Failed questions Flashcards
What process facilitates the balance of operational and economic costs of protective measures with gains in mission capability?
A. Performance testing
B. Risk assessment
C. Security audit
D. Risk management
D
Risk management is the process that allows IT managers to balance the operational and economic costs of protective measures and achieve gains in mission capability by protecting the IT systems and data that support their organizations’ missions.
Which of the following would an information security professional use to recognize changes to content, particularly unauthorized changes?
A. File Integrity Checker
B. Security information and event management (SIEM) system
C. Audit Logs
D. Intrusion detection system (IDS)
A. File Integrity Checker
File Integrity Checkers are tools used to monitor and validate the integrity of files and systems by regularly scanning and comparing the current state of files against a known baseline or reference. They detect unauthorized changes, modifications, or alterations to files by comparing attributes such as file size, timestamps, permissions, and checksums. When unauthorized changes occur, the file integrity checker can generate alerts or notifications to indicate potential security breaches or anomalies.
While the other options (SIEM system, Audit Logs, and IDS) are also valuable security tools, they might not specifically focus on recognizing unauthorized changes to content in the same direct and detailed manner as a File Integrity Checker does.
Which Wide Area Network (WAN) technology requires the first router in the path to determine the full path the packet will travel, removing the need for other routers in the path to make independent determinations?
A. Synchronous Optical Networking (SONET)
B. Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)
C. Fiber Channel Over Ethernet (FCoE)
D. Session Initiation Protocol (SIP)
B
Which of the following is included in change management?
A. Technical review by business owner
B. User Acceptance Testing (UAT) before implementation
C. Cost-benefit analysis (CBA) after implementation
D. Business continuity testing
Change management involves a systematic approach to managing changes within an organization’s IT infrastructure, processes, or systems. Among the options provided:
B. User Acceptance Testing (UAT) before implementation
User Acceptance Testing (UAT) is a critical phase within change management. It involves testing changes in a controlled environment to ensure that they meet business requirements and are acceptable to end-users or stakeholders before the changes are implemented into the production environment. UAT helps identify potential issues, gather feedback, and validate that the changes will perform as intended, minimizing risks associated with implementation.
While the other options mentioned (technical review by the business owner, cost-benefit analysis after implementation, business continuity testing) might be part of various stages in the change management process, UAT specifically focuses on testing changes before their deployment to ensure they meet user expectations and requirements.
A company is enrolled in a hard drive reuse program where decommissioned equipment is sold back to the vendor when it is no longer needed. The vendor pays more money for functioning drives than equipment that is no longer operational. Which method of data sanitization would provide the most secure means of preventing unauthorized data loss, while also receiving the most money from the vendor?
A. Pinning
B. Single-pass wipe
C. Multi-pass wipes
D. Degaussing
The answer here is “C”
Degaussing - once a drive has been degaussed, it can no longer be used.
Single Pass - replacing 0s and 1s might not be enough. With the right tools “in theory” some of the data can be recover
Muti-Pass - Gives us that “peace of mind” the data has been permanetly deleted.
Which of the following is not true about continuous monitoring?
A. It involves ad hoc processes that provide agility in responding to novel attacks.
B. Its main goal is to support organizational risk management.
C. It helps determine whether security controls remain effective.
D. It relies on carefully chosen metrics and measurements.
A.
More about the answer:
Continuous monitoring is a deliberate, data-driven process supporting organizational risk management. One of the key questions it answers is: are controls still effective at mitigating risks? Continuous monitoring could potentially lead to a decision to implement specific ad hoc processes, but these would not really be part of continuous monitoring.
Which item is not part of a Kerberos authentication implementation?
A. Message authentication code
B. Ticket granting service
C. Authentication service
D. Users, programs, and services
A.
More about the answer:
Message authentication code (MAC) is a cryptographic function and is not a key component of Kerberos. Kerberos is made up of a KDC, a realm of principals (users, services, applications, and devices), an authentication service, tickets, and a ticket granting service.
Synthetic transactions are best described as
A. Real user monitoring (RUM)
B. Transactions that fall outside the normal purpose of a system
C. Transactions that are synthesized from multiple users’ interactions with the system
D. A way to test the behavior and performance of critical services
D.
More about the answer:
Synthetic transactions are those that simulate the behavior of real users, but are not the result of real user interactions with the system. They allow an organization to ensure that services are behaving properly without having to rely on user complaints to detect problems.
What is the purpose of polyinstantiation?
A. To restrict lower-level subjects from accessing low-level information
B. To make a copy of an object and modify the attributes of the second copy
C. To create different objects that will react in different ways to the same input
D. To create different objects that will take on inheritable attributes from their class
B.
More about the answer:
Instantiation is what happens when an object is created from a class. Polyinstantiation is when more than one object is made and the other copy is modified to have different attributes. This can be done for several reasons. The example given in the chapter was a way to use polyinstantiation for security purposes to ensure that a lower-level subject could not access an object at a higher level.
Which of the following attack types best describes what commonly takes place when you insert specially crafted and excessively long data into an input field?
A. Traversal attack
B. Unicode encoding attack
C. URL encoding attack
D. Buffer overflow attack
D.
More about the answer:
The buffer overflow is probably the most notorious of input validation mistakes. A buffer is an area reserved by an application to store something in it, such as some user input. After the application receives the input, an instruction pointer points the application to do something with the input that’s been put in the buffer. A buffer overflow occurs when an application erroneously allows an invalid amount of input to be written into the buffer area, overwriting the instruction pointer in the code that tells the program what to do with the input. Once the instruction pointer is overwritten, whatever code has been placed in the buffer can then be executed, all under the security contact of the application.
According to the (ISC)2 ethics policy, complaints must be submitted ________.
A. through the (ISC)2 website
B. in writing
C. anonymously
D. within one year of the accused infraction
The correct answer is B. (ISC)2 requires the use of the (ISC)2 complaint form as a sworn affidavit.
Organizations in which of the following countries are not allowed to process EU citizen personal data?
A. Germany
B. Argentina
C. Singapore
D. United States
The correct answer is D. The United States does not have an overarching federal law that is compliant with the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), the EU law governing personal privacy; therefore, organizations in the United States, with certain exceptions, are not allowed to process personal data of EU citizens.
Which of the following is not a common trait of DRM solutions?
A. Persistence
B. Continuous audit trail
C. Automatic expiration
D. Virtual licensing
The correct answer is D. “Virtual licensing” is not a term with any meaning, and it is just a distractor in this context.
Which of the following is included in change management?
A. Technical review by business owner
B. User Acceptance Testing (UAT) before implementation
C. Cost-benefit analysis (CBA) after implementation
D. Business continuity testing
Most people choose B or D.
I prefer to B.
One person’s explanation:
Change management involves a systematic approach to managing changes within an organization’s IT infrastructure, processes, or systems. Among the options provided:
B. User Acceptance Testing (UAT) before implementation
User Acceptance Testing (UAT) is a critical phase within change management. It involves testing changes in a controlled environment to ensure that they meet business requirements and are acceptable to end-users or stakeholders before the changes are implemented into the production environment. UAT helps identify potential issues, gather feedback, and validate that the changes will perform as intended, minimizing risks associated with implementation.
While the other options mentioned (technical review by the business owner, cost-benefit analysis after implementation, business continuity testing) might be part of various stages in the change management process, UAT specifically focuses on testing changes before their deployment to ensure they meet user expectations and requirements.
Which of the following is included in a change request?
a. An updated version of the risk register
b. A description of project elements impacted by the change
c. A most recent copy of scope document
d. The project sponsor and stakeholder expectations
Answer- Option D is the correct choice
D- A change request refers to a proposal to change a product or system. During a project, this happens when the sponsor and stakeholders want to change the requirements and deliverables of the project. Hence, this is the true choice.
a- The updated risk register represents the newly arising risk of the project. It does not denote the altered request of the project. Thus, this is a false choice.
b- Description of the project’s element affected by the change is included in change management rather than change request. Therefore, this is the wrong choice.
c- A most recent copy of the scope of the project represents the current scalability and functionality of the project. It does not part of the change request. So this is an invalid choice.
