which variables?

A

Lactate and ionized calcium within 6 hours of admission, and the presence of absence of CS of head or spinal trauma

29
Q

A veterinary committee on trauma registry study comparing trauma in toy versus giant breed dogs found which of the following were predictive of non-survival independent of patient size?
a. ATT, BE, MGCS
b. lactate, blunt trauma, MGCS
c. penetrating trauma, ATT, PCV
d. transfusion requirement, ATT, lactate

A

ATT, BE, MGCS

30
Q

A retrospective JVECC evaluating the utility go blood cultures in dogs just justified the use of blood cultures because
a. 80% yield positive growth to guide antibiotic therapy
b. antibiotic therapy guided by culture results improved survival
c. the proportion of resistance was higher than expected
d. antibiotic therapy guided by culture results reduced length and cost of stay

A

the proportion of resistance was higher than expected

Resident Benchmark MC (1 decks)

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