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EPPP > Failed Questions - All > Flashcards

Failed Questions - All Flashcards

1
Q

Tegretol (carbemazapine) is used to treat?

A

Used for to treat seizures

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2
Q

Paradoxical Techniques and Ordeals (Define and Associate)

A

Strategic Family Therapy
Haley and Mandanes

A directive that is aimed at making the sxs harder to keep than give up. The ordeal requires the family member(s) to do something they do not want to do, but is something that would benefit them in some way.
Milton Erickson and Jay Haley

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3
Q

Carol Gilligan’s model of moral development in the last stage emphasizes what?

A

Avoiding harm to oneself and to others

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4
Q

First stage of Carol Gilligan’s model of moral development focuses on what?

A

Care for Self

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5
Q

Second stage of Carol Gilligan’s model of moral development focuses on what?

A

Care for Others

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6
Q

Third stage of Carol Gilligan’s model of moral development focuses on what?

A

Care for everyone including the self

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7
Q

Employees with a high need of achievement are:

A

1) More concerned with personal accomplishment than with obtaining praise or recognition
2) They like to receive frequent and concrete feedback about their job performance
3) They usually prefer to work alone or with others who are in need for achievement
4) They prefer moderate levels of risk (not risk takers, not gamblers)

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8
Q

When working with older adults remember…

A

There is greater variability among older adults than younger people across a range fo characteristics

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9
Q

What percentage of left-handed people are left-hemisphere dominant for language?

A

50-60%

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10
Q

When a psychologist’s work with clients is supervised what must happen?

A

The client must be told about the arrangement and, when the supervisor has legal responsibility for the case, must also be given the supervisor’s name

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11
Q

Social comparison theory’s predictions about behavior are particularly applicable to…

A

Situations that involve uncertainty (i.e. lack objective standards)

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12
Q

What type of affect is more associated with suicide?

A

Constriction of affect

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13
Q

What medical illness might put people are higher risk for suicide

A

peptic ulcer

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14
Q

When are high fear arousal approaches to opinion change effective?

A

When the fear is accompanied by information about what actions to take to reduce or avert dangerous consequences.

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15
Q

What is the Leiter-3 used for?

A

Culture-fair measure of cognitive abilities

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16
Q

ITPA stands for?

A

Illinois Test of Psycholinguistics Abiliites

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17
Q

Haptic Intelligence is used for?

A

To measure intelligence for individuals how are blind or partially sighted

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18
Q

The GATC stands for what?

A

General Aptitude Test Battery and is used to assess aptitudes relevant for a variety of occupations for the purpose of vocational counseling.

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19
Q

A test is administered to 200 examinees and the distribution of the raw scores is normal. If the examinee’s raw scores are converted to percentile ranks, the number of examines who obtain percentile ranks between 91 and 95:

A

Will be equal to the number of examinees who obtain percentile ranks between 51 and 55.

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20
Q

Cognitive therapists focus on what during the initial stage?

A

Establish a good working alliance.

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21
Q

Increased anxiety in feared situations with a trusted companion is indicative of what Dx over what Dx?

A

Social Anxiety over Agoraphobia

In Social Anxiety disorder a trusted companion can make the anxiety worse, with agoraphobia it can actually help,

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22
Q

Fideler and Garcia’s (1987) cognitive resource theory predicts that the relationship between the leader intelligence and the leaders effectiveness is moderated by:

A

The leader’s stress level.
Predicts:
1) a leader’s intellectual ability correlates positively with performance in low-stress situations but negatively in high stress
2) A leaders experience correlated negatively with performance in low-stress but positively in high-stress situations.

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23
Q

Ritalin should not be used to diagnose children for ADHD as…

A

The effects of ADHD are similar for children with out without the disorder.

It is called a paradoxical effect.

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24
Q

What three issues are involved with a duty to protect?

A

1) A fiduciary relationship
2) An identifiable victim
3) Foreseeability of harm

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25
Q

A dismissing attachment is typical of a mother that…

A

Describes her parents in positive terms but either reports negative interactions with her parents or says she cannot recall any early interactions with them

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26
Q

Without rehearsal, information is held in short-term memory for a brief period of time. According to inference theory this is due to…

A

A limited capacity.
Interference refers to the displacement of items in memory by more recently perceived information and its attributable to the limited capacity of short term memory.

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27
Q

What term describes the loss of short term and long term memories over time?

A

Trace decay

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28
Q

What analysis is used to analyze the effects of one or more independent variables on two or more dependent variables that are each measured on an interval scale.

A

MANOVA

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29
Q

What analysis is used to statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable.

A

Analysis of Covariance (ANCOVA).

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30
Q

What analysis is used to correct for extraneous variables when the confounding variable is treated as another IV?

A

Randomized block ANOCA 0 requires the participants to be “blocked” or grouped

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31
Q

Holophrastic speach

A

Use of one word to convey a whole sentence.

Usually between 1-2 years of age

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32
Q

Overextension

A

Child applies a word to a wider meaning than appropriate.

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33
Q

Telegraphic Speech

A

Stringing two or more words to form a sentence

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34
Q

Kappa statistic

A

Correlating the scores of two or more raters to measure inter rated reliability.

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35
Q

Coefficient Alpha

A

Measure of internal consistency reliability.

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36
Q

Spearman-Brown Formula

A

Used when shortening or lengthening a test to understand the effects on the reliability coefficient

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37
Q

Why use Taylor Russel Tables?

And what do you need to calculate?

A

To find a predictors “positive hit rate.”

You need:

1) The base rate
2) The selection ratio
3) The predictors reliability coefficient

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38
Q

According to equity theory, when will a husband feel best about his marriage?

A

When he perceives his give/receive ratio to be equal to his wife.
Has positive effects on satisfaction and motivation.

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39
Q

Describe path-goal theory

A

Contingency leadership style as it purports the best style depends on the nature of the situation.

Characteristics of the task:
-Level of ambiguity, structure

Characteristics of workers:
-Traits and abilities

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40
Q

What happens to the standard error of the mean as the sample size increases?

A

It decreases

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41
Q

What is the standard error of the mean?

A

Standard deviation of the sampling distribution of the mean.

It is equal to the population standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.

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42
Q

Side effects of lithium carbonate (first starting drug)?

A

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain

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43
Q

Elements of Becks cognitive triad?

A

Negative beliefs about self, future and world that aren’t going to change.

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44
Q

Horizontal Declage

A

Gradual development that occurs within a stage.

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45
Q

Four sources of self efficacy beliefs according to Bandura?

A

1) Prior Accomplishments
2) Observations of others
3) Verbal persuasion
4) Emotional and physiological states

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46
Q

Bulimia Nervosa Key Sx

A

Binge eating with recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors (purging, diuretic use, excessive exercising) for at least 3 months.

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47
Q

Symbolic racism is rooted in?

A

The belief that members of minority groups violate American values.

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48
Q

1 reason for license revocation?

A

Loss of license in another jurisdiction.

Next sexual misconduct with an adult.

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49
Q

Escape Conditioning and Avoidance Conditioning both do what?

A

Increase behavior because performance of the behavior results in the removal or termination of a stimulus (negative reinforcer).

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50
Q

Avoidance Conditioning

A

Avoidance conditioning is similar to escape conditioning. The difference is that a CS is given before the presentation of an aversive stimulus. For example, a light may precede the shock by a few seconds. What does the animal do under this new setup? At first, its behavior is no different than it was for escape conditioning. Namely, it jumps the barrier when the shock is delivered. Soon, however, it begins to jump before the shock. It jumps when the light comes on and thus avoids the shock. Also, unlike escape conditioning, the animal settles down emotionally. Dogs quit yelping, and calmly jump to the other side when the CS comes on.

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51
Q

Escape Conditioning

A

Escape conditioning is a form of aversive conditioning. The word aversive refers to stimuli that are avoided. Generally, those stimuli are unpleasant or painful. Escape conditioning occurs when an aversive stimulus is presented and an animal responds by leaving the stimulus situation.
(Rat jumps over wall to escape shock).

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52
Q

Tiedeman and O’Hara emphasize what in their career model?

A

Ego.
It is classified as a cognitive-developmental theory along with Erikson, Bruner, Piaget and Allport.

It views career development as being an aspect of ego identity development and a process that continues throughout the lifespan.

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53
Q

What is the Heinz Dilemma and who came up with it?

A

Kohlberg’s theory of moral development. Should you steal a drug or not steal a drug to save your wife.

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54
Q

Traditional psychoanalysis views transference as a form of?

A

Resistance
Transference is a key component of psychoanalysis, and the interpretation of a client’s transference helps guide him or her to insight.

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55
Q

The more statistical comparisons made within a research study increases what type of error?

A

Type I

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56
Q

Why would you use a MANOVA?

A

A multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA) is used to simultaneously assess the effects of one or more independent variables on two or more dependent variables.

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57
Q

Define Type I Error

A

A Type I error is a type of error that occurs when a null hypothesis is rejected although it is true. The error accepts the alternative hypothesis, despite it being attributed to chance. Also referred to as a “false positive”.

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58
Q

Define Type II Error

A

A type II error is a statistical term used within the context of hypothesis testing that describes the error that occurs when one accepts a null hypothesis that is actually false. The error rejects the alternative hypothesis, even though it does not occur due to chance. Or Called false negative).

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59
Q

What does the research say about parental depression and effects on children (genetic).

A

A biological parent with depression increases the risk for the offspring to have depression. The risk is equal with one or two parents having depression.

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60
Q

Define acrostic

A

An acrostic is made up of words beginning with the first letter of each word or phrase that is to be remembered. “My very educated mother just sent us nachos.” Is an acrostic for the planets in the solar system).

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61
Q

Define the keyword method memory device

A

The keyword method is a mnemonic that is used for paired tasks in which two words must be linked. It involves creating an image for each word and visually joining the two images. To remember the word church in French (eglise), you could form an image of a church with a giant egg outside the doors.

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62
Q

Define chunking as a memory strategy

A

Grouping related items of information. To recall 21 numbers you might chunk them into groups of three. It is useful for maintaining information in working memory.

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63
Q

Byrne’s Law of Attraction emphasizes what?

A

Attitude similarity
People who have similar attitudes to us reinforce our perceptions of the world and consequently are associated with positive feelings that increase our attraction to them.

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64
Q

What does it mean when factors in a matrix are “oblique”?

A

The correlation coefficient for ay two factors is greater than zero.

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65
Q

If the correlation coefficient for any two factors in a factor matrices is equal to zero it is called?

A

Orthogonal (uncorrelated).

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66
Q

What type of genetic inheritance is responsible for Huntington’s, Marfans, and Von Willebrand?

A

Autosomal dominant

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67
Q

3/4 of relapses can be attributed to?

A

Negative emotional states, interpersonal conflicts, and social pressure

Urges and temptations only account for 11%

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68
Q

Older adults are at a high risk for _______________ with risk increased by medical illness and surgery.

A

Dilerium

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69
Q

Should parents be given records?

A

No…view but not given. Provider transfer better.

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70
Q

IPS for Helms’s disintegration phase?

A

Suppression of information and ambivalence

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71
Q

IPS for Helm’s Contact Status

A

Obliviousness and denial

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72
Q

Name and IPS for Helm’s last stage?

A

Autonomy

IPS: Flexibility and Complexity

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73
Q

IPS for Helm’s reintegration stage?

A

Selective Perception and Negative Out Group Distortion

Conflict resolved for idealizing White society and denigrating minority group members

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74
Q

Circular questions are used in family therapy for?

A

Recurrent family patters and interconnectedness of family members

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75
Q

Lineal questions in family therapy are used for…

A

Identify family problems and assume a cause and effect relationship

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76
Q

Why use strategic questions in family therapy?

A

To challenge and foster change

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77
Q

Why are reflexive questions used in family therapy?

A

Foster reflection so new options can be explored.

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78
Q

What four emotions can 3–4 month olds express with their facial expressions?

A

Interest
Sadness
Distress
Disgust

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79
Q

What age do infants express anger, joy, fear, surprises

A

6-8 months

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80
Q

Key Sx of intermittent explosive disorder

A

According to the DSM_5, intermittent explosive disorder is characterized by impulsive and aggressive outbursts. These outbursts can be in the form of verbal tirades or physical aggression. These outbursts are impulsive, not premeditated and extremely difficult to predict. Additionally, the outbursts happen without trigger or are not proportionate to the preceding trigger or stressor. To qualify for diagnosis, outbursts must occur about twice a week for at least three months (American Psychiatric Association, 2013).

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81
Q

Higher order conditioning

A

C.S. is paired with US until CR is established, subsequently a second CS is paired with the original C.S. until it also exhibits a CR

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82
Q

Sue and Sue describe two types of survival mechanisms used by African Americans with White?

A

Uncle Tom

Playing it cool

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83
Q

What would an MMPI-2 profile look like with random responding (or alternating TF)?

A

High scores on many of the clinical scales and a very high F

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84
Q

Define proband in a genetics study

A

The starting point, the person identified as the concern or holding the genetic issue

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85
Q

Which therapeutic approach is the best for short term gains with Bullemia?
How about long term?

A

CBT

CBT and IPT equally effective in long term for eating behaviors, attitudes towards shape and weight

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86
Q

Generally the first stage in LG identity development involves?

A

Feeling different than same gender peers

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87
Q

What should you do in order to maximize the multiple hurdles approach to personnel selection?

A

Predictors must be ordered in a logical manner (eg, easiest to hardest)

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88
Q

Define Proband

A

a person serving as the starting point for the genetic study of a family

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89
Q

What treatments show the best gains for Bulimia Nervosa in the short term?
Long Term?

A

CBT

CBT and IPT (similar effects on eating behaviors and attitudes towards weight and shape)

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90
Q

First stage of G/L identity development involves what?

A

Recognizing that he/she is different from same gender peers.

(Sensitization Stage - Troiden) occurs before puberty

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91
Q

What is important in doing a multiple hurdles approach to personnel selection?

A

The order in which the predictors are administered.

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92
Q

When reinforcing two behaviors and your remove one reinforcer what occurs?

What is this known as?

A

Increase in the the other behavior.

Behavioral Contrast

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93
Q

Can a psychologist compensate a newspaper employee for publicity?

A

No.

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94
Q

When is uninvited in-person solicitation of business by a psychologist permitting?

A

During disaster or community outreach

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95
Q

Define self-in-relation therapy?

A

Part of feminist theory that emphasizes the role of the mother-son versus mother-daughter relationship in creating gender differences in behavior.

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96
Q

How would you assess the reliability of a characteristic that fluctuates in severity or intensity over time?

A

Coefficient of internal consistency

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97
Q

What is the coefficient of equivalence useful for?

A

Used when equivalent forms of validity are used. Most cases used at different time points.

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98
Q

When is the coefficient of stability used?

A

When using test-retest reliability.

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99
Q

Define precocious puberty

A

Development of secondary sex characteristics prior to age 8 in girls and 8.5 in boys

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100
Q

What system is linked to precocious puberty?

A

Hypothalamic Pituitary Axis

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101
Q

What is the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis associated with?

A

Stress and Anxiety

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102
Q

What is the hippocampal-anterior axis involved in?

A

Memory (especially episodic)

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103
Q

What is the brain’s reward pathway down as?

A

Mesocorticolimbic-Dopaminergic System

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104
Q

Where is the superchiasmatic nucleus (SCN) located?

A

Hypothalamus

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105
Q

What structure is responsible for controlling circadian rhythms?

A

superchiasmatic nucleus (SCN) within the hypothalamus

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106
Q

Parten defined nonsocial play into what types?

A

Unoccupied
Onlooker
Solitary

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107
Q

Parten defined social play into what types?

A

Parallel
Associative
Cooperative

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108
Q

What should you do if you cannot stand the political views of your client?

A

Refer to other therapists

Not required to see every client

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109
Q

What should you use when the goal of testing is to determine the amount of content an individual has mastered?

A

Criterion-referenced (or content referenced) such as a percentage score

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110
Q

What type of scoring would you use for norm-referenced scores on how one individual stands compared to another?

A

Stanine Scores

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111
Q

What is an expectancy table?

A

Used when one measure (predictor) is sued to predict performance on another measure (criterion)
It is a criterion-referenced intepretation

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112
Q

Define detouring

Who created term?

A

When two partners avoid conflict between each other by focusing attention on helping or blaming a child?

Minuchin

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113
Q

What are three types of rigid triads as defined by Minuchin

A

Detouring
Stable Coalition
Triangulation

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114
Q

Define reframing

A

Paradoxical technique that involves providing an alternative meaning for a behavior so it can be seen from another prespective

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115
Q

Define Stable Coalition

A

When a parent and child consistently “gang up” against the other parent

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116
Q

Define Triangulation

A

When both parents attempt to get the child to side with him or her

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117
Q

What does an elevated L scale on the MMPI-2 indicate?

A

Lack of insight into their own behavior

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118
Q

What does an extremely low K (Correction) Scale indicate?

A

Acute psychological distress

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119
Q

What does a high score on the VRIN Scale on the MMPI-2 indicate?

A

Inconsistent reporting

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120
Q

What does a low L score mean on the MMPI-2?

A

Marking most or all items as true

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121
Q

What should you do if you suspect a colleague of violating ethical guidelines?

A

Either handle the situation informally or file a report, depending on what you believe is the most appropriate

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122
Q

Define base rate fallacy

A

Tendency to ignore relevant statistical date when making a probability judgment and try to rely, instead on irrelevant information

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123
Q

Define the Von . Restorff Effect

A

The tendency to remember very unusual or unique objects or events

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124
Q

Define the Forer Effect

A

Also known as the Barnum effect, the tendency to accept a very vague or general description of oneself (horoscope) as an accurate description

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125
Q

Define the availability heuristic

A

The tendency to focus on the most salient or affectively charged aspects of a stimulus or situation

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126
Q

What is the correction for attenuation formula used for?

A

To estimate what a predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient would be if the predictor and/or criterion had a reliability coefficient of 1.0

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127
Q

What are the three processing subtests on the WAIS-IV?

A

Symbol Search
Coding
Cancellation

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128
Q

TBI, mild Alzheimer’s dementia, and ADHD would all score low on what index?

A

Processing Speed Index

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129
Q

If a court determines that a procedure is having adverse impact it should…

A

Only use the procedure if there is evidence that it is valid and there are no alternative procedures.

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130
Q

What approaches do Sue and Sue recommend for American Indian/Alaskan Native Clients?

A

Combination of client-centered and behavioral approaches

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131
Q

Define A-not-B error

A

Children reach for an object when it is partially hidden but stop when it is fully hidden

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132
Q

At what age do infants begin to search fo a hidden object but reach for the object in the last place they found it even when they have seen the object moved to another location?

A

8 - 12 mo

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133
Q

How is short term memory believed to be encoded?

A

Acoustically

If shown T most likely to make the error by recalling D (sounds alike)

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134
Q

What is the general ethical rule regarding publication credit for a dissertation?

A

Student must be listed first unless exceptional circumstances occurred
Timeliness is one consideration

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135
Q

Fiedler’s Theory defined low-LPC as what type of orientation?

A

Task Oriented

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136
Q

Fiedler’s Theory defined high-LPC as what type of orientation?

A

Person Oriented

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137
Q

When are low-LPC leaders effective?

A

In extreme situations (situations very high or very low in favorableness)

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138
Q

When are high-LPC leaders effective?

A

In moderately favorable situations

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139
Q

What stage of Freud’s psychosexual development does a person feel guilt as a result of conflict between his or her unacceptable desires and a fear of being punished for those behaviors?

A

Phallic

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140
Q

Which stage in Freud’s psychosexual development is energy not focused on a particular part of the body?

A

Latency with emphasis on developing social skills

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141
Q

What does successful completion of the genital stage result in?

A

Desire if blended with affection to produce mature sexual relationships

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142
Q

What stage does the Oedipal or Electra conflict occur in Freud’s psychosexual development?

A

Phallic Stage

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143
Q

Sternberg’s Triarchic Model defined intelligence has having three components…

A

Analytical
Creative
Practical

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144
Q

Toddlers with mothers that have severe depression tend to have children that are….

A

Passively noncompliant with low levels of independence

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145
Q

How effective is single session Psychological Debriefing?

A

Not effective for PTSD and may exacerbate PTSD symptoms

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146
Q

Critical features of Social Anxiety Disorder

A

Marked fear or anxiety of fear or scrutiny by others in one or more social situations that is out of proportion to the actual threat posed by the situation.
Add performance only - if speaking in public

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147
Q

Critical features of panic disorder

A

Sudden unexpected panic attacks (not linked to a specific stressor)

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148
Q

Critical features of Specific Phobia

A

Marked fear or anxiety about a specific object or situation, (whereas Social Anxiety Disorder is related to a fear of scrutiny by others)

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149
Q

Critical features of Generalized Anxiety Disorder

A

Extreme anxiety and worry about multiple events or activities and the anxiety and worry are not necessarily due to a fear of scrutiny of others

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150
Q

Decline of working memory from increasing age is primarily due to….

A

The negative impact of aging on the central executive

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151
Q

Baddeley proposed working memory has three components…

A

Visuospatial sketchpad
Auditory/Phonological Loop
Central Executive - directs attention and controls and coordinates the two other systems

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152
Q

Baddeley system that is responsible for reorganizing of information or coordination of information in the sensory and auditory channels

A

Central Executive

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153
Q

Damage to Cerebellum might result in what…

A

Loss of timing

Tapping figure after metronome stops

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154
Q

What type of data is used with a Kappa Statistic?

A

Data are nominal or ordinal (discontinuous)

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155
Q

What is the Kappa Statistic used for?

A

Inter-Rater Reliability with Discontinuous data (ordinal or nominal)

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156
Q

What two factors did Herzberg propose?

A

Hygiene

Motivational

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157
Q

Give an example of a hygiene factor according to Herzberg?

A

Job security, pay, benefits, relationships with co-workers, working conditions, and company policies

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158
Q

What do hygiene factors contribute to (Herzberg)

A

Dissatisfaction with inadaquate

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159
Q

What do motivational factors contribute to (Herzberg)

A

Satisfaction and motivation when they are adaquate

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160
Q

Give examples of motivational factors (Herzberg)

A

Nature of the work and opportunities for responsibility, achievement and promotion

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161
Q

What is the exosystem according to Bronfenbrenner?

A

Factors that indirectly influence the child such as parents workplace and social networks

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162
Q

Define Microsystem according to Bronfenbrenner?

A

Aspects of the child’s environment that affect them directly (school/home)

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163
Q

Define Mesosystem according to Bronfenbrenner?

A

Interactions between elements of the microsystem (interaction between school and home)

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164
Q

Give examples of the Macrosystem according to Bronfenbrenner

A

Cultural values and customs, economic system

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165
Q

What is the 5th system proposed by Bronfenbrenne?

A

Chronosystem

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166
Q

Are children that receive stimulants for ADHD at higher risk for addiction?

A

No, compared to those with ADHD that do not receive stimulants (they are at lower risk)

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167
Q

What is the link between ADHD and substance abuse mediated by?

A

Conduct problems

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168
Q

The probability of making a Type I error is equal to?

A

Alpha

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169
Q

What is a Type I error?

A

A true null hypothesis is rejected and probability is equal to alpha

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170
Q

What is the probability of retaining a true null hypothesis?

A

One minus alpha

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171
Q

What is Beta

A

Not set by researcher, refers to the probability of making a Type II error

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172
Q

What is a Type II error?

A

Retaining a false null hypothesis

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173
Q

What is power equal to?

A

One minus Beta

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174
Q

What is the probability of rejecting a false null hypothesis?

A

One minus Beta

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175
Q

What is the level of significance?

A

Set by the researcher prior to analyzing data and referred to as Alpha

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176
Q

Schizophrenia is different in developing vs industrial countries in terms of?

A

Developing: exhibit an acute onset, shorter clinical course, and complete remission of symptoms
Age, gender and symptom profiles did not differ significantly

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177
Q

When do you use Spearman rho?

A

Correlate two variables measured in terms of rank

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178
Q

What correlation would you use when both variables are measured on a continuous scale?

A

Person Product Moment Coefficient

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179
Q

What coefficient would you use to determine the correlation between two dichotomous variables?

A

Phi Coefficient

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180
Q

What type of coefficient would you use when one variable is continuous and one is a true dichotomy?

A

Point Biserial Correlation

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181
Q

Who is most associated with the self-control model of depression?

A

Rehm - focuses on processes of self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement

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182
Q

A lack of continent reinforcement is related to what condition?
Who was the person?

A

Depression

Lewinsohn

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183
Q

Most interpretations of the Bender-Gestalt are directed at?

A

Screening for brain damage

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184
Q

Kobasa proposed three components of hardiness…

What is it linked to?

A

Commitment - strong sense of commitment to their lives and work

Control - over or influence events they encounter

Challenge - view change as a positive challenge (stressful life events, personality and health)

Maintain good health under conditions of stress

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185
Q

What are the five situations in the DSM-V for Agoraphobia?

What must be associated with the situation?

A

1) Using public transportation
2) Being in Open Spaces
3) Being in Enclosed Spaces
4) Standing in line or being part of a crowd
5) Being Outside the Home

Escape might be difficult or help will be unavailable

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186
Q

Attempting to Fake Bad can be detected on the MMPI-2

A

with a very high F scale or a very low K score

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187
Q

Who did the study on effectiveness of psychotherapy?

A

Smith, Glass and Miller

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188
Q

What was the effect size of Smith, Glass and Miller on psychotherapy?

A

.85 or 80% average therapy client was better off than about 80% when compared to whose who needed but did not receive

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189
Q

Formula for Effect Size?

A

Effect Size = (Mean of Experimental Group - Mean of Control Group)/SD

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190
Q

What does an effect size of 0.0 mean?

A

50% of control group who would be below average person in the experimental group

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191
Q

What does an effect size of 1.0 mean?

A

84% of the control group would be below the average person in the experimental group

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192
Q

In a normal distribution what percentage of cases fall below the score that is one SD above the mean?

A

84%

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193
Q

Key features of borderline personality disorder?

A

Instability of interpersonal relationships, self image, and affect
Marked impulsivity

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194
Q

Define illusions

A

Misperceptions of reality (e.g., misperceiving a coffee mug as a rodent
(Must be an actual stimulus)

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195
Q

MS symptoms of numbness, weakness, tremor and ataxia are due to?

A

Demylenation

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196
Q

What are the two stages in feature integration theory?

A

Preattentive - basic attributes of an object received in parallel (edges, size, color)
Attentive - features are glued together into coherent whole image though a serial process that depends on focal attention

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197
Q

Describe Bowen’s concept fo differention

A

The greater a person’s differentiation the better he/she is able to resist becoming emotionally fused with other family members

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198
Q

Describe Mahler’s separation-individuation phase?

A

Differentiation between object and self

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199
Q

When might a person be more willing to act aggressively or in other characteristic ways when acting as a member of a group than when acting alone?

A

When they experience a state of anonymity

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200
Q

Two neurotransmitters involved in pleasurable effects of cocaine?

A

Dopamine and Serotonin

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201
Q

When does a contrast effect occur?

A

When the evaluation of an applicant is affected by a previous applicant (e.g., previous applicant was bad, a mediocre applicant is likely to be evaluated more favorable than if the previously scored applicant was excellent

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202
Q

When does the fundamental attribution bias occur?

A

The tendency to attribute the behaviors of others to dispositional (versus situational) factors

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203
Q

Which hemisphere is specialized for language?

A

Left

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204
Q

What distinguishes between a classic and common migraine?

A

Classic begins with an aura

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205
Q

What type of seizure is characterized by loss of consciousness without prominent motor symptoms

A

Petit mal (absence)

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206
Q

What type of seizure is characterized by a sudden loss of muscle tone that causes the person to fall down?

A

Atonic

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207
Q

What type of seizure is characterized by jerky movements?

A

Clonic

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208
Q

What type of seizure starts with only one side fo the body being affected and does not cause a loss of consciousness?

A

Simple Partial (beings on one side of the brain)

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209
Q

Two possible effects of vicarious learning…

Proposed by…

A

Inhibition and Disinhibition

Bandura

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210
Q

An aha moment is called what?

By who?

A

Insight learning

Kohler

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211
Q

Instrumental learning is also known as…

A

conditioning…

Behavior is followed by reinforcement or punishment…operant conditioning

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212
Q

What is job satisfaction most related to?

A

Directly related to the tendency toward positive or negative affect which is a stable characteristic

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213
Q

What is an additive task?

A

Coordinated efforts of several people add together to form the group product

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214
Q

What is a compensatory task?

A

Average contributions will represent the group product

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215
Q

What is a disjunctive task?

A

The solution of one member of the group is chosen by the group to represent the group

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216
Q

What is a conjunctive task?

A

The performance of the least competent member places a limit on the group’s product or performance.
E.g., mountain climbing

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217
Q

When a predictor’s reliability coefficient is .81, its criterion related validity can be?

A

No greater than the square root of the reliability coefficient (or no greater than .90)

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218
Q

What is the serial position effect?

A

Tendency to recall items at the beginning and end of the list when recall begins immediately after the list
Explained by STM and LTM

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219
Q

What behavioral process explains systematic desensitization?

A

Extinction

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220
Q

A child with insecure/avoidant pattern of attachment shows…

A

little distress when separated from his/her mother and turns away from her when she returns

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221
Q

What are the attachment types described by Ainsworth?

A

Secure
Insecure/Ambivalent
Insecure/Avoidant
Disorganized/Disoriented

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222
Q

Delusional Disorder key sx

A

Delusions continue despite evidence and the delusions are circumscribed (only impacts fx related to delusions)
One month

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223
Q

Acute Stress Disorder key sx

A

Requires exposure to an actual or threatened death, severe injury, or sexual violation
At least 9x sx from categories intrusion, negative mood, dissociative sx, avoidance sx, arousal sx

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224
Q

Conversion Disorder key sx

A

Requires disturbance involuntary motor or sensory fx that suggests a serious neuro or medical condition without physical cause

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225
Q

Hypoglycemia Sx

A 
Intense hunger
Headaches
Anxiety
Dizziness
Weakness
Heart palpitations
Confusion
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226
Q

Hyperthyroidism Sx

A 
Heat intolerance
Tachycardia
Hyperactive Reflexes
Distractibility
Impaired Problem Solving
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227
Q

Hyperglycemia Sx

A 
Polydipsia
Polyuria
Polyphagia (excessive hunger)
Fatigue
Weight Loss
Recurrent Infections
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228
Q

Hypothyriodism

A 
Cold Intolerance
Bradycardia
Fatigue
Mental Slowing
Decreased Libido
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229
Q

Superordinate Goals are useful for…

A

Reducing intergroup conflict

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230
Q

MAOI + Aged Cheese =

From?

A

Hypertensive Crisis

Tyramine

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231
Q

What happens during aging to our focal points?
Called?
When?

A

Our near focal point will move away from our eyes
Presbyopia
40+

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232
Q

What causes shrinkage in test construction?

A

Cross-Validation

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233
Q

Define shrinkage in terms of test construction?

A

Reduction in the magnitude of a measure’s criterion-related validity coefficient

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234
Q

When does a test have differential validity?

A

A test has differential validity when it has different validity coefficients for different group

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235
Q

Define incremental validity?

A

The increase in decision making accuracy that results from the use of a predictor.

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236
Q

Define cross validation?

A

Validating a predictor with a new sample

Usually results in a lower validity coefficient

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237
Q

Which hemisphere controls language?

A

Left

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238
Q

Brain structure that is implicated in SAD

A

Suprachiasmatic Nucleaus

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239
Q

Is changing schools beneficial for peer rejection or peer neglect?

A

Peer Neglect

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240
Q

Phallic Stage (Freud) = _______ Erikson

A

Initiative vs Guilt

Ages 3-6

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241
Q

Latency Stage (Freud) = _______ Erikson

A

Industry vs Inferiority

Ages 6 - 11

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242
Q

Anal Stage (Freud) = _______ Erikson

A

Autonomy vs Shame and Doubt

Ages 1 -3

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243
Q

Oral Stage (Freud) = _______ Erikson

A

Basic Trust vs Mistrust

Birth - 1 Year

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244
Q

In contrast to effectiveness research, efficacy research…. in terms of validity

A

Better internal validity but limited external validity

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245
Q

Define concurrent validity

A

Concurrent validity is a type of Criterion Validity. If you create some type of test, you want to make sure it’s valid: that it measures what it is supposed to measure. Criterion validity is one way of doing that. Concurrent validity measures how well a new test compares to an well-established test. It can also refer to the practice of concurrently testing two groups at the same time, or asking two different groups of people to take the same test.

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246
Q

What is the 80% rule?

A

EEOC’s employee selection procedures, to determine if a selection or test is discriminating against a protected group

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247
Q

Who do you calculate the 80% rule?

A

If the proportion of the minority group applicants who are selected is less than 80% of the proportion of majority group applicants.

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248
Q

Difficulties in phonological processing have been linked to what disorder?

A 
Reading Disabilities (Dyslexia)
Other learning disorders
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249
Q

Research by Brown and Madan-Swain (1993) found that which of the following is true about treatments for childhood leukemia?

A

Chemotherapy and irritation are both associated with neurocognitive deficits.

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250
Q

Define Sleep Effect

A

The tendency to remember a message over time but to forget its source

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251
Q

Define Gambler’s Fallacy

A

The belief that a particular chance event is affected by the occurrence of previous events

252
Q

Define Illusory Correlation

A

Overestimate the link between two events that are unrelated or only slightly related
More likely to occur when other variables are distinctive (occur relatively infrequently)

253
Q

Define false consensus bias

A

Overestimate the number of people who share one’s beliefs, opinions and attitudes

254
Q

Define Base Rate Fallacy

A

Focus on a specific case rather than general information when reaching a conclusion or making a judgment

255
Q

Define Self-Perception Theory

A

Theory predicts that, in ambiguous situations, a person’s self-attributions are based on observations of cues in the external environment (e.g., the behavior of others)

256
Q

Long-term exposure to media violence has been shown to do what…

A
  1. Decrease in empathy and concern for victims
  2. Judge aggressive retaliation more positively than those that do not view
  3. Overestimate the amount of violence in society as well as the likelihood of becoming a victim
257
Q

Define Fundamental Attribution Bias

A

Tendency to attribute another person’s behavior to dispositional factors

258
Q

Define Confirmation Bias

A

Focusing on seeking out information that confirms our preconceptions

259
Q

Self Sering Bias

A

Tendency to take credit for our successes (dispositional attributions) while blaming our failure on others or the circumstances (situational attributions)

260
Q

Heterosexism

A

An ideological system that denies, denigrates and stigmatizes among nonheterosexual forms of behavior, identity, relationships, or community. Combination of the individual (psychological) and cultural heterosexism to violence against lesbians and gay men. (Herek)

261
Q

Elaboration Likelihood Model (ELM)

A

Central - results in more persistent attitude change as well as attitudes that are more predictive of behavior
Peripheral rely on environmental cues (length of message or attractiveness)
Note - immediate (ST) effects - both can produce the same amount of attitude change

262
Q

EML - Central

A

Active, Effortful Cognitive Processing (cognitive elaboration)

  • Neutral or negative mood
  • Message important or personally relevant
  • People with high need for cognition (think carefully about issues)
263
Q

EML - Peripheral

A

Reliance on simple decision-making rules
(Person delivering the message is good looking)
Receiver is in a positive mood

264
Q

Theory of Planned Behavior (3 elements)

A

Behavioral Intention

a. person’s attitude in engaging in the behavior
b. what the person believes other people think about the behavior
c. the person’s perceived behavioral control

265
Q

Hedonic Relevance

A

Potential source of bias when making attributions about the behaviors of another person and refers to the extent to which the other person’s behavior has positive or negative consequences for us

266
Q

Double-blind communication

A

“mixed message” (e.g., contradictory verbal and nonverbal behavior)

267
Q

Psychological reactance

A

Do the opposite of what is requested by another person because of loss of freedom
Used in family therapy to promote behavior change

268
Q

Symbolic Racism

A

Tendency to support equality as an abstract principle while opposing concrete methods to achieve it

269
Q

Scapegoat theory

A

From frustration-aggression hypothesis and proposes that prejudice is the result of displaced aggression

270
Q

In order for contact hypothesis to work…

A

members of both groups have = status and power

provided with opportunities to disconfirm negative stereotypes

271
Q

Crowded situations and gender

A

Men are more stressed and will react more aggressively and negatively

272
Q

Balance Theory (3 elements)

A

People prefer to have consistent cognitions and will be motivated to change a cognition in order to reduce disequilibrium they feel when they experience the inconsistency
Relationship between three elements:
a. the person
b. another person
c. third person, object, event or activity

273
Q

Social Judgment Theory

A

a. latitude of acceptance
b. latitude of non-commitment
c. latitude of rejection
If high ego involvement = less likely to be persuaded (latitude of rejection is large)

274
Q

Self Perception Theory

A

Predicts that we evaluate our internal state by looking at our external behavior

275
Q

Autokinetic Effect

A

a phenomenon of visual perception in which a stationary, small point of light in an otherwise dark or featureless environment appears to move
Sherif used to study conformity to group norms

276
Q

Referent Power

A

Person is admired, liked or respected and/or viewed as a role model

277
Q

Six bases of power (French and Raven)

A 
Coercive
Reward
Expert
Referent
Legitimate
Informational
278
Q

When is the attitude change the greatest in terms of discrepancy?

A

Initial level of discrepancy is moderate and when the communicator is mildly to moderately credible

279
Q

Point Biserial

A

Correlation Coefficient is appropriate when one variable represents a true dichotomy and the other is an interval or ratio (continuous scale)

280
Q

Pearson r

A

Correlation coefficient when both variables are measured on an interval or ratio scale

281
Q

phi coefficient

A

Both variables are true dichotomies

282
Q

Contingency Coefficient

A

Determine the degree of association between two nominal variables

283
Q

Discriminant function analysis

A

Used to predict or estimate a person’s status on a single nominal criterion from two or more predictors

284
Q

Path Analysis

A

Causal modeling technique that is an extension of multiple regression
Used to test the veracity of a causal theory or model
Must involve one-way causal flow

285
Q

Multiple Regression

A

Predict status on a single continuous criterion on two or more predictors

286
Q

Canonical correlation

A

Two more predictors to predict status on two or more continuous criteria

287
Q

Eta

A

Used to determine the degree of association between two continuous variables when their relationship is nonlinear

288
Q

LISREL

A

More complex than path analysis and not only includes 1 and 2 way paths but also takes into account both observed variables and the latent traits those variables are believed to measure

289
Q

Trend Analysis

A

Form of ANOVA
Used then the IV is quantitative
Determines whether there is a significant linear or non-linear effect of the IV on the DV

290
Q

Single Sample Chi Square vs Multiple Sample Chi Square

A

Chi square - analyze data from a descriptive study that has a single variable measured on a nominal scale
Multiple Samples Chi Square - Nominal Scale, more than one variable
Note sub variable for sample as a way to remember

291
Q

Mann-Whitney U Test

A

2 IV groups and the data to analyze is ordinal scale of measurement

292
Q

Wilcoxon Matched Pairs test

A

Used to compare the ranks obtained from two correlated matched groups

293
Q

t-test for single sample

A

compare a sample mean to a known population mean

294
Q

According to CLT the shape of the sampling distribtution of means approaches normal when…

A

the size of the sampling increases regardless of the shape of the population distribution of scores

295
Q

Counterbalancing

A

Controls for carryover effects by presenting the different levels of IV to participants in a different order

296
Q

Why use a Solomon four-group design?

A

When using a pretest so you can identify internal and external validity
Pretest is treated as an additional IV so effects on the DV can be systematically analyzed

297
Q

If an F-ration for the interaction between two IV’s is statistically significant…

A

The effects of one IV are contingent on the level of the second IV

298
Q

Define blocking (stats)

A

Allows the researcher to evaluate the main and interaction effects of the extraneous variable
The IV extraneous variable is treated like an IV

299
Q

How does one cluster for sampling?

A

Randomly selecting pre-existing groups of individuals from the population

300
Q

How does one do stratified random sampling?

A

Randomly selecting individuals from pre-defined groups in the population that are relevant to the research hypothesis

301
Q

When would you use interval recording?

A

When studying behaviors that have no fixed beginning or end

302
Q

Extraneous variables correlate with what?

A

The DV

303
Q

Main difference between experimental and quasi-experimental research is…

A

Participants are randomly assigned to treatment groups

304
Q

Interval scales allow what results…

A

Compare differences

305
Q

Only type of measurement that allows for determining 2x as much as from A to B

A

Ratio

306
Q

Yalom would do what if group members complain about others not disclosing and feeling defensive.

A

Encourage members to discuss the meaning of the conflict for them.

307
Q

Person who experiences cataplexy as part of their narcoleptic attacks will need to avoid

A

Expressing strong emotions

308
Q

Cataplexy

A

Bilateral loss of muscle tone usually triggered by strong emotions

309
Q

Interoceptive Exposure

A

Exposure to bodily sensations associated with anxiety reactions

310
Q

Basic premise underlying goal-setting theory

A

A person’s conscious goals and intentions regulate his or her actual behavior (goal acceptance is paramount)

311
Q

Tulving divided memory into three types…

A

Procedural - learned skills and modifiable cognitive operations
Episodic - how things appeared and when they occurred
Semantic - all info we need to use language, involving words and the symbols for them, meanings, referents (what they represent) and rules for manipulating words and symbols such as rules of English Grammar, rules for adding and multiplying and chemical formulas

312
Q

Describe parent’s gender stereotype impact on math ability…

A

Maternal and paternal stereotypes have an impact on the math interests of both boys and girls.
Dad = +interest for boys; - for girls
Mom = - for both

313
Q

MMPI-2 Profiles for Mom’s going through custody avals and exhibited parental alienation syndrome

A

Elevated L and K

Low F

314
Q

Babinkski Reflex

A

Stoke sole of infants foot, big toe bends backward and other toes fan out (ends at 8-12 mo, unknown fx)

315
Q

Moro Reflex

A

Startle reflex, response to loud noise or sudden movement, baby throws his her head back, extends arms and legs, and bring arms and legs inward

316
Q

Palmar Reflex

A

Also known as the palmar grasp reflex - object placed in the palm of an infant’s hand or his pal is stroked

317
Q

Root Reflex

A

Baby’s mouth is touched and baby turns in the direction of the touch and opens mouth

318
Q

Stanine Score

A

Nine-Point Scale

319
Q

Reward Power

A

Makes use of rewards and incentives

320
Q

Referent Power

A

Have employees that admire their leader

321
Q

Nonsexist therapy and feminist therapy…

A

use unbias techniques and focus on personal growth

322
Q

Motivator for Maslow

A

Ungratified needs (always from lower to higher)

323
Q

ERG Theory

A

Existence - physiological and safety
Relatedness - social needs
Growth - Esteem and Self-Actualization Needs,
(Simplified ver of Maslow)
In his theory, you can regress to a lower level need

324
Q

When is a response brought under stimulus control?

A

When the person learns to respond in situations in which reinforcement is likely but not in situations in which no reinforcement (or punishment) is likely.

325
Q

Shaping

A

Type of reinforcement in which successive approximations to the desired response are reinforced

326
Q

Overcorrection

A

Type of punishment
Application of a negative event or the removal of a negative event
Restitutional type - person is asked to do what a normal person would do to correct the situation (person experiences the effort needed to restore the situation)
Positive Practice Type - Repeatedly practices the behavior (put gum in mouth, remove, wrap in paper and throw in trash)

327
Q

Reminiscence bump

A

Tendency for adults 65+ to have the largest number of memories for events that occurred between 10 & 30

328
Q

Alpha Error is to False Positive as…

Beta Error is to…

A

False Negative

329
Q

How does Haloperidol (Haldol)work?

A

Blocks dopamine receptors

Dopamine Antagonist

330
Q

NT Systems related to Social Phobias

A

Serotonergic and Dopaminergic

331
Q

Symptoms of hyperthyroidism

A 
Sudden weight loss
Tachycardia
Increased appetite
Nervousness, anxiety and irritability
Tremor — usually a fine trembling in your hands and fingers
Sweating
Increased sensitivity to heat
Fatigue, muscle weakness
Difficulty sleeping
332
Q

Symptoms of Raynaud’s disease

A

Restricted blood flow to fingers or toes
Pallor - pale look
Paresthesia - burning or prickling sensation that is usually felt in the hands, arms, legs, or feet
Pain

333
Q

Hypoglycemia

A

Hunger, Dizziness and Depression

334
Q

CBT with older adults

A

Effective if

  • Slower Pace
  • Higher levels of abstractions (usage and classification of specific examples, literal (“real” or “concrete”) signifiers, first principles, or other methods)
335
Q

Informed Consent…

A

Requires psychologists to provide potential research participants with specific information in “reasonably understandable language” prior to consenting to participate.

336
Q

Pygmalion Effect

A

Self Fulfilling or Rosenthal Effect - person’s expectations about another individual actually produce subtle changes in the behavior so that behavior confirms to expectation

337
Q

Correspondence Bias

A

a.k.a. Fundamental Attribution Bias - tendency for observers to attribute another person’s behavior to dispositional (rather than situational) factors

338
Q

Progressive-Waiting Approach

A

Keep waiting longer before returning to a crying child

339
Q

Piaget attributed animistic thinking to what stage and to what characteristic

A

Preoperational

Egocentrism

340
Q

Beck viewed interpretations and assumptions underlying a client’s problems as…

A

Testable hypotheses

341
Q

Teraplegia results from injury to what level of the spine

A

C1-C7

342
Q

Paraplegia

A

Damage to T9-T12

Some trunk control and maybe able to walk short distances with assistive device

343
Q

Injury of S3-S5

A

Loss of bladder control and bowel control

Numbness in the perineum

344
Q

What is the more commonly used term for Quadriplegia

A

Tetraplegia

345
Q

Damage to lumbar level of spine

A

leg weakness and numbness

346
Q

Situational Leadership Model…employee is both competent and confident

A

Delegating

347
Q

Hersey and Blanchard’s Situational Leadership Model matches what and what?

A

Leaderstyle to match “maturity level” of employee

-Ability and Motivation

348
Q

Participatory leadership style works when

A

employees are moderate to high in maturity (are able but unwilling or insecure)

349
Q

Telling Leadership Style

A

Low in maturity (both unable and unwilling/insecure)

350
Q

When does code-switching occur?

A

When bilingual speakers go back and forth between languages during the course of a conversation as a way to better express themselves OR to express solidarity to one’s own culture

351
Q

Under approach-avoidant conflict model, what happens as it gets closer to the time to implement

A

Positive and negative aspects increase but the negative aspects increase more

352
Q

A person with a high level of achievement motivation will attribute failure to…

A

unstable internal factors or stable external factors

353
Q

Cross - stage most likely to see a white therapist

A

Pre-Encounter

354
Q

Leadership theory with a decision tree

A

Vroom-Yetto-Jago

355
Q

Survey feedback method in an organization is used to…

A

provide employees with information about the organization’s strengths and weaknesses

356
Q

Akathisia

A

Unpleasant feelings of physical restlessness

  • Extrapyramidal side effect of neuroleptic drugs
  • Symptom of Parkinson’s disease
357
Q

Dystonia

A

Spasms and contortions

358
Q

Akinesia

A

Motor and psychic hypoactivity

359
Q

Propranolol (Inderal) Side Effects

A

Bradycardia, Depression (insomnia, lassitude, fatigue), Nausea, vomiting and light-headedness
Beta Blocker

360
Q

Five year old’s nighttime fear of dark treatment

A

Coping self-statements and positive imagery

361
Q

Good et al, found that for male college students which subscale on the GRSC is most predictive os psychological distress

A

Restrictive Emotionality

362
Q

Antisocial PD key feature

A

Disregard for and the violation of the rights of others

Lack of remorse

363
Q

When does holophrastic speech begin?

A

12-18 months

364
Q

When does telegraphic speech begin

A

18-24

365
Q

Why are employee surveys conducted?

A

Evaluate employee attitudes and opinions about an intervention

366
Q

A team working on an independent task…

A

a combination of group and individual goals result in better performance than individual goals
(Goal-Setting Theory)

367
Q

Shaping depends on what…

A

positive reinforcement

368
Q

What type of learning occurs without direct reinforcement?

A

Latent

369
Q

Test for a 5 year old that is deaf

A

Hiskey-Nebraska

370
Q

Halstead-Reitan

A

Screening test for brain damage that assesses sensorimotor, perceptual and language functioning

371
Q

Kaufman Assessment Battery

A

Culturally fair measure of cognitive ability aged 2-18

372
Q

Fagan Test

A

Infant Intelligence from 3 to 12 months of age

373
Q

Delusional Disorder requires

A

One or more delusions for at least one month

374
Q

Vineland-II

A

Assess for Intellectual Disability

375
Q

Preparation Stage requires

A

Clear intent to take action in the near future

376
Q

Contemplation Strage requires

A

Awareness for the need to change, considering it but not yet committed

377
Q

Action stage requires

A

Taking steps to bring about the change

378
Q

Maintenance Stage

A

Consolidates the change and take steps to prevent relapse

379
Q

Interoceptive Expsoure

A

Involves exposure to bodily sensations associated with anxiety reactions
e.g., elevated heart rate, hyperventilation
By - inhale CO or spin in a chair

380
Q

Premise underlying goal-setting theory

A

Person’s conscious goals and intentions regulate behavior

381
Q

Consciousness raising, dramatic relief, and environmental re-evaluation assist from going from what state to what stage?

A

Precontemplation to contemplation

382
Q

In comparison to popular children, less popular children tend to be…

A

Less intelligent
Less physically attractive
Less Cooperative
(But NOT less friendly or sociable)

383
Q

Personality Traits x Biological sex:
Males - Antisocial PD
Females -

A

Histrionic

384
Q

REM and dreaming

A

Most vivid dreams in REM

Non-Rem - less vivid and elaborate and more realistic

385
Q

Somnolence

A

Stage 1 Sleep

386
Q

Type of social power for therapists

A

Expert and Referent

387
Q

Relationships between unemployment and mental health

A

rates of depression and other neurotic disorders are substantially higher among the unemployed than the employed (some studies find 2x higher rates)

388
Q

BARS are anchored by

A

Critical Incidents

389
Q

Relapse on smoking cessation

A

About two thirds of smokers who quit on their own or with the assistance of an intervention relapse within three months of quitting

390
Q

What percentage of of smokers are successful each year?

A

2.5%

391
Q

Left-Right confusion is likely caused by a legion in the…

A

Left parietal region specifically the left angular gyrus between the parietal and temporal lobes

392
Q

Symptoms of Gerstmann’s Syndrome

A

Dysgraphia/agraphia: deficiency in the ability to write.
Dyscalculia/acalculia: difficulty in learning or comprehending mathematics.
Finger agnosia/anomia: inability to distinguish the fingers on the hand. Left-right disorientation

393
Q

Describe Minuchin’s structural family therapy

A

Manipulative, unyielding and crisis provoking

Techniques - marking boundaries, escalating stress, utilizing symptoms, and manipulating moods

394
Q

Health Belief Model

A

Perceived severity, perceived susceptibility and perceived benefits

395
Q

What type of scores are best for mastery

A

Criterion Referenced Scores - Will tell you in absolute terms Right/Wrong

396
Q

Ipsative

A

Forced choice - pick between two or more desirable options

397
Q

Sue study of therapy effectiveness

A

Hispanic Americans, Anglos, Asian Americans and lastly African Americans

398
Q

Drug for treatment of Alzheimer’s Disease

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors - reduce the breakdown of ACh

399
Q

Parkinson’s disease - drug tx

A

Dopamine Ago ists

400
Q

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) drug tx

A

Dopamine agonist

401
Q

Restless leg syndrome drug tx

A

Dopamine Agonist

402
Q

Paired Associate Task

A

Individual respond with one member of a pair when presented with the other pair - used for studying verbal learning

403
Q

Serial learning tast

A

Learn a group of words in a particular order - used for studying verbal learning

404
Q

% of co-occurrence of LD with ADHD

A

20-30 percent

405
Q

LD co-diagnosis of what disorders

A

ADHD, Tourette’s Disorder, and/or mood disorder

406
Q

Infantile Anesia

A

Memories prior to age 3-4 are limited and not completely gone

407
Q

Ataxia

A

Symptom of MS characterized by impaired coordination and balance
In MS damage to cerebellum, dorsal spinal cord or vestibular system

408
Q

Symptoms of MS

A 
vision problems
tingling and numbness
pains and spasms
weakness or fatigue
balance problems or dizziness
bladder issues
sexual dysfunction
cognitive problems
409
Q

Standard Error of the Mean is increased by…

A

The SD of the population increasing

410
Q

Formula for the Standard Error of the Mean

A

Population SD/Square Root of the sample size

411
Q

What is the mechanism of action for drugs prescribed for Tourette’s Syndrome?

A

Blocking dopamine transmission

e.g., Haloperidol

412
Q

What is Otitis Media (OM)?

A

Inflammation of the middle ear.
Can negatively impact school achievement through attention problems (especially with language, language deficits and school lower school achievement

413
Q

What is advocacy consultation?

A

Focuses on social systems rather than individuals or small groups
“explicit value orientation that targets social change in the direction of power equalization.”

414
Q

What will an insecure/ambivalent do in Strange Situation?

A

Hit or push mother when she approaches and continue to cry after she picks the child up

415
Q

Inhalant Intoxication sx

A 
Dizziness
Nystagmus (rapid involuntary movement of the eyes)
Incoordination
Lethargy
Depressed Reflexes
Psychomotor retardation
Muscle weakness
Blurred Vision
Stupor/Coma
Euphoria
Unsteady Gait
Slurred Speech
Tremor
416
Q

Cannabis Intoxication

A

Increased appetite
Dry mouth
Tacycardia

417
Q

Opioid Withdrawal

A

Nausea
Vomiting
Muscle aches

418
Q

Stimulant Withdrawal

A

Fatigue
Vivid and unpleasant dreams
Increased appetite

419
Q

Effects of head start?

A

Have benefits related to academic outcomes, social adjustment and employment
(IQ gains not maintained)

420
Q

When would you use a domain-referenced score?

A

Determining an examinee’s level of masters on a particular content domain
(e.g., 70 out of 100 on math test)

421
Q

When would you use a criteria-referenced score?

A

To predict performance on external criterion

422
Q

Sensory compensation in deaf children…

A

Perform similarly to children without hearing deficits on most visual tasks
(Sensory compensation hypothesis not supported, due to use of sign language)

423
Q

WAIS-IV Working Memory Subtests

A

Digit Span
Arithmetic
Letter-Number Sequencing

424
Q

WAIS-IV Verbal Comprehension Subtests

A

Vocabulary
Similarities
Informaion
Comprehension

425
Q

WAIS-IV Procssing Speed Subtests

A

Symbol Search
Coding
Cancellation

426
Q

WAIS-IV Perceptual Reasoning Subtests

A 
Block Design
Matrix Reasoning
Visual Puzzles
Figure Weights
Picture Completion
427
Q

How is memory in sensory memory stored?

A

Coded in the form of the orginal stumulus

428
Q

What is George Kelly known for…

A

Personal Constructs Therapy - bipolar dimensions of meaning that determine how a person perceives, interprets and predicts events
Constructivist Approach

429
Q

Fritz Perls is associated with…

A

Gestalt Therapy

430
Q

Victor Frankl is associated with…

A

Existential Therapy

431
Q

William Glasser is associated with…

A

Reality Therapy

432
Q

A researcher wants to compare the effects of four different prevention programs on willingness to use safe-sex practices for sexually active male and female adolescents. Participants will be randomly assigned to one of the four programs and six months later will be asked to indicate if they engaged in safe sex all of the time, some of the time, or never. What stats test do you use?

A 
Multiple-sample chi-square test
2x IV (prevention program and gender)
1x DV (safe sex practices)
433
Q

What approach was used to derive the big 5?

A

Lexical - Atheoretical and based on the assumption that socially-relevant personality traits have been incorporated into language
Started with the dictionary and did factor analysis

434
Q

Sx of Substance Use Disorder

A

Impaired Control
Social Impairment
Risky Use
Pharmacological Criteria (tolerance and withdrawal)

435
Q

Holland’s Occupational Themes

A

Job related behaviors are related to the similarities between basic personality and characteristics fo the work environment

436
Q

Super’s Career Theory

A

Role of self-concept in vocational development and choice

437
Q

Erg Theory

A

Motivation theory that has three basic needs: existence, relatedness and growth

438
Q

Roe’s Career Theory

A

Relationship between childhood experience and occupational choice

439
Q

What are the negative impacts of rotating shifts?

A

Fatigue
Concentration problems
Performance Errors

440
Q

How do you reduce the negative effects of rotating shifts?

A

Rotate Clockwise either rapid (every three days) or slow (every three weeks)

441
Q

You conduct a research study to assess the effects of TV violence on aggressive behavior. You plan to observe sixteen children during recess for three days and calculate their average number of aggressive acts. You will then have all children observe aggressive TV programs for 3 hours and again observe the children during recess for three days and calculate their average number of aggressive acts. What stats test?

A

t-Test of Correlated Samples

Collecting two means from same group of participants (related/correlated)

442
Q

According to Gyorgy Gergely (1994), visual feature representation is a necessary precondition for…

A

Mirror self-recognition
Occurs between 1 1/2 to 2 years
Seen also in dolphins and elephants

443
Q

Serial Position Effects is explained by what memory theory?

A

Multi-Store (three box) odel of memory

444
Q

When is memory maximized with the processing model?

A

When information is coded semantically

445
Q

Motor Milestones for three year old children include

A 
pedaling a tricycle
Kicking a stationary ball forward
Throwing a ball overhand
Going up stairs using alternate feet
Running without falling
446
Q

Motor Milestones for two year old children include

A

Climbing up on furniture
Walking alone
Walking up and down stairs one at a time
Catching a large ball using hands and chest

447
Q

Motor Milestones for four year old children include

A 
Hopping on one foot
Standing on one leg
Running to kick a ball
Bouncing a ball
going down stairs using alternate feet
448
Q

Motor Milestones for five year old children include

A 
Riding a scooter/bicycle
Jumping Rope
Hopping on alternate Feet
Jumping over low obstacles
Catching a ball with both hands and arms bent
449
Q

Sx of stroke in middle cerebral artery in dominant hemisphere

A

Contralateral weakness and sensory loss in the arm and face and aphasia
(supplies blood to frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes)

450
Q

Sx of posterior cerebral artery infarct

A

Memory impairment and cortical blindness with denial of the disability

451
Q

Sx of anterior cerebral artery infarct

A

Contralateral weakness and sensory loss in the leg, amnesia and depression

452
Q

When is dummy coding used?

A

So that categorical variables can be used in a multiple regression equation

453
Q

Using the dimensions of emotion to compare anxiety and depression, anxiety invovles

A

Similar level of negative affect

Higher levels of both autonomic arousal and positive affect

454
Q

What test provided Broadbent (1958) with support of his filter theory of attention?

A

Dichotic listening task

455
Q

What do you do to identify the needs for retraining employees?

A

Conduct a needs assessment

456
Q

What do you do to determine wages and salaries?

A

Conduct job evaluations

457
Q

What is the outcome of a needs analysis?

A

Training objectives

458
Q

What is a. personnel audit?

A

Part of an organizational assessment which is part of a needs assessment

459
Q

Research on Tourette’s Syndrom has linked excessively active dopamine receptors in the….

A

Caudate Nucleus

460
Q

Fx of Caudate Nucleus

A

Automatic Movement (hypersensitivity is linked to Tourette’s Syndrome)

461
Q

When is risk of suicide the greatest with Bipolar Disorder?

A

When depressive sx have become less severe

bc of increased energy and planning ability

462
Q

A child has just progressed into Kohlberg’s conventional level of moral development, has just been caught stealing from other children. What do you do?

A

Help her understand how the children she steals from feel about having their things taken

463
Q

PTSD Sx Clusters

A 
Intrusion
Avoidance
Cognition and Mood
Arousal
Reactivity
464
Q

Describe hostile attribution bias

A

Aggressive children are more likely that non aggressive children to interpret the ambiguous actions of peers as intentionally hostile
Due to deficits in social information processing

465
Q

Define overcorrection

A

Form of punishment and involves applying a penalty following an undesirable behavior in order to reduce or eliminate that behavior. It has two phases: restitution and positive practice

466
Q

A researcher wants to compare the immediate and long-term effects of three different treatments for PTSD. Consequently, she randomly assigns individuals who were recently exposed to the same trauma to either EMDR, stress inoculation or in vivo exposure group and then assesses their symptoms one week, one month, and three months after the end fo treatment. What type of design is this?

A

Mixed - involves at least one between groups variable and one within-subjects variable
2 IV
1 between group (type of tx) and 1 within-subjects (time)

467
Q

What is quality assurance focused one?

A

Quality of services provided

468
Q

Which design involves administering each level of the IV to participants so that it appears the same number of times in each position (first, second, third)

A

Latin Square

469
Q

What is a Latin Square Design?

A

Type of conterbalanced design that assusres that each Tx (level of IV) appears an equal n umber of times in each ordinal position

470
Q

Factorial Design

A

2 or more factors each with discrete possible levels that takes into account all possible combinations of levels across all factors

471
Q

Time Series Design

A

Single treatment group measured at multiple times

472
Q

Solomon Design

A

Four group test, standardized pretest-posttest two group design and the post test only control design

473
Q

Who described a. career concept that can be described as linear, expert, spiral or transitory

A

Brousseau and Driver

474
Q

How did Tiedeman and O’Hara describe career theory?

A

Role of Ego as defined by Erikson that involves repetitive process of differentiation and integration

475
Q

Which NT is responsible for the effects of alcohol on cognitive abiliities?

A

Glutamate

Memory impairment and blackouts

476
Q

What NT is enhanced by alcohol and may contribute to increased socialility?

A

GABA (inhibitory)

477
Q

Which NT is responsible for alcohol craving?

A

Serotonin

478
Q

Spinal cord injury below the first thoracic vertebra will result in?

A

Paraplegia

479
Q

Spinal cord injury above the first thoracic vertebra will result in?

A

Quadriplegia

480
Q

Sx of ALS (amyotropic lateral scierosis)/Lou Gehrig’s Disease

A

Degenerative disease that leads to loss of muscle control and paralysis

481
Q

Define myasthenia gravis

A

Grave muscle weakness

482
Q

What areas of the body are most impacted by Myasthenia Gravis

A 
Weakness in
eye muscles
facial expression
Chewing
Swallowing
483
Q

Fibromyalgia Sx

A

muscular pain, stiffness, spasms
fatigue
GI Disorders
Depression

484
Q

Huntington’s Disease

A

Hereditary disease with jerky movements, impaired memory/judgement and depression

485
Q

Critical part of Bandura’s social cognitive theory?

A

Vicarious Learning

486
Q

Critical part of Vygotsky;s Sociocultural theoy

A

Scaffolding - assistance given by learner by teacher within the learner’s zone of proximal development

487
Q

Define equilibrium in terms of developmental theory and give author

A

Piaget’s constructivism - drive to achieve an optimal state of balance between one’s cognitive structures and the demands of the environment

488
Q

Racial/Cultural ID Model - person who has contradictory appreciating and depreciating attitudes toward both his/her own culture and the dominant (majority) culture is in what stage?

A

Dissonance

489
Q

Client-Centered Case Culsultation

A

Consultant assists the consultee with a particular client or student

490
Q

Consultee-Centered

A

focus is on the consultee and the consultant helps the consultee acquire the knowledge or skills needed to work effectively with clients/students

491
Q

Low in control and low in warmth

A

Rejecting/Neglecting

Most likely group to be antisocial and use alcohol, achieve low scores on cognitive tests

492
Q

Low Control and High Warmth

A 
Permissive/Laissez Faire
Poor outcomes but not as bad as rejecting/neglecting
Immature
Impulsive
Self Centered
Low in achievement-orientation
493
Q

High Control and Low Warmth

A 
Athoritarian
Aggressive
Mistrusting
Dependent
Low Self Esteem
Low academic achievement
494
Q

High Control and High Warmth

A 
Authoritative
Best outcomes
Mature
Resilient
Achievement Oriented
Responsible
Do well in school
495
Q

Jigsaw classroom

A

Students work together to complete assignments

Help reduce intergroup hostility related to racial, ethnic or cultural differences

496
Q

Complementary Transactions

A

Between unequals

497
Q

Symmetrical transactions

A

Occurs between equals

498
Q

Parallel transactions

A

Combination of complementary and symmetrical transactions

499
Q

ADHD - confirm symptoms before what age and in how many settings?

A

12 and 2

Several inattentive or hyperactive symptoms present prior to 12

500
Q

Bem thoughts…

A 
Gender Schema Theory
Conceptual frameworks (schemas) of M and F as the result of sociocultural experiences
501
Q

What are quality circles (QC)?

A

Workers who make suggestions to management about solutions to working related problems

502
Q

What do optimistic people do with negative events?

A

Attribute to external, specific and unstable (temporary) causes

503
Q

Formative Evaluation

A

Guide the development of a. program so that the final version will maximize the likelihood that it will achieve its goals

504
Q

Summative Evaluation

A

Conducted after a training program has been developed and administered to trainees to assess program outcomes

505
Q

Needs assessment

A

conducted to determine if performance problems can be alleviated by providing training and to identify the content of the training

506
Q

Telegraphic speech age

A

18-24 mo

507
Q

Klinefelter’s syndrome genetics and Sx

A 
XXY
Small testicles
Infertility
Enlarged breast tissue
scant facial and body hair
Decreasedlibido
508
Q

Vygotsky’s learning…

A

socially mediated then self mediated

509
Q

Piaget’s Developmental Theory

A

Theory of genetic epistemology

Build cognitive structures in active and adaptive ways

510
Q

Dewey’s Theory

A

Empahasizes experiential aspects of learning, learning is the result of our experiences and attempts to make sense of those experiences

511
Q

Gagne’s Approach to learning

A

Instruction (information processing approach)

Focuses on learning outcomes

512
Q

Depth perception

A

Combination both
binocular cues - short distances (retinal disparity)
monocular cues - greater distances (interposition - object blocked by another) (Linear perspective - tendency for parallel lines to appear to converge as they approach the horizon)

513
Q

Reciprocal determinism

A

Bandura’s social learning theory - there is a reciprocal (interactive) relationship between a person’s

  • behavior
  • Personal Factors (cognition, affect, and biological events)
  • Their environment
514
Q

Piaget’s Concrete Operational Stage - Ages

A

7 to 11

515
Q

High LPC leaders focus on

A

Maintaining good interpersonal relationships

516
Q

Low LPC Leaders

A

Task Oriented

517
Q

Transductive (precausal) reasoning

A

Understanding cause and effect (limitation of preoperational stage)

518
Q

Defered imitation does not occur until when and what develops

A

Mental representation after 18 mo

519
Q

What is a mental shortcut or rule of thumb used to make decisions?

A

Heuristics

520
Q

What was alcohol dependence replaced by in the DSM V

A

Alcohol Use Disorder

521
Q

Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder

A

Pattern of culturally inappropriate and overly familiar behaviors with unfamiliar people with evidence that the behavior is related to the experience of extremely insufficient care

522
Q

Acromatopsia

A

Complete loss of color vision from a lack of functioning cone cells
Autosomal recessive disorder

523
Q

Color agnosia

A

inability to name or discriinate between colors

524
Q

Akinetopsia

A

Inability to preceive moving objects

525
Q

Propagnosia

A

Inability to recognize familiar faces

526
Q

Normative-Reeductive Strategy

A

Based on premise that peer pressure and sociocultural norms are effective for promoting change

527
Q

Facet Satisfaction (Lawler’s 1973)

A

Job satisfaction is affected by comparisons of one’s own inputs and the outcomes to the inputs and outputs of others

528
Q

Optimal item difficulty (p) on a true false test?

A

.75

Half way between 100% of everyone answering the questions correctly and guessing by chance alone (.5)

529
Q

Kernberg

A

Object relations view that early social relations impact future social relations

530
Q

Presence of hygiene factors does what

A

Ensures that workers are not dissatisfied (will not make them satisfied)

531
Q

Two factor theory by…and when does motiviation increase

A

As job responsibility and. autonomy increase

532
Q

Outcomes for members of. the minority group are enhanced by what tow factors?

A

Credibility

Giving - normalization of the clients problems and instillation of hope

533
Q

Communality

A

The proportion of variance accounted for by multiple factors in a single variable

534
Q

What happens to social support and discussion of intimate topics in crowding?

A

They both go down

535
Q

When is a central route of information processing used?

A

when the listener is motivated, relevance of the message affects motivation

536
Q

Parkinson’s Personality

A

Melancholia
Introversion
Pessimism

537
Q

Social Referencing

A

Mother looked to as as signal of safety as part fo the visual cliff experimental design for attachment studies

538
Q

Tics for Tourette’s start on average from age what to what?

A

5 to 7

539
Q

Vocal tics in Tourette’s start at what age?

A

11 years

540
Q

Herbert Simon studied what?

A

Individual Decision Making

Pioneer in AI

541
Q

What condition is biofeedback more efficacious than relaxation training?

A

Raynauds Disease

542
Q

What is frame of reference training used for in organizations?

A

Increase rater accuracy

543
Q

What is an advantage of resperidone?

A

Less likely to. produce extrapyramidal side effects

544
Q

Drug for premature ejaculation

A

SSRI

545
Q

What NT over produced can cause or exacerbate premature ejaculation?

A

Dopamine

546
Q

Anosognosia

A

Deficit in self-awareness and more specifically awareness of one’s own symptoms
Most often caused by brain trauma that affects the right hemisphere of the brain

547
Q

ECT SE

A

Patchy anterograde amnesia and temporary retrograde amnesia

548
Q

To compare how well an examinee did on a test compared to otehr examinees you would use…

A

Norm-referenced interpretation

549
Q

Criterion-Referenced Interpretation

A

Examinees performance is interpreted in terms of an external criterion (a specific standard of performance)

550
Q

Centration

A

Focusing on only one aspect of a situation while neglecting others
Primary reason by preoperational children cannot conserve

551
Q

Transductive reasoning

A

Part of preoperational stage

Tendency to see a causal relationship between events that occur in a sequence when none exists

552
Q

Empirical Criterion Keying

A

Include items on the test that have been found to accurately distinguish between people who do and do not possess the traist measured by a scale or subtest

553
Q

Gradually increasing the intensity or severity of punishment will reduce its effectiveness because of

A

habituation

554
Q

Satiation

A

Reinforcer loses its reinforcing value because the person has received too much reinforcement

555
Q

Sensitization (punishment)

A

Individuals’ response to a neutral (innocuous) stimulus increases after the individual has been exposed to a punishing (aversive) stimulus)

556
Q

Prosopagnosia casued by legions in the

A

junction of the. occipital, temproal and parietal lobes

557
Q

Strongest predictor of intellectual disability with unknown eitiology?

A

Low birth weight

558
Q

Alcohol Withdrawal Sx

A

Hand tremor
Insomnia
Hallucinations
Seizures

559
Q

Stimulant Withdrawl Sx

A

Dysphoric Mood
Vivid Dreams
Insomnia/hypersomnia
Increased appetite

560
Q

Opiod Withdrawl

A

Dysphoric Mood
Pupillary Dialation
Insomnia
Fever

561
Q

Tx for Agoraphobia

A

Must include in vivo exposure

562
Q

eta squared

A 
effect size (magnitude of a treatment effect) indicates the amount of variability in an outcome measure accounted for by the effects fo the treatment
Square of the correlation coefficient
563
Q

Cohen’s d

A

Effect size, measure of the mean difference between two groups

564
Q

When do you get an F-ratio

A

Analysis of variance

565
Q

Test for intelligence that does not rely on language

A

Raven’s Standard Progressive Matrices

6 years and older

566
Q

Cognitive Abilities Test (CogAT)

A

Measure fo reasoning ability often used to determine placement in a gifted/talented program

567
Q

Age in which most children express more favorable attitudes towards members of their own racial or ethnic group

A

4

568
Q

Type of antidepressant most likely to. produce sedation

A

Tricyclics (Pamelor)

569
Q

Examinee obtains a T-score fo 60. The raw distribution is normal. Mean of 45 and SD of 5. The percentile rank is?

A

84

T score of 60 is one SD above the mean

570
Q

Drug for MDD with atypical features

A

MAOIs or SSRIs

571
Q

If multiple relationship is unaviodable what do you do?

A

“take reasonable steps” to resolve in a way that protects the best interests of the affected person

572
Q

Effects of Tx for pediatric acute lymphoblstic leukemia with cranial radiation or chemotherapy have found that…

A

either tx alone is associated with decreased intellectual fc and lower academic achievement
Largelhy irreversible and worsen over time

573
Q

An essential feature of Korsakoff’s Syndrome is…

A

Confabulation

574
Q

In contrast to Korsakoff’s Syndrome, Alzeheimer’s disease is associated with

A

A wider range of cognitive deficits

575
Q

Psychologist administers a 100 item TF test to 50 examinees. The mean score distribution is 60 and the SD is 8. If the psychologist decides to correct each score using a correction for guessing formula that involves subtracting points from examinees scores, what will happen to the mean and. the SD

A 
The mean and SD of the new distribution will be lower.
Corrected Score = (R) - (W/n-1)
R= of right answers
W = number of wrong answers
n = number of choices per answer
576
Q

Response Cost

A

Removing reinforcement for an undesirable or disruptive behavior. Form of negative punishment

577
Q

Differential Reinforcement

A

Used to simultaneously eliminate an undesirable behavior and establish alternative (desirable) behaviors

578
Q

What is effortful (inhibitory) control important for and when is it stable?

A

Early development of conscious

33 to 45 months

579
Q

Disruptive Mood Dysregulation

A

Severe, recurrent temper outbursts with a persistent or angry mood between outbursts on most days

580
Q

ODD vs. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation

A

DMD is more severe, frequent (outbursts), and chronic sx

581
Q

Postconcussional syndrome (PCS)

A 
Collection of somatic and psychological symptoms with most patients having full recovery in 3-6mo
Headache
Dizziness
Fatigue
Impaired Memory/concentration
Depression
Irritability
Visual Impairment
Sleep Disturbances
582
Q

Stages of Change model - two factors to move from one stage to next

A

Perceived self-efficacy and decisional balance (perceived pros and cons)

583
Q

James-Lange theory of emotions emphasizes the role of…

A

Visceral and muscular reactions (peripheralist theory)
“We are afraid because we run”
Emotions are perceptions of bodily reactions

584
Q

Cannon-Bard theory of emotions emphasizes what?

A

Brain mechanisms that mediate emotion (thalamus and cerebral cortex)

585
Q

Women combining work and family roles is most associated with….

A

Enhanced self esteem

586
Q

Primary cause of. psychopathology in Harry Stack Sullivan’s interpersonal approach…

A

Excessive Anxiety which is the result of interpersonal insecurity traced to problems in interpersonal relationships (especially during infancy and childhood)

587
Q

Research about job satisfaction has most consistently found that…

A

job satisfaction is inversely related to turnover and absenteeisms
(research on gender is inconsistent)
-Job satisfaction increases with age
Higher level of education is also related to job satisfaction

588
Q

Overcorrection

A

Make the student engage in repetitive behavior as a penalty for having displahyed an inappropriate action

589
Q

Delirium can be distinguished from psychotic disorders…

A

Sx of delirium tend to be random and haphazard while sx of psychotic disorders are ordinarily systematized

590
Q

Where does long term potentiation take place

A

Hippocampus

Physiological mechanism behind memory and learning

591
Q

Multiple cutoff

A

Must pass all tests used for prediction

592
Q

Multiple discriminant analysis

A

scores on two or more predictors are combined to predict membershhip in three or more criterion groups

593
Q

Endoplasmic Reticulum is involved with

A

Transporting proteins and fats (rough type is responsible for synthesis)

594
Q

Routing subtests for Stanford-Binet

A

Object Series/Matrices and Vocabulary

Used to determine the beginning level of administration for the remaining subtests

595
Q

What positively impacts creativity

A

Supportive supervision
Developmental evaluation (not critical)
Openness (Big 5)
Reducing overall density of work environment

596
Q

What should not be done to tx specific phobia blood-injection type

A

Relaxation Tx are contraindicated

Need to tense muscles

597
Q

Sx to differentiate ADHD and Bipolar in children

A 
Hyperactivity - Both
Irritability - Both
Distractibility - Both
Accelerated Speech - Both
Elation - BP
Grandiosity - BP
Flight of Ideas - BP
Decreased need for sleep
Hypersexuality (in absence of sexual abuse and   over stimulation)
598
Q

Cost-benefit analysis (CBA)

A

Compare costs and benefits of an intervention in monetary terms. Sometimes difficult to assign money value.

599
Q

Cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA)

A

Useful when interventions have similar goals but not possible to assign monetary value. Costs are expressed in $ but outcomes are expressed in non $ terms - like number of patients that ended therapy prematurely Date used to create cost-effectiveness ratios that can determine which intervention has greatest impact per $ spent.

600
Q

Cost-utility analysis (CUA)

A

evaluating alternative interventions by comparing costs with the value of their outcomes in terms of healthy years. (quality-adjusted life-years = combines measures of gain in the (duration) and quality of life)

601
Q

Cost-feasibility analysis (CFA)

A

Evaluate the feasibility of one or more interventions based on the monetary and other resources they would require. Purpose is to determine if an intervention is worth considering. Note CFA does NOT take into account the outcomes of an intervention.

602
Q

Cost-minimization analysis (CMA)

A

Used to determine the least costly option that produces similar results. Example - could paraprofessionals produce the same results and safe costs

603
Q

Cost-offset analysis

A

Medical cost offset - when non-medical interventions are used and save costs.

604
Q

How are perceptual distortions related to panic attack?

A

Depersonalization and Derealization are common

605
Q

What do sleep terror episodes begin with?

A

Panicky scream or cry

606
Q

What type of sleep disorder is. a sleep terror?

A

Non-REM Sleep Arousal Disorder

607
Q

NPD, BPR and Histrionic Personality Disorder share what?

A

Affective Instability

608
Q

What would a drug that reduces effects of dopamine do to sx of schizophrenia?

A

Decrease or eliminate symptoms

609
Q

Chronic Otitis Media is linked to?

A

Learning Disorders

610
Q

Erectile Disorder min duration?

A

Six Months

611
Q

Vascular Neurocognitive Disorder requires?

A

Evidence of cerebrovascular disease

612
Q

When do you use “other specified disorder”

A

Clinician wants to indicate the reason why the client’s symptoms do not meet criteria for another specified disorder

613
Q

Sx more common in pediatric Bipolar Disorder than ADHD

A 
Elation
Grandiosity
Flight of ideas
Decreased need for sleep
Hypersexuality
614
Q

The preoccupation with fear of having a serious disease despite an absence of symptoms of the disease?

A

Illiness Anxiety Disorder

615
Q

Presence of one or more somatic sx that cause distress or significant disruption in daily life accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings or behaviors related to the sx is?

A

Somatic Symptom Disorder

616
Q

Time for PTSD delayed expression?

A

6mo

617
Q

Negative Sx of Schizophrenia

A

Affective Flattening
Alogia
Avolition

618
Q

Alogia

A

Restrictions in the range and intensity of the fluency and productivity of thought and speech

619
Q

Avolition

A

Restrictions in the range and intensity of goal directed behavior

620
Q

Individual’s functioning in conceptual, social, and practical domains are associated with?

A

Intellectual disability

621
Q

Dissociative Amnesia most commonly involves?

A

Retrospective gaps in memory

622
Q

GAD is typically comorbid with other psychiatric disorders at what %?

A

80-90%

623
Q

11 yr old with Conduct Disorder should include?

A

Parent menagement training

624
Q

MDD might have EEG abnormalities that include?

A

Decreased REM Latency

625
Q

Interns must tell clients?

A

They are an intern

626
Q

If asked to test for homosexuality by organization you should?

A

Not accept the job because of invasion of privacy

627
Q

If couples therapist is dx with HIV they should?

A

Refrain from participating in any professional activities that might adversely affected by her medical conditions

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