Faculty Questions

Question 1

Why is high dose cyclophosphamide used for bone marrow ablation/conditioning phase prior to autologous stem cell transplantation?

Answer 1

1. Spares stem cells = not completely myeloablative
2. Causes release of proteases and the cleavage of key adhesion molecules (e.g. VCAM-1 and CXCR4)–> release of hematopoietic stem cells into the periphery
3. Spares platelets
4. Highly immunosuppressive
5. Little nonhematologic side effects compared to other chemos (e.g. not as GI toxic as other chemos)

Question 2

What cell type are osteoclasts?

Answer 2

Macrophage lineage

Question 3

Kiupel MCT grading criteria for high grade MCT

Answer 3

Any one of the following:

1. ≥7 mitotic figures/10hpf (i.e. MI ≥ 7)
2. ≥3 multinucleated (= ≥3 nuclei) cells/10hpf
3. ≥3 bizarre nuclei/10hpf
4. karyomegaly (at least 10% of cells vary by 2x)

Question 4

What are the criteria of malignancy considered in Kiupel MCT grading scheme?

Answer 4

1. mitotic index
2. multinucleation
3. bizarre nuclei
4. karyomegaly

Question 5

What parameters are considered in Patnaik grading scheme

Answer 5

1. location
2. cell morphology
3. nuclear morphology
4. architecture/cellularity
5. mitotic figures
6. edema and necrosis

Question 6

Patnaik grade I MCT:

1. location
2. cell morphology
3. nuclear morphology
4. architecture/cellularity
5. mitotic figures
6. edema and necrosis

Answer 6

1. location = dermis
2. cell morphology = round
3. nuclear morphology = round, condensed chromatin
4. architecture/cellularity = rows/groups
5. mitotic figures = none
6. edema and necrosis = minimal

Question 7

Patnaik grade II MCT:

1. location
2. cell morphology
3. nuclear morphology
4. architecture/cellularity
5. mitotic figures
6. edema and necrosis

Answer 7

1. location = infiltrates the SQ +/- musculature
2. cell morphology = round to ovoid; finer granules
3. nuclear morphology = round to indented; some double nuclei
4. architecture/cellularity = thin fibrovascular stroma
5. mitotic figures = rare (0-2/hpf)
6. edema and necrosis = areas of diffuse

Question 8

Patnaik grade III MCT:

1. location
2. cell morphology
3. nuclear morphology
4. architecture/cellularity
5. mitotic figures
6. edema and necrosis

Answer 8

1. location = replaces SQ and deep tissue
2. cell morphology = pleomorphic; indistinct granules
3. nuclear morphology = indented; common binucleation
4. architecture/cellularity = packed sheets
5. mitotic figures = common (≥3/hpf)
6. edema and necrosis = common

Question 9

What is the published total dose for feline nasal LSA?

Answer 9

> 32 Gray

Question 10

Genes of four common DNA repair disorders due to genetic deficiencies that are associated with clinical radiation sensitivity

Answer 10

1. ATM
2. FA gene complex
3. NBS1
4. LIG4

Question 11

% of silken windhounds with MDR mutation

Answer 11

30%

Question 12

DNA repair disorder associated with ATM gene deficiency and associated deficiency

Answer 12

• disease = ataxia telangiectasia (A-T)

- deficiency = signal transduction

Question 13

DNA repair disorder associated with FA gene complex deficiency and associated deficiency

Answer 13

• disease = Fanconi anemia (FA)

- deficiency = damage recognition and HR

Question 14

DNA repair disorder associated with NBS1 gene deficiency and associated deficiency

Answer 14

• disease = Nijmegen breakage syndrome

- deficiency = damage recognition

Question 15

DNA repair disorder associated with LIG4 gene deficiency and associated deficiency

Answer 15

• disease = DNA ligase IV deficiency

- deficiency = NHEJ

Question 16

Hallmarks of cancer

Answer 16

SARCOMA GIME:

1. S - self-sufficiency of growth signaling
2. A - apoptosis evasion
3. R - resistance to anti-growth factor signaling
4. Co - continuous replication (immortality)
5. M - metastasis
6. A - angiogenesis
7. G - genomic instability
8. I - inflammation
9. M - metabolic deregulation
10. E - evasion of the immune system

Question 17

Flow markers for thymomas

Answer 17

CD4+ CD8+

Question 18

Flow markers for T cell lymphoma/leukemia

Answer 18

CD4+ CD5-

Question 19

% of feline renal transplant cats that develop neoplasia

Answer 19

25% develop lymphoid neoplasia

*higher than what is seen in transplants with humans

Question 20

Reason for increased risk of lymphoid neoplasia in renal transplant cats

Answer 20

Cyclosporine–>immunoediting

*NOTE: cyclosporine and transplants in humans and cats = risk factors for cancer

Question 21

Which metastasizes to bone more frequently: prostatic carcinoma vs. UCC

Answer 21

Prostatic carcinoma

Question 22

What is the size cutoff for canine adrenocortical that is indicative of malignancy?

Answer 22

> 2cm

Question 23

Grading criteria for canine mammary tumors

Answer 23

1. tubule formation
2. nuclear pleomorphism
3. mitoses/10hpf (MI)

Question 24

% of incidentalomas seen with ultrasound? CT?

Answer 24

• ultrasound: 4%

- CT: 9.3%

Question 25

Morphologic (histopath) criteria *significantly* associated with adrenocortical carcinomas

Answer 25

1. >2cm diameter 2. peripheral fibrosis 3. capsular invasion 4. trabecular growth pattern 5. hemorrhage 6. necrosis 7. single-cell necrosis

Question 26

Morphologic (histopath) criteria *significantly* associated with adrenocortical adenomas

Answer 26

1. hematopoiesis 2. fibrin thrombi 3. cytoplasmic vacuolation

Question 27

Histologic grading system for canine mammary carcinoma

Answer 27

- tubule formation 1: >75% 2: 10-75% 3: <10% - nuclear pleomorphism 1: uniform/regular small nucleus, occasional nucleoli 2: moderate anisokaryosis, hyperchromatic nucleus, presence of nucleoli 3: marked anisokaryosis, often with ≥1 prominent nucleoli - MI 1: 0-9 2: 10-19 3: ≥20 - points 3-5: grade I/low grade 6-7: grade II/intermediate grade 8-9: grade III/high grade

Question 28

Histologic grading system for canine mammary carcinoma

Answer 28

- tubule formation 1: >75% 2: 10-75% 3: <10% - nuclear pleomorphism 1: uniform/regular small nucleus, occasional nucleoli 2: moderate anisokaryosis, hyperchromatic nucleus, presence of nucleoli 3: marked anisokaryosis, often with ≥1 prominent nucleoli - MI 1: 0-9 2: 10-19 3: ≥20 - points 3-5: grade I/low grade 6-7: grade II/intermediate grade 8-9: grade III/high grade

Question 29

% of dogs with MCTs with GI ulceration based on endoscopy

Answer 29

>80% | **need to find paper

Question 30

Hypocholesterolemia may be indicative of what neoplasm? What % of dogs with this neoplasm exhibit hypocholesterolemia?

Answer 30

- hemophagocytic histiocytic sarcoma | - 69%

Question 31

Immunophenotypes of histiocytic proliferative diseases in dogs and cats

Answer 31

Withrow Table 34.4

Question 32

Neoplasms associated with paraneoplastic eosinophilia? Mechanism?

Answer 32

1. MCT 2. T cell lymphoma 3. others: dogs - oral fibrosarcoma, mammary carcinoma, leiomyosarcoma; cats - oral SCC, bladder TCC - MOA: production of IL-5

Question 33

Define overall response rate

Answer 33

CR + PR

Question 34

Define clinical benefit

Answer 34

CR + PR + SD

Question 35

Define progression free survival (PFS)

Answer 35

= date of randomization to date of first progressive disease

Question 36

Define best overall response rate (BORR)

Answer 36

= the proportion of dogs with CR or PR at any time, based on target, nontarget, and new lesions in relation to total number of dogs; i.e. the best response recorded from the start of the treatment until disease progression/recurrence

Question 37

Difference between ORR and BORR

Answer 37

BORR is overall course of the study? | ***LOOK UP better explanation

Question 38

Criteria needed for FDA approval of a drug

Answer 38

Prove that the drug is 1. Safe 2. Efficacious (superior efficacy compared to the standard of care)

Question 39

Univariate prognostic indicator in a lot of Tanovea papers

Answer 39

Sex - females do significantly better

Question 40

% of ALLs that are CD34+

Answer 40

37-76% | Negative prognostic factor

Question 41

CD34

Answer 41

= surface antigen on hematopoietic PROGENITOR cells that is NOT normally on mature leukocytes

Question 42

Chemotherapeutic in the same family/has the same mechanism as Tanovea that you can add to CHOP to improve LSA outcome

Answer 42

Cytosar (cytarabine)

Question 43

MOA of rabacfosadine (Tanovea, VDC1101, GS-9219)

Answer 43

= double prodrug of the nucleotide analog 9-(2-phosphonylmethoxyethyl) guanine (PMEG) MOA = preferentially targets lymphoid cells and inhibits DNA polymerases-->inhibition of DNA synthesis (= S phase specific)

Question 44

% of OSA patients that develop hypertrophic osteopathy (HO)

Answer 44

5-29%

Question 45

% of dogs with thyroid neoplasia that are: - euthyroid - hypothyroid - hyperthyroid

Answer 45

- euthyroid: 55-60% - hypothyroid: 30% - hyperthyroid: 10-15%

Question 46

M1 macrophage phenotype

Answer 46

Antitumor

Question 47

M2 macrophage phenotype

Answer 47

Protumor-->progression and tissue remodeling via Th2 secretion of IL-4 and IL-13

Question 48

MOA of metronomic chemotherapy

Answer 48

1. inhibit tumor angiogenesis | 2. suppress Tregs

Question 49

% of canine inflammatory mammary carcinomas with coagulopathies

Answer 49

21%

Question 50

Timeframe of urethral stricture post-RT for UCC/TCC

Answer 50

3-6 months post-RT