Fall 2017 Exam Flashcards
1
Q
- Out of this list the features of a healthy periodontium, select which does not apply:
a. minimal sulcular depth, between 0-3 mm
b. absence of interdental papilla
c. firm, resilient, and tightly bound gingiva
d. pyramidal or col-shaped interdental papilla e. width of attached gingiva in the range of 1.8 mm to 4.5 mm
A
B
2
Q
- Which of the following is a potential effect of aging on the periodontium?
A. increased and thickening of keratinization of the gingival epithelium
B Decrease in cemental width
c. scarce gingival connective tissues
d. greater expression of proinflammatory cytokines in periodontal ligaments
A
D
3
Q
- Marginal gingiva is all of the following but:
a. unattached
b. terminal edge or border of the gingiva surrounding the teeth
c. the soft tissue wall of the gingival sulcus and junctional epithelium
d. inseparable from the tooth surface with a periodontal probe e. the marginal gingiva is stabilized by the gingival fibers that have no bony support
e. the marginal gingiva is stabilized by the gingival fibers that have no bony support
A
D
4
Q
- Neutrophils are routinely found in the attachment epithelium:
a. only after disruption of the subgingival biofilm
b. in both health and disease
c. around natural teeth, but not dental implants
d. only after bacterial challenge
A
B
5
Q
- What results from violation of the biological width?
a. uncontrolled periodontal bone loss
b. inflammation
c. accumulation of lymphocytes
d. linear erythema/gingivitis
e. all of the above
A
E
6
Q
- The biologic width of the attachment varies between about 2.5 mm in health and 1.8 mm in untreated advanced disease, the most variable part of the attachment is?
a. length of connetive tissue attachment
b. length of sulcus
c. length of the epithelial attachment (junctional epithelium)
d. all parts change equally
A
C
7
Q
- The junctional epithelium originates from the:
a. oral mucosa.
b. dental lamina
c. oral epithelium
d. reduced enamel epithelium
A
D
8
Q
- With the development of the root and the initial eruption of the tooth, the first fiber bundles to form will later develop into?
a. Horizontal fibers
b. Oblique fibers
c. Apical fibers
d. Dentogingival fibers
A
D
9
Q
- What is FALSE of the junctional epithelium?
a. attaches to the tooth via hemidesmosomes and a basal layer
b. Is nonkeratinized and has a fast turnover
c. Is permeable
d. most apical part lies at the CEJ in healthy tissue
e. known for its abundance of rete pegs
A
E
10
Q
- Fenestrations are found most often on:
a. maxillary canines.
b. mandibular canines.
c. maxillary first molars.
d. mandibular first molars.
A
C
11
Q
- Which periodontal ligament fiber group is not considered a Sharpey’s fiber?
a. Alveolar crest
b. Oblique
c. Interradicular
d. Apical
e. Horizontal
A
E
12
Q
- Class II mobility is?
A. Tooth can be moved up to 2mm in a buccolingual direction
B. Tooth can be moved up to 2mm in a mesiodistal direction
C. Tooth can be moved up to 1mm in a buccolingual or mesiodistal direction but not in the occlusoapical direction
D. Tooth can be moved up to 1mm in a buccolingual or mesiodistal direction, as well as in the occlusoapical direction
E. None of the above
A
C
13
Q
- All of the following fibers can be found within the biological width, except?
a. Coronal dentogingival
b. Horizontal dentogingival
c. Apical dentogingival
d. Periosteal gingival
e. Dentoperiosteal
A
D
14
Q
- Recurrent Periodontitis and Refractory Periodontitis are defined as follows:
- Recurrent Periodontitis: A condition where periodontitis has been successfully treated but then recurs. A secondary descriptor used with various categories of periodontitis (e.g., recurrent chronic periodontitis, recurrent aggressive periodontitis, etc.).
- Refractory Periodontitis: A condition where one or more forms of periodontitis are unresponsive to treatment despite excellent patient compliance and delivery of periodontal therapy that ordinarily is successful in arresting the progression of periodontitis. A secondary descriptor used with various categories of periodontitis (e.g., refractory chronic periodontitis, refractory aggressive periodontitis, etc.).
a. 1.correct / 2. incorrect
b. 1.correct / 2. correct
c. 1.incorrect / 2. incorrect
d. 1.incorrect / 2. correct
A
B
15
Q
- A female patient presents with punched-out lesions of the papillae and a gray, pseudomembranous slough. She notes her gums turned this way all of a sudden, and she was concerned about the spontaneous bleeding, which you determined to be GI class 3. Radiographs show no bone loss. What would be the best treatment for this condition at this initial appointment?
a. systemic antibiotics
b. subgingival scaling and curettage
c. ultrasonic scaling of the affected regions
d. gingivectomy
A
C
16
Q
- Poorly controlled diabetes affects the periodontium by: a. Increasing glucose levels in gingival crevicular fluid
b. Decreasing the inflammatory response to bacterial pathogens
c. Increasing collagen and therefore thickening in the periodontal basement membrane
d. Increasing oxygen perfusion to the periodontium
A
C
17
Q
- Blood glucose levels and the level of glucose in gingival crevicular fluid do NOT correlate well. In fact, the glucose level within the sulcular fluid is:
a. three to four times greater than that of serum
b. two times greater that that of serum
c. three to four times less than that of serum
d. two times less than that of serum
A
A
18
Q
- Which is an example of a risk indicator?
a. Stress
b. RANKL
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Smoking
A
A
19
Q
- Select the TRUE statement from the following list:
a. bony destruction always follows gingivitis
b. periodontitis is always preceded by gingivitis
c. gingivitis always progresses towards periodontitis
d. early gingivitis is characterized by motile organisms and spirochetes
A
B
20
Q
- What is the major crystal form in mature calculus?
a. Brushite
b. Hydroxyapatite
c. Magnesium whitlockite
d. Octacalcium phosphate
A
B
21
Q
- According to Page and Schroeder (1976), the “early” lesion developed within _____ days of plaque accumulation.
a. 2-4
b. 4-7
c. 7-14
d. 14-21
A
B
22
Q
- Which of the following bacteria is not associated with generalized aggressive periodontitis?
A. P. gingivalis
B. Streptococcus mutans
C. Tannerella forsythia
D. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans E. none of the above
A
B
23
Q
- An association was observed between smoking status and:
a. T. forsythia.
b. T. denticola.
c. P. gingivalis.
d. A. actinomycetemcomitans.
A
D
24
Q
- Organic compounds found within the sulcular fluid correlate well with:
a. blood glucose levels
b. serum protein content
c. sodium and calcium concentrations indicating inflammation
d. metabolic and bacterial products
A
D
25
Q
- 55 year-old patient with poor oral hygiene has clinical findings in the buccal of the upper left quadrant as follows. What is the attachment loss on the mesial of #15? a. 5
b. 8
c. 3
d. 13
e. none of the above
A
E
26
Q
- The mineral content of supra-gingival and sub-gingival calculus is, respectively:
a. 58% and 37%
b. 37% and 58%
c. 25% and 32%
d. 32% and 25%
A
B
27
Q
- The advantages of biofilm versus planktonic growth for the bacterium include protection from:
a. competing organisms
b. host defense
c. antibiotics
d. all of the above
A
D
28
Q
- Which of the following lesions is also called gingivitis? a. initial
b. early
c. established
d. advanced
A
C
29
Q
- Which green complex bacteria is present in chronic periodontitis?
a. Porphyromonas gingivalis
b. Tannerella forsythia
c. Treponema denticola
d. Eikenella corrodens
e. Prevotella intermedia
A
D
30
Q
- What are Socranski’s “red complex” organisms? a. Fusobacterium nucleatum, Prevotella intermedia and Streptococcus mutans,
b. Porphyromonas gingivalis, Treponema denticola and Streptococcus sanguis,
c. Capnocytophaga species, Actinomyces viscosus and Eikenella corrodens,
d. Porphyromonas gingivalis, Tannerella forsythia and Treponema denticola.
A
D
31
Q
- Which bacterial species dominates the second phase of dental plaque formation?
a. Streptococcus sanguis
b. Porphyromonas gingivalis
c. Prevotella intermedia
d. Actinomyces viscosus
A
D
32
Q
- When a tooth first becomes functional, the bottom of the gingival sulcus is usually found:
a. on enamel.
b. at the CEJ.
c. on cementum.
d. on bundle bone
e. on dentin
A
A
33
Q
- ALL participants in the experimental gingivitis study by Löe et al. (1965) developed gingivitis after refraining from plaque control for:
a. 2 days.
b. 7 days.
c. 14 days.
d. 21 days.
A
D
34
Q
- Apatient with 1-2 mm of generalized gingival recession, probing depths of <3 mm, and no inflammation is diagnosed with:
a. gingivitis
b. a healthy but reduced periodontium
c. localized slight chronic periodontitis
d. localized moderate chronic periodontitis
A
B
35
Q
- In a population-based twin study, the heritability for adult (chronic) periodontitis was estimated to be approximately _____% after adjusting for smoking, age, gender, and hygiene.
a. 10
b. 30
c. 50
d. 70
A
C
36
Q
- The evidence against the null hypothesis is strongest when the P-value is:
a. 0.1
b. 0.01
c. 0.001
d. 0.0001
A
D
37
Q
- Which of the following lesions would present with plasma cells and loss of clinical attachment, a point of no return.
a. advanced
b. established
c. early
d. initial
A
A
38
Q
- Healthy implants exhibited ____ PD measurements when compared to healthy teeth.
a. 1 mm shallower
b. the same
c. 1 mm deeper
A
C
39
Q
- Physiologic tooth mobility is defined as horizontal movement up to:
a. 0.2 mm
b. 0.3 mm
c. 0.4 mm
d. 0.5 mm
A
A
40
Q
- First molar/incisor presentation with interproximal attachment loss on at least two permanent teeth, one of which is a first molar, and involving no more than two teeth other than first molars and incisors describes:
a. chronic periodontitis
b. localized aggressive periodontitis
c. generalized aggressive periodontitis.
d. periodontitis associated with systemic disease
A
B
41
Q
- Periodontal biotype is significantly related to all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
a. facial recession
b. labial plate thickness
c. alveolar crest position
d. keratinized tissue width
A
A
42
Q
- Which condition is indicated by a fasting plasma glucose result of 118 mg/dL?
a. Normal
b. Prediabetes
c. Controlled Diabetes
d. Uncontrolled Diabetes
A
B
43
Q
- A lack of adequate keratinized tissue around implants is associated with all of the following conditions EXCEPT more:
a. mucosal recession
b. marginal bone loss
c. tissue inflammation
A
B
44
Q
- A deeper probing depth and greater attachment loss are associated with:
a. functional mobility and thickened lamina dura.
b. thickened lamina dura and pronounced occlusal wear. c. functional mobility and widened periodontal ligament space.
d. widened periodontal ligament space and pronounced occlusal wear.
A
C
45
Q
- Which bacteria attach to the initial and second phase colonizers, serving as a “bridge” to the major pathogens? a. Fusobacterium nucleatum and Prevotella intermedia b. Streptococcus sanguis and Porphyromonas gingivalis c. Treponema denticola and Streptococcus sanguis d. Capnocytophaga species and Actinomyces viscosus
A
A
46
Q
- Under normal probing force, the probe tip stops _____________ the junctional epithelium on teeth affected by periodontitis.
a. at the middle third of
b. at the apical third of
c. apical to
A
C
47
Q
- According to Lindhe and Socransky, if a tooth with a probing depth of 2.5 mm was treated with SCRP, the anticipated outcome would be ________ clinical attachment.
a. a gain in
b. no change in
c. a loss of
A
C
48
Q
- Attachment loss precedes radiographic bone loss by ________ months.
a. 0-2
b. 3-5
c. 6-8
d. 9-12
A
C
49
Q
- The presence of a crestal lamina dura on a radiograph has ____% positive predictive value for site stability.
a. 70
b. 80
c. 90
d. 100
A
D
50
Q
- What is the approximate sensitivity of “furcation arrow” as a diagnostic test to detect a clinical furcation invasion?
a. 20%
b. 40%
c. 60%
d. 80%
A
B
51
Q
- To avoid false positive BOP around healthy implants, the optimal probing pressure should be ____ probing around teeth.
a. less than
b. similar to
c. greater than
A
A
52
Q
52. Which of the following bacteria is the primary etiological agent associated with localized aggressive periodontitis? A. P. gingivalis B. Streptococcus mutans C. Prevotella loescheii D. Fusobacterium nucleatum E. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
A
E
53
Q
- Which organism is frequently found in patients with generalized aggressive periodontitis?
a. S. gordonii
b. T. forsythia
c. T. denticola
d. P. gingivalis
A
D
54
Q
- Local and systemic mechanisms for the negative effects of smoking on periodontal tissues include:
- peripheral vasoconstriction and local ischemia
- increase in pathogenic organisms
- decreased oxidative stress
- activatition of the inflammatory cascade
a. 1,2,3
b. 2,3,4
c. 1,3,4
d. 1,2,4
e. all of the above
A
D
55
Q
- According to Waerhaug (1981), toothbrush bristles penetrate below the gingival margin _________mm.
a. 0.5 to 1.0
b. 1.5 to 2.0
c. 2.5 to 3.0
d. 3.5 to 4.0
A
A
56
Q
- What is the optimal angulation of the face of the blade and the tooth surface for calculus removal during SCRP?
a. 10-40 degrees
b. 45-90 degrees
c. 100-135 degrees
d. 145-175 degrees
A
B
57
Q
- An infrabony periodontal pocket consists of:
a. gingival enlargement without the destruction of periodontal tissues
b. a pocket in which the bottom is coronal to the underlying alveolar bone
c. a pocket in which the bottom lies apical to the level of the adjacent alveolar bone
d. a pocket that is created by increased bulk of the gingiva
A
C
58
Q
- What is not true of an ultrasonic tool in which the tip vibrates in an elliptical pattern and all sides of the tip are active?
a. driven to vibrate by an electric current supplied to either a wire coil or metal stacks
b. magnetostrictive
c. operates between 18,000 and 45,000 cycles/second
d. has an amplitude range from 10 to 100 micrometers
e. piezoelectric
A
E
59
Q
- In a systematic review by Bonito et al. (2005), which local adjunct to SCRP was found to exhibit the largest PD reduction and attachment level gain?
a. Minocycline (1mg microspheres in Arrestin)
b. Tetracycline (20 mg fibers)
c. Chlorhexidine (0.2% chip)
d. Metronidazole
A
A
60
Q
- In patients taking nifedipine, what factor is most strongly associated with gingival enlargement?
a. Age
b. Gender
c. Gingival Index
d. Medication dosage
A
C
61
Q
- An osteoconductive material would?
a. Have the ability to induce the formation of new bone by cells contained in the graft
b. Have the ability to convert neighboring cells into osteoblasts by releasing growth factors
c. Have the ability to serve as a scaffold that favors outside cells to penetrate the graft
d. Have the ability to fill space as a non-bone graft material
A
C
62
Q
- What is FALSE regarding the interface between an implant and the epithelium?
a. Consists of hemidesmosomes and basal lamina
b. Collagen fibers are perpendicular to the implant
c. The biological width is 3 to 4 mm
d. There is 2 mm of epithelial attachment and 1 mm of connective tissue attachment
A
B
63
Q
- Flaps that include the surface mucosa, or epithelium, basement membrane and part of the connective tissue lamina propria are?
a. Epithelial flaps
b. Connective tissue flaps
c. Full thickness flaps
d. Partial thickness flaps
A
D
64
Q
- Failure of a dental implant within the first year is generally attributed to:
a. dental plaque-related infection
b. surgical technique or patient selection
c. occlusal overload and mechanical failure
d. lack of attached gingiva at the implant site
A
B
65
Q
- A minimum of ____ keratinized mucosa was needed to reduce plaque accumulation, bleeding, and buccal soft tissue recession in patients receiving regular implant maintenance therapy.
a. 1 mm
b. 2 mm
c. 3 mm
d. 4 mm
A
B
66
Q
- All of the following statements regarding periodontal flaps are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Full thickness periodontal flaps involve reflecting all of the soft tissue, including the periosteum to expose underlying bone
b. The partial thickness periodontal flap includes only the epithelium and a layer of the underlying connective tissue
c. Both full thickness and partial thickness periodontal flaps can be displaced
d. Flaps from the palate are considered easier to be displaced than any other region
e. Flaps should be uniformly thin and pliable
A
D
67
Q
- In histologic studies of chronic periodontitis, which fiber group remained intact?
a. Transeptal fibers
b. Oblique fibers
c. Circular fibers
d. Alveolar crest fibers
A
A
68
Q
68. Vascular invasion of a free gingival graft would take place in how many days? A. 0 to 2 days B. 2 to 4 days C. 5 to 7 days D. Over 21 days
A
B
69
Q
- How much remodeling can be expected after an implant is placed?
a. 1.5 mm of marginal bone loss after healing and the first year after, subsequently 0.1 mm annually
b. 0.5 mm of marginal bone loss after healing and the first year after, subsequently 1.0 mm annually
c. 1.0 mm of marginal bone loss after healing and the first year after, subsequently 1.0 mm annually
d. No bone loss should be expected
A
A
70
Q
- What can cause peri-implantitis?
a. Cement trapped below gingiva
b. Inadequate seating or overcontouring of the restoration
c. Implant malpositioning
d. Poor oral hygiene
e. All of the above
A
E
71
Q
- Where is the greatest force on an implant located?
a. At the neck
b. In the middle
c. At the apex
d. Equally throughout
A
A
72
Q
- During placement, the distance between two implants should be at least?
a. 1 mm
b. 2 mm
c. 3 mm
d. 4 mm
A
C
73
Q
- Which drug can cause gingival enlargement?
a. Propranolol (Inderal)
b. Lisinopril (Zestril)
c. Amlodipine besylate (Norvasc)
d. Triamterene and hydrochlorothiazide (Maxzide)
A
C
74
Q
- How much space is needed between the apex of an implant and the mental nerve?
a. 1 mm
b. 2 mm
c. 3 mm
d. 4 mm
A
B
75
Q
- Generalized aggressive periodontitis is defined as attachment loss affecting at least ___ permanent teeth OTHER THAN first molars and incisors.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
A
B
76
Q
- Recurrent Periodontitis and Refractory Periodontitis are defined as follows:
- Recurrent Periodontitis: A condition where periodontitis has been successfully treated but then recurs. A secondary descriptor used with various categories of periodontitis (e.g., recurrent chronic periodontitis, recurrent aggressive periodontitis, etc.).
- Refractory Periodontitis: A condition where one or more forms of periodontitis are unresponsive to treatment despite excellent patient compliance and delivery of periodontal therapy that ordinarily is successful in arresting the progression of periodontitis. A secondary descriptor used with various categories of periodontitis (e.g., refractory chronic periodontitis, refractory aggressive periodontitis, etc.).
A. 1. correct / 2. incorrect
B. 1. correct / 2. correct
C. 1. incorrect / 2. incorrect
D. 1. incorrect / 2. correct
A
B
77
Q
- What is not a characteristic of chlorhexidine gluconate a. Interacts with sodium lauryl sulfate
b. Poor substantivity
c. Bacteriostatic and bactericidal
d. A dicationic bisguanide
e. Ninety percent excreted in feces if swallowed
A
B
78
Q
- Maintenance phase therapy includes the rechecking of the presence of plaque and calculus, as well as pocket depth and tooth mobility. Maintenance therapy should be scheduled at no longer than 3-month intervals between appointments for the best results.
a. both statements are correct
b. statement 1 is correct, statement 2 is false
c. statement 1 is false, statement 2 is correct
d. both statements are false
A
B
79
Q
- Alveolar bone resorption is a feature of the _________ lesion.
a. initial
b. early
c. established
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
A
E
80
Q
- The bacterial species most associated with chronic periodontitis is:
a. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
b. Posrphyromonas gingivalis
c. Campylobacter rectus
d. Tannerella forsythia
A
B
81
Q
- Which of the following facts are needed to determine the extent and severity of periodontal disease?
a. noted areas of suppuration, abscesses, and CAL on #13-16
b. full mouth series radiographs
c. medical history that includes any serious familial diseases
d. #6,12,20 and 28 have abfraction lesions
e. all of the above
A
E
82
Q
- Which of the following terms regarding periodontal instrumentation is correctly paired with its definition?
a. Stroke: a single, unidirectional motion that carries out the instrument’s function
b. Adaptation: refers to the relation between the working end and the tooth surface
c. Angulation: describes the relation between the instrument tip and the tooth
d. Activation: is the motion of the hand pivoting on a fulcrum to produce a stroke
a. A, B, and C
b. B, C, and D
c. A and C Only
d. B and D only
e. All of the above
A
E
83
Q
- A patient came into the dental office due to swelling that was localized to the marginal gingiva. The dentist observed that this patient had deep periodontal pockets and pain upon percussion. Which of the following most likely fits with the patient’s diagnosis?
a. periodontal abscess
b. NUG
c. gingival abscess
d. pericoronal abscess
e. refractory chronic periodontitis
A
C
84
Q
- All of the following are true about the purpose of surgical periodontal therapy EXCEPT:
a. Reduce or eliminate periodontal pockets
b. regenerate periodontal tissues
c. reduce mobility
d. place implants
e. correct soft and hard tissue anatomical or morphological defects
A
C
85
Q
- A 55 year-old patient with poor oral hygiene has clinical findings in the buccal of the upper left quadrant as follows. #15 has class III mobility. The prognosis of #15 is: a. good
b. fair
c. poor
d. questionable
e. hopeless
A
E
86
Q
- All of the following are principles of flap design for periodontal surgery EXCEPT:
a. the base of the flap should be wider than the free margin
b. the lines of the incision should not be placed over any defect in the bone
c. incisions should not be made over a bony eminence
d. corners of the flap should be sharp
e. flaps can be classified as either full-thickness or partial-thickness
A
D
