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Jeppesen Academy > FAA Dispatch Question Bank > Flashcards

FAA Dispatch Question Bank Flashcards

1
Q

What is operational control?

A

With respect to a flight, means the exercise of authority over initiating, conducting or terminating a flight.

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2
Q

What is the standard temperature lapse rate?

A

2 degrees C per 1000 FT

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3
Q

Explain the 3 types of icing?

A

Rime
Clear
Mixed

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4
Q

What does RVSM stand for?

A

Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum

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5
Q

What does RNP stand for?

A

Required Navigational Performance

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6
Q

What does MNPS stand for?

A

Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications

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7
Q

What does NATS stand for?

A

North Atlantic Track System

routes between eastern United States and Europe

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8
Q

What does PACOTS stand for?

A

Pacific Oceanic Track System

routes between western United States and Pacific Asia

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9
Q

All company communications should be kept on file and recorded for how long?

A

30 days

FAR 121.711

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10
Q

What are the four forces of flight?

A

lift, weight, drag, thrust

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11
Q

Who’s responsible for operational control? (domestic, flag, supplemental)

A

FAR 121.533 domestic: aircraft dispatcher and PIC
FAR 121.535 flag: aircraft dispatcher and PIC
FAR 121.537 supplemental: director of operations and PIC (DO can delegate is authority but not his responsibility)

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12
Q

Two engine airplanes. What’s the standard minimum visibility required for takeoff?

A

1 SM

FAR 91.175

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13
Q

Three or more engine airplanes. What’s the standard minimum visibility required for takeoff?

A

1/2 SM

FAR 91.175

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14
Q

When do you need a takeoff alternate?

A

When the weather at your departure airport is below the landing minimums listed in the Operation Specifications
FAR 121.617

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15
Q

What are the rules for listing a takeoff alternate?

A

2 engine or less: the takeoff alternate cannot be more than 1 hour in still air, one engine inop, at normal cruise speed
3 engine or more the takeoff alternate cannot be more than 2 hours in still air, one engine inop, at normal cruise speed
FAR 121.617

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16
Q

What must the weather be at that alternate airport to file as takeoff alternate?

A

Weather must meet the alternate minimums listed in the Ops Specs for that airport at the time of arrival.
FAR 121.617

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17
Q

What does VOR stand for?

A

VHF Omnidirectional Range

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18
Q

Is the dispatcher required by regulation to be familiar with weather along the planned route?

A

Yes, the dispatcher should monitor the weather during for the entire flight.
FAR 121.465

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19
Q

What are the approach minimums for Category I aircraft?

A

200 foot ceiling and 1/2 mile

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20
Q

What is squawk 7500?

A

Air piracy

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21
Q

What is squawk 7600?

A

Loss communications

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22
Q

What is squawk 7700?

A

Emergency or distressed aircraft

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23
Q

When do you require a destination alternate for a domestic flight?

A

1-2-3 rule
If one hour before or one hour after the ETA the weather is below 2000 ft ceiling or 3 SM then an alternate airport must be listed.
FAR 121 .619

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24
Q

If the weather at the destination and first alternate are marginal what must you do?

A

Must list a second alternate airport if the first destination and alternate is marginal.
FAR 121.619

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25
Q

To which alternate must you have fuel on board?

A

Must have enough fuel to the most distant alternate.

FAR 121.639

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26
Q

If listing a takeoff alternate for your departure airport, what is the weather to legally list it as a takeoff alternate airport?

A

Weather must be greater than the landing minimums listed in the Ops Specs for that airport at the time of arrival and meet alternate weather minimums.
FAR 121.617

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27
Q

What are the regulatory standards for the weather minimums for filing a Destination Alternate?

A

600-2 for Precision approach
800-2 for Non- precision approach
FAR 91.169

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28
Q

What is a TAF?

A

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast

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29
Q

How often are TAF’s update?

A

TAF’s are updated every 6 hours.

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30
Q

What is a “high minimums” captain?

A

A PIC who has not served 100 hours in that type of aircraft

FAR 121.652

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31
Q

What’s the minimum fuel required to be on board a domestic flight?

A

No person may dispatch or takeoff an airplane unless it has enough fuel-
(a) to fly to the airport to which it is dispatched;
(b) thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant alternate; and
(c) thereafter, to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel
FAR 121.639

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32
Q

Where do you find the general operating rules that apply to all flights?

A

14 CFR Part 91

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33
Q

You have a high mins captain, what special rules apply?

A

Must add 100-1/2 to destination minimums.
Do not need to add 100-1/2 to alternate but can never be less than 300-1
FAR 121.652

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34
Q

What kind of information will you find in your company’s Ops Specs?

A 
Company address
Company officers
Approved equipment (aircraft)
Approved routing system
Approved destination, alternate, and provisional airports
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35
Q

Does each airline have its own Ops Specs or do all airlines share one Ops Specs?

A

Each airline has their own Ops Specs.

An Operation Specifications is unique to each airline.

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36
Q

What does MEL stand for and what does it contain?

A

Minimum Equipment List and contains the aircraft systems that may be inoperative and still be legally dispatched.

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37
Q

What does CDL stand for and what does it contain?

A

Configuration Deviation List and contains external items of an aircraft that may be missing or inoperative and still be legally dispatched.

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38
Q

What is a NOTAM?

A

Notice to Airman which is very time critical information that must be checked before each flight is dispatched.

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39
Q

What does ATIS stand for?

A

Automated Terminal Information Service

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40
Q

What information is provided in an ATIS?

A

Station weather, runway in use, NOTAM, other airport remarks.

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41
Q

What does FSS stand for? AFSS?

A

Flight Service Station. Automated Flight Service Station.

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42
Q

What does ARTCC stand for?

A

Air Route Traffic Control Center.

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43
Q

What does TCAS stand for?

A

Traffic Collision Avoidance System

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44
Q

Mode C provides what type of information for Air Traffic Controllers?

A

altitude information

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45
Q

Define a Mid-Air collision?

A

An incident within the proximity of two aircraft of 500 ft or less or: a pilot reports a near mid air collision.

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46
Q

What are the dimensions of Class A airspace?

A

FL180 to FL600

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47
Q

What is the maximum speed below 10,000 ft and/or in Class B airspace?

A

250 KIAS

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48
Q

What is an MOA?

A

Military Operating Area

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49
Q

What is a MORA?

A

Minimum Off-Route Altitude

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50
Q

What does ADIZ stand for?

A

Air Defense Identification Zone.

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51
Q

What is a TFR?

A

Temporary Flight Restriction

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52
Q

What is an ILS?

A

Instrument Landing System- provides both vertical and horizontal guidance information

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53
Q

What is a VASI?

A

Vertical Approach Slope Indicator

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54
Q

What is a PAPI?

A

Precision Approach Path Indicator

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55
Q

What is a SID/DP?

A

Standard Instrument Departure Procedure or Departure Procedure-provides a smooth transition from the terminal environment to the enroute phase of flight.

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56
Q

What is a LAHSO?

A

Land and Hold Short Operations

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57
Q

What are the four categories of Braking Action?

A

good, fair, poor nil

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58
Q

Describe advection fog

A

When warm air moves over a cold surface.

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59
Q

Looking at a METAR when can you recognize a good chance of fog in the area?

A

When temperature/dewpoint spread is 3 degree C or less.

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60
Q

Is a high pressure system more dense or less dense than a low pressure system?

A

A high pressure system is more dense than a low pressure system.
High pressure is more stable than a low pressure system.

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61
Q

Who writes the Operation Specifications? Who approves the Operation Specifications?

A

Each airline writes their own Operation Specifications and FAA approves them.

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62
Q

How many NOTAM classifications are there in the new “Super D” formant?

A

There are 12 different classifications in the “Super D” format.

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63
Q

Name two ways that NOTAMs are retrieved by Dispatchers?

A

Flight Service Station (FSS), Company approved Flight Planning System

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64
Q

What is an AFM?

A

Aircraft Flight Manual

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65
Q

What does PIREP stand for?

A

Pilot Report

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66
Q

Read the following PIREP?

A

DEN UUA/OV FQF 220040/TM 1914/FL160/TP B1900/TB SEV/RM ZDV

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67
Q

Who writes an AFM? Who approves it?

A

Aircraft Manufacture writes the AFM and approved by the governing state.

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68
Q

What is 14 CFR Part25 and what types of information are used in the AFM?

A

Part 25 - Airworthiness Standards: Transport Category Airplanes (Certification)
1-Limitations
2-Performance Data

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69
Q

What is the regulation for Hazmat and Dangerous Goods?

A

49 CFR 172 and 175

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70
Q

What is 14 CFR Part 121?

A

Part 121- Operating Requirements: Domestic, Flag, and Supplemental Operations

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71
Q

What are the requirements to become an aircraft dispatcher?

A

To be eligible for an aircraft dispatcher certificate, a person must–

(1) Be at least 23 years of age;
(2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language;
(3) Pass the required knowledge test
(4) Pass the required practical test
(5) Statement of Graduation

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72
Q

What is 14 CFR Part 65? What does subpart C deal with under 14 CFR Part 65?

A

Part 65 - Certification: Airmen other than flight crewmembers.
Subpart C-Aircraft Dispatchers

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73
Q

What is V1? During manual flight planning do we round up or down on V1 and why?

A

V1 is take off decision speed (go or no-go). Round V1 down to allow a longer area for a rejected takeoff(RTO).

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74
Q

What is BEW? What component make up the BEW?

A

Basic Empty Weight: Aircraft alone with unusable fluids.

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75
Q

What is ZFW?

A

Zero Fuel Weight which consists of everything but fuel.

76
Q

If a pilot declares an emergency how many days do they have to submit a report?

A

Within 10 days after returning to home base.

77
Q

If a dispatcher declares an emergency how many days do they have to submit a report?

A

Dispatcher must submit a report within 10 days.

78
Q

In the following METER, using standard takeoff minimums can a B737-800 legally takeoff? Do I need a takeoff alternate?
KSTL 121645Z 18017KT 1/4 R18R/5000 VV001 13/09 A2995

A

Yes, they are legal to takeoff due to RVR 5000 (1sm), however a takeoff alternate is required due to indefinite ceiling of 100 ft.

79
Q

What is 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart T?

A

Subpart T - Flight Operations

80
Q

What is 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart U?

A

Subpart U - Dispatching and Flight Release Rules

81
Q

What is 14 CFR Part P?

A

Subpart P - Aircraft Dispatcher Qualifications and Duty Time Limitation: Domestic and Flag Operations;

82
Q

What does the following mean WS015/14033KT?

A

Wind shear at 1500 ft AGL from 140 degree at 33 kts.

83
Q

What conditions indicate a good chance of icing on the aircraft?

A

When the temperature is 10 degrees C and below with visible moisture.

84
Q

What are the responsibilities of an Aircraft Dispathcer?

A

(c) The aircraft dispatcher is responsible for-
(1) Monitoring the progress of each flight;
(2) Issuing necessary instructions and information for the safety of the flight; and
(3) Canceling or redispatching a flight if, in his opinion or the opinion of the PIC, the flight cannot operate or continue to operate safely as planned or released.
FAR 121.535

85
Q

Can an aircraft dispatcher work more than 10 hours in a 24 hour period?

A

Yes, as long as they have 8 hours of rest at or before 10 hours of duty.
FAR 121.465

86
Q

Can you legally dispatch an aircraft with a weight that would remain under the maximum takeoff weight, and land just over the maximum landing weight?

A

No, you may not dispatch an aircraft in which at the time of landing would exceed the maximum landing weight.
FAR 121.195

87
Q

What is the wet runway length requirement for landing at an airport?

A

If the runway in which you are landing on is wet then the length of that runway must be 115% of the required dry runway length.
FAR 121.195

88
Q

What affect does a positive slope and a high density altitude runway have on aircraft performance?

A

Increased takeoff distance
Higher V1 speed
Decreased performance
Payload reduction

89
Q

During cruise level flight below 10000 ft, is this considered “sterile cockpit?”

A

No, sterile cockpit includes taxi, takeoff, and landing and flight below 10000 ft except cruise level flight.

90
Q

What is the definition of a Domestic Operation? Flag Operation?

A

Domestic Operations-Any operation conducted between any points within the 48 contiguous States of the United States or the District of Columbia.
Flag Operations-Any operation conducted out side the contiguous 48 states and Canada.

91
Q

What are five main items required to be on a dispatch release?

A

(DAMIT)
D-Departure airport, intermediate stops, destination airports, and alternate airports.
A-A statement of the type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR).
M-Minimum Fuel Supply
I-Identification number of the aircraft
T-Trip number
(keep in mind weather must always be attached to the dispatch release for all airports)
FAR 121.687

92
Q

How long should dispatch releases be kept on file?

A

(b) the certificate holder shall keep copies of the records required in this section for at least three months.
FAR 121.695

93
Q

Explain Method 1

A 
Aircraft is at Single Engine Service Ceiling.
Aircraft must:
Clear all obstacles by 1000'
5 miles either side of intended track
arrive over airport at 1500'
94
Q

Explain Method 2

A 
Driftdown- Assuming an engine fails at most critical point.
Aircraft must:
Clear all obstacles by 2000'
5 miles either side of intended track
arrive over airport at 1500'
95
Q

The PIC of an airplane shall carry in the airplane to its destination what three items?

A

flight plan
dispatch release
load manifest
FAR 121.695

96
Q

What are your six takeoff performance considerations?

A 
(San Francisco COT B-Hippies in SF, CA)
S-Structural Takeoff limitation
F-Field Length
C-Climb Limit
O-Obstacle Clearance
T-Tire Speed
B-Brake Energy
97
Q

What effects does ice on a wing have on an aircraft?

A

Increase drag
Weight
Stalling speed
Decrease lift

98
Q

As a dispatcher, is it required that you provide the PIC with the most current weather reports?

A

Yes. Before beginning a flight, the aircraft dispatcher shall provide the PIC with all available weather reports and forecasts of weather phenomena that may affect the safety of flight, including adverse weather phenomena, such as clear air turbulence, thunderstorms, and low altitude wind shear, for each route to be flown and each airport to be used.
FAR 121.601

99
Q

Explain exemption 3585

A

Operator may be approved for this exemption. if approved:
You may dispatch an aircraft if the main body of the TAF is at or above landing minimums. The condition remark (TEMPO, PROB) is no more than half of the landing minimums.
First alternate the main body of the TAF is at or above landing minimums. The conditional remark (TEMPO, PROB) is no more than half of the landing minimums.
Second alternate MUST meet minimums to list as alternate and ALL minimums must be at or above for suitable runway. FUEL IS ALWAYS FOR THE MOST DISTANT ALTERNATE.

100
Q

How do you monitor a flight?

A

Preparation and great situational awareness using approved flight monitoring systems.
Prepare the flight using your past experience, present conditions, staying ahead aircraft.
Constantly monitoring NOTAMs and the weather enroute, alternates, and destination. Always have a plan B and sometimes C and keep revising it as the flight continues.

101
Q

The president is flying out on your flight and is running late for an important meeting. As the aircraft just pushed back, you notice the destination now needs an alternate, but will take a delay to refuel. What do you do?

A

TAKE THE DELAY!
Refuel and add the alternate. Make sure the flight is legal and safe. Even if the president is mad, you should not be in trouble for doing anything legal.
Better to lose a job, rather than a license, Jobs are easier to gain.

102
Q

Due to thunderstorms, you believe the flight is now unsafe. The pilot is determined to continue for unknown reasons though you discussed it. Can he continue?

A

Legally yes.
If you believe that a Captain is continuing into unsafe conditions after you briefed him, he may use his CAPAIN AUTHORITY.
Always brief the pilot of what you think are the unsafe conditions (Especially new dispathers.) What may be unsafe to you, may be normal to him)
ASK!- other experienced dispatchers, managers, and the pilot if they think its unsafe. If still unsafe-ASK AND ASSIST- Tell the Captain you think it’s unsafe and he will be using his CAPTAIN AUTHORITY to continue, but assist him with anything he needs.

103
Q

You receive a call from a gate agent stating that you aircraft has declared an emergency and they will call you back when they land. What do you do?

A

Keep them on the phone if they have contact with the aircraft. Keep an open line of communication!
Ask what the emergency is?
Tell them to notify the flight dispatch on the line and if they need any assistance, you are here.
Start passing your other flights to other dispatchers while you handle the emergency. Handle the emergency and assist the crew.
Give input if you have any ideas that may help the flight.

104
Q

What are some stresses that a dispatcher may encounter and how to deal with them?

A

Operational Stress-Pressure for on time arrival/departures. Never let someone push you into a bad decision. Ask another dispatcher, manager, and don’t forget, the pilot (joint responsibility!) about what they think. If it’s unsafe, don’t dispatch!
Personal Stress- Pressures of life, relationship, money, or death of family/friend- If you are not fit to dispatch and circumstances may affect your judgment, let someone know. Everyone gets stressed

105
Q

Thunderstorms are along your intended route. How might you brief the pilot?

A 
Call the pilot
Type "Call for Radar Brief" on release.
Brief him along the route with updates.
Brief pilot on:
Tops
Size and distance
Direction and speed
106
Q

What is required for an operator before conducting ETOPS flights?

A 
Operator approval by the local authority
A pre operation demo flight
aircraft approval
maintenance approval
passenger evacuation capability
107
Q

What is the recommended procedure for volcanic ash penetrations?

A

Complete avoidance of the ash cloud, even making a 180 degree turn. If in an inadvertent entry, pilots carry out a non normal checklist.

108
Q

What is a balanced field?

A

When accelerate stop distance is equal to accelerate go distance available.

109
Q

What aircraft performance is considered when a runway is contaminated?

A

Braking action

can find braking action from NOTAMs, ground services, reports from other pilots, and tower

110
Q

What are the 3 types of hydroplaning?

A

Dynamic- standing water at least one-tenth of an inch
Viscous-thin film of water and can happen at lower speeds
Reverted rubber- prolonged locked wheel as tire skids turning water into steam between tire and surface.

111
Q

An aircraft climbing through FL180 will begin to fly __ altitude by putting __ in the altimeter setting.

A

pressure altitude

29.92

112
Q

Describe what RNP 5 means?

A

Required Navigation Performance

5 states that aircraft must remain 5 NM of where it think it is with a 95% accuracy rate.

113
Q

A scheduled flight JFK-MUC with radiation fog forecasted at ETA. What are some considerations for the dispatcher?

A

Delay the aircraft

Add holding fuel if departing as scheduled and fog will expected to be in the area upon arrival.

114
Q

You have a scheduled flight from LHR-GOI with no weather forecast available for GOI. Can you dispatch?

A

No
There must be approved weather reports or forecast available to indicate weather will be at or above landing mins at time of the arrival.

115
Q

Name the type of fluids used for de- and anti icing turbine engines?

A

Hot type 1 (de-icing)

Cold type 2 (anti-icing)

116
Q

What is CPDLC, and where is it used?

A

Controller Pilot Data Link Communications: used in oceanic and very busy airspaces

117
Q

May an aircraft dispatcher allow a flight to continue to the airport to which it has been dispatched when the weather conditions at the alternate specified in the dispatcher release are forecast to be below the alternate minimums specified in the carrier’s operations specifications at the estimated time of arrival at the alternate?

A

No
unless the dispatch or flight release may be amended en route to include any alternate airport that is within the fuel range of the aircraft as specified in 121.639 through 121.647.
FAR 121.631(b)

118
Q

When reviewing turbine aircraft cruise performance charts, the aircraft manufacturer does not provide any date at very high altitudes and very heavy weights. What is the reason for this “Coffin’s Corner?”

A

If the aircraft encountered an increase in G-loading (turbulence), it could possibly stall even though the indicated airspeed appears normal. High altitude stalls in turbine aircraft can be extremely dangerous!

119
Q

What is a provisional airport?

A

An airport that is listed in the Ops Specs that is authorized to be used when the regular airport is not available for use. (even if it is below landing minimums)

120
Q

In the real world airlines rarely use standard alternate mins. They use the 1 NAV/2 NAV rule (derived alt mins) to list an alternate. Explain 1 NAV/2 NAV rule.

A

When choosing an alternate, look at the navigation approaches available for the suitable runway(s):
1 NAV -add 400 ft to DH and 1 SM to visibility.
2 NAV-add 200 ft to DH and 1/2 SM to visibility to the HIGHEST of the two.
Note: frequency of NAVAIDs must be different if using two different approach ends on a single runway (RWY 27/09) or it will be considered 1 NAV rule.

121
Q

After how long at an intermediate stop is a re-dispatch required?

A

A new release is required if the aircraft stays on the ground for 1 hour or longer for domestic ops and 6 hours or longer for flag ops.

122
Q

What is the definition of a TEMPO?

A

Temporary fluctuations in forecast meteorological conditions which are expected to last less than one hour in each instance and, to cover less than half of the indicated period.

123
Q

A squall line is over Florida, and a flight is scheduled for ATL-MIA flight. What are your dispatch options?

A

Reroute the flight around the squall line, delay, or cancel the flight.

124
Q

En route, the weather at the destination alternate drops below minimums. In order to plan a different alternate what information do you require from the PIC?

A

Current position
Current weight
Fuel remaining
Altitude

125
Q

What is the landing field length limit for dispatch?

A

Turbine engine aircraft must plan to land within 60 percent of the effective runway length from a point 50 ft above the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane and the runway.
FAR 121.195

126
Q

May a flight be dispatched to an airport that is below landing minimums at the ETD?

A

Yes, only requires the weather at the destination to be at or above the authorized minimums at the estimated time of arrival for the destination.
FAR 121.613

127
Q

In the takeoff calculations, if an engine fail after V1, would this be considered an “ACCELERATE GO” or “ACCELERATE STOP” decistion?

A

Accelerate go

if an engine fails after V1, the takeoff should be continued unless the aircraft is not capable of flying.

128
Q

When an aircraft diverts to an alternate airport, is it required to use alternate minimums for the approach?

A

No
Alternate minimums are used for flight planning purposes. When the flight actually diverts to the alternate airport, the Operation Specifications for that airport apply.

129
Q

When referring to the TAF to determine if a destination alternate is required before, does the dispatcher compare the ceiling to Decision Altitude(DA) or the Decision Height(DH) on the appropriate instrument approach chart?

A 
Decision Height(DH)- ceiling is measured in height above a reference point on the airport surface.
(DA always uses MSL as a reference and this has no correlation to a ceiling and used by pilots)
130
Q

Aircraft is taxiing out and noticing an inoperative fuel pump. Which manual to refer to?

A

AFM, QRH, and/or abnormal operations.

131
Q

Why is it so critical to prevent build-up on the engine nacelle?

A

If ice builds up on the engine nacelle, it will disrupt airflow into the engine, thus reducing thrust. Also, the ice may break off and get ingested into the engine and damage the compressor blades. This can cause severe engine vibration that could lead to structural damage of the engine and pylon.

132
Q

Checking your NOTAMs prior to a flight, you notice closed taxiways and very high snow banks near your ramp. What should be expected?

A

Check your airport diagram for possible available taxi routes that may:

  • Increase taxi time
  • Increase taxi fuel
133
Q

What does Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW) limit protect against?

A

Wings breaking at the wing root or structural damage due to weight of the fuselage when the wing tanks are empty.

134
Q

What does VMCG sand for and is its purpose?

A

Vmcg- Minimum controllability on the ground
The calibrated airspeed during the takeoff run at which, when the critical engine is suddenly made inoperative, it is possible to maintain control of the airplane using the rudder control alone (without the use of nose wheel steering) and maintain directional control within 35 ft of the centerline.

135
Q

What are the three components of a full ILS?

A

Localizer
Glideslope
Approach Lights

136
Q

What are the five parts of the Operations Specifications?

A 
General
Enroute Operations
Terminal Operations
Maintenance
Weight and Balance
137
Q

Where would you find the ARFF index?

A

The Airport Facilities Directory (AFD)

138
Q

In the Northern Hemisphere which direction does the wind circulate around a low?

A

Counterclockwise

139
Q

Circling approach minimums are published on most approach charts. What is the usual reason for requiring a circling approach to be accomplished?

A

Circling approaches are usually flown because the tailwind component is too strong to allow a straight-in approach and landing. The approach is flown to the MDA(H) for one runway, then the circling maneuver is accomplished to land on a runway with a headwind or lower tailwind that is legal in the ops specs.

140
Q

What is the difference between de-icing equipment and anti-icing equipment?

A

De-icing equipment removes ice

Anti-icing equipment prevents ice from forming

141
Q

Which subpart of 14CFR121 deals with records and reprots?

A

Subpart V

142
Q

If an inop item isn’t listed in the MEL, can the aircraft takeoff?

A

No, if an item is not listed in the MEL/CDL manual then it must be fixed prior to being dispatched.

143
Q

What are your 5 sources of electricity for a B737 aircraft?

A

one engine driven generator on each engine
APU- Auxiliary Power Unit providing AC power
one or two batteries providing DC power
GPU- Ground Power Unit

144
Q

What are some hazards to flight that are associated with thunderstorms?

A

hail, microbursts, turbulence, squall lines, icing, freezing rain, lightning, tornadoes, wind shear

145
Q

What is the difference between a UA and a UUA?

A

UA: routine PIREP
UUA: an urgent PIREP

146
Q

FZRA is reported in a TAF at your final overnight destination. What are some considerations for the dispatcher?

A

Is the aircraft going to be parked in a hangar?
If not, is one available?
Is deicing equipment available? Consult someone prior to takeoff if it’s still worth going? Would the company rather pay for hangar rather than deice?

147
Q

If the takeoff runway is contaminated, would you consider using a higher or lower takeoff flap setting and why?

A

Use a higher setting because it reduces V1 speed, allowing more runway for stopping if an aborted takeoff is necessary.

148
Q

Pressure altitude when combined with outside air temperature provides a critical piece of information called __? (this ultimately provides required performance data for all aircraft)

A

density altitude

149
Q

Pilot call in with a gear malfunction indicating a gear is in transition. What do you do?

A

Keep pilot on radio if able and standby when requested. Advise to maintenance and work together for solution. contact ATC and declare an emergency landing.

150
Q

As braking action decreases a dispatcher should plan to decrease __?

A

Weight using contaminated runway analysis to prevent over run of runway. Cross wind limitations to prevent sliding off the runway sideways.

151
Q

What is one of the primary reasons for an aircraft manufacturer establishing a maximum recommended crosswind landing limitation?

A

If this limit is exceeded, it is very easy to scrape the wingtip or the engine nacelle on the runway before the landing gear touches the runway. (737 usually crapes the engine nacelle & 777 or 747 scrape the wingtip because of long wings)

152
Q

What are the 4 landing limit considerations?

A

structural limit, field length limit, approach climb limit, landing climb limit

153
Q

What is difference between MEL and MMEL?

A

MMEL is written by the Manufacturer

MEL by operator. MEL can be more restrictive than MMEL.

154
Q

What FAR subpart contains Flight and Duty Limitations and Rest Requirements for Flight Crew members?

A

14 CFR Part 117

155
Q

What FAR subpart contains General Requirements (definitions) for Air Carriers and Operators for Compensation or Hire?

A

14 CFR Part 110

156
Q

What instruments are required to operate in RVSM airspace?

A

2 independent altimeters
Altitude hold
Autopilot
Altitude alert

157
Q

In a TAF, how long does a “Tempo” condition apply?

A

One hour or less in each instance & for less than half the period

158
Q

What additional factors should be considered when computing fuel?

A

Factors for computing fuel required.
(a) Wind and other weather conditions forecast
(b) Anticipated traffic delays
(c) One instrument approach and possible missed approach at destination.
(d) Any other conditions that may delay landing of the aircraft
FAR 121.647

159
Q

When might you need more than minimum fuel?

A 
delays
active deicing programs
thunderstorms
peak times
required by MEL
Anytime with good personal judgement
160
Q

What are some ways you may be able to determine delays that may effect your flight?

A

-Airport website with published delays
-Speak to pilots/dispatchers from your company that landed or took off from locations
Flight following system with other airline (watching for holding patterns)
-Experience (you as a dispatcher will learn characteristics of airports, seasons, or peak times)

161
Q

Why is it recommended to takeoff and land with a headwind vs. a tailwind?

A

A headwind on landing reduces the groundspeed at touchdown, thus reducing the stopping distance. A headwind on takeoff allows the aircraft to reach flying speed using less runway. Aircraft fly on AIRSPEED and they stop on GROUNDSPEED.

162
Q

ATC calls dispatch office reporting pilots haven’t checked in on a frequency. What do you do?

A

attempt to reach aircraft and relay frequency using:
company radio
ACARS
SATCOM
ARINC
Relay through other pilots you can get on company
If nothing works-DECLARE AN EMERGENCY!

163
Q

A new TAF forecast comes out and now is illegal for dispatch. The plane left the gate. What do you do?

A

Call ATC tower and cancel takeoff clearance or attempt to get flight on company radio.

164
Q

ARP UAL554 3607N 11116W 2239 F390 M58 254/003 TB LGT RM B752 OV TBC

A 
What is this report?
ARP-Air REP (similar to PIREP) Usually activated by pilots but produced by aircraft
United Airlines at location 3607N and 11116W
Time 2239Z
Flight Level 390
Temperature Negative 58
Winds 254 at 3 knots
Light turbulence
Remarks Boeing 757-200 over TBC VOR
165
Q

In the Northern Hemisphere, air in a low pressure systems flows __ and __?

A

Counterclockwise/Upwards around the center of the Low

166
Q

You and the PIC have Joint Responsibility. What does this mean to you?

A

You and the pilot are BOTH responsible for preflight planning and dispatch release of a flight. You must both agree that the flight is within regulations, OPS SPECS, and most of all SAFE! You together will use joint responsibility to plan the flight and you both have operational control.

167
Q

121.533 Responsibility for Operational Control: Domestic Operations. What does this mean to you?

A

Monitoring the flight-from gate to gate. You must MONITOR THE PROGRESS OF YOUR FLIGHT! Issuing necessary info for safety of the flight (aircraft limitations, W&B, crew briefings, MEL/CDL, takeoff/landing restrictions, NOTAMs SIGMETs)
Canceling or redispatching a flight if in his/her opinion or opinion of PIC, the flight cannot operate or continue to operate safely as planned or released. (by using joint responsibility and operational control, you may not dispatch or continue a flight anytime you believe safety is jeopardized)

168
Q

What are 3 types of VORs and their service volumes?

A 
AIM 1-1-8 (all are in feet AGL)
High- 1000-14500=40NM
14500-18000=100NM
18000-45000=130NM
45000-60000=100NM
Low-1000-18000=40NM
Terminal 1000-12000=25NM
169
Q

Interpret the following

R07L/4000VP6000FT

A

Runway 07 left

Runway visual range 4000 variable to greater than 6000 ft

170
Q

Using standard takeoff minimums, could a 737 takeoff with this RVR? R07L/4000VP6000FT

A

No. Standard takeoff minimums for a 2 engine aircraft is 1 SM. You need at least 5000RVR (4000 is below 5000)

171
Q

Using standard takeoff minimums, could a 727 takeoff with this RVR? R07L/4000VP6000FT

A

Yes. Standard takeoff minimums for a 3 engine aircraft is 1/2SM

172
Q

Using standard takeoff minimums, could a 737 takeoff with this METAR?
KBJC 090145Z 02007KT 1/4SM BKN015 OVC 025 01/M01 A3028 RWK R29L/P6000FT

A

Yes, if planning runway 29L. RVR is controlling visibility and showing greater than 6000 ft on 29 left. For a two engine aircraft we only need 5000FT.

173
Q

Using standard takeoff minimums, could a 737 takeoff with this METAR?
KBJC 090145Z 02007KT 3SM BKN015 OVC 025 01/M01 A3028 RWK R29L/P1600FT

A

No, if planning runway 29L. RVR is controlling visibility and showing 1600ft on 29 left. For a two engine aircraft we need 5000 ft or greater.

174
Q

In the Northern Hemisphere, air in a high pressure systems flows __ and __?

A

clockwise/ downwards towards the center of the high

175
Q

Describe the characteristics of a low pressure system?

A

Usually associated with adverse weather, but generally good visibility. Wind can be strong if isobars are close together. Decreases performance. Convection that can produce thunderstorms.

176
Q

Describe the characteristics of a high pressure system?

A

Usually associated with good flying conditions, but low visibility. Prevents convection. Increases aircraft performance.

177
Q

LWD UA/OV LMN280040/TM 2201/FL060/TP PA46/SK TOP060/TB MOD/ IC NEG
How would this PIREP effect your flight traveling at near that same area?

A

It is good information that turbulent air is in the area. The aircraft type is a PA46, a smaller aircraft and only reporting moderate turbulence. A737 would experience only light, if any, turbulence passing through the same air. Brief pilot on possible turbulent air with smaller aircraft and monitor area for more PIREPs. Mostly likely would not effect your flight.

178
Q

TVC UUA/OV TVC/TM 2206/FL360/TP A380/TB CONT SVR CHOP

What would this mean for you flight traveling in same area?

A

EXTREMELY DANGEROUS!!!
This is an urgent PIREP and the aircraft is a A380 that is experiencing continuous serve chop. A smaller 737 would experience severe to extreme turbulence and most likely experience structural damage. Do not dispatch through severe!

179
Q

LNK UUA/OV LNK/TM 2306/FL003/TP BE9L/RM LLWS+/-20KT FINAL APPROACH RWY 35
Read and describe why this report may be important?

A 
Identifier: LNK
Urgent pilot report: (UUA)
Time: 2306Z
Flight level: 300ft
Type: Beech King Air 90
Remarks: Low level Wind Shear plus and minus 20 KTS on final approach to runway 35. If we were to dispatch this aircraft to this area, brief the pilot of low level wind shear and plan accordingly with extra fuel and maybe even an alternate.
180
Q

KDEN 082201Z 0822/0924 07014KT P6SM SCT030 OVC080 FM090000 02014G22KT P6SM BKN010 OVC020 FM090200 04012KT 1SM -FZDZSN BR OVC007 TEMPO 0904/0908 1/4SM -FZDZSN FZFG VV003
Would it e legal to dispatch an aircraft with ETA of 0500Z with landing minimums of a standard CAT 1 ILS?

A

No, unless, approved for 3585 you may add a second alternate and the flight would be LEGAL to dispatch.
The main body of the TAF shows visibility of 1 SM OVC007.
The conditional remark during our arrival is exactly half (1/4) of our landing minimums.

181
Q

KDEN 082201Z 0822/0924 07014KT P6SM SCT030 OVC080 FM090000 02014G22KT P6SM BKN010 OVC020 FM090200 04012KT 1SM -FZDZSN BR OVC007 TEMPO 0904/0908 1/2SM -FZDZSN FZFG VV003
Can you dispatch an aircraft with ETA of 0530Z legally with CAT I ILS. If so, what might you consider and prepare for those conditions?

A

Yes
Alternate is required.
Landing is near minimums due to tempo to brief pilot.
Extra fuel due to possible delays and approaches.
Call for braking action due to light freezing rain and snow.

182
Q

What are some conditional remarks that may be found in a TAF?

A

TEMPO-temporary conditions that changes are expected for less than 1 hour total and half the time forecasted
PROB-Probability. It will be followed by a number. PROB40 means there is a 40% chance of conditions occurring.
BECMG- Becoming. In the US, it is used as a conditional remark meaning a gradual change.

183
Q

What is a SPECI?

A

A special METAR due to quick changing weather such as:
Direction 45 degree or more in less than 15 minutes and wind speed is 10 KTS or more. Visibility decreases to less than or if already below (increases to equal or exceeds) 3,2,1 mile. RVR changes to above or below 2400 ft (1/2SM)

184
Q

KAPA 082213Z 0822/0918 12010KT P6SM SCT030 OVC080 FM090200 04011KT 1 SM -FZDZSN BR OVC007 TEMPO 0904/0908 1/2SM -FZDZSN FZFG VV003
What is the latest ETA you can have without a destination alternate at KAPA?

A

The latest ETA without an alternate would be 0059Z
An hour before and after that ETA (2359Z before/ 0159 after)
The ceiling is not less than 2000 ft
Visibility is not less than 3SM
An anytime later would have ceiling BKN at 1000 starting at 0000Z (less than 2000)

185
Q

KBJC 082212Z 0822/0918 13012KT P6SM SCT020 OVC060 FM090000 02014G22KT P6SM BKN008 OVC015 FM090200 04009KT 1SM -FZDZSN BR OVC005 TEMPO 0904/0908 1/2SM -FZDZSN FZFG VV002
What is the trend of the weather at KBJC?

A

Briefing the pilot or a dispatcher, the trend of this TAF:
Trending towards worse weather
Winds increase and ceiling get decrease starting a 0000Z
Visibility and ceiling decrease with light freezing drizzle and snow along with mist (0200Z)
Temporary condition of 1/2SM and Vertical Visibility of 200ft from 04/08
Braking action could be a factor due to the light freezing drizzle and snow

186
Q

What are some different types of TAFs?

A

Routine TAF-Updated every 6 hours
Corrected TAF-Where there is a correction made to a previous TAF due to error
Amended TAF-Amended to forecast more accurate weather forecasts.

187
Q

KDEN 082153Z 09010KT 10SM FEW100 FEW150 07/M02 A3011 RMK AO2 SLP173 T00721022
Is this a TAF, METAR, or PIREP? How do you know?

A

METAR
It is an observation of the condition at 2153Z. You can tell due to a temperature, dewpoint, altimeter setting, and level pressure. A TAF will not include these.
A PIREP will include location, type of aircraft and altitude it was reported.

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