Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

First Aid Neuro > FA Neuro & Psych Drugs > Flashcards

FA Neuro & Psych Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

MoA: dec aqueous humor synthesis
Use: glaucoma

A

alpha-agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

alpha-agonist used for glaucoma

ADRs: mydriasis, stinging; C/I in closed-angle

A

Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

alpha-agonist used for glaucoma

[ADRs: no pupillary/vision changes]

A

Brimonidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

MoA: dec aqueous humor secretion
Use: glaucoma
[ADRs: no pupillary/vision changes]

A

beta-blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

beta-blocker used for glaucoma

A

Timolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

beta-blocker used for glaucoma

A

Betaxolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

beta-blocker used for glaucoma

A

Carteolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

MoA: dec aqueous humor secretion (dec bicarb)
Use: glaucoma
[ADRs: no pupillary/vision changes]

A

Acetazolamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MoA: inc aqueous humor outflow by contracting ciliary muscle & opening trabecular meshwork
ADRs: miosis, cyclospasm

A

Cholinomimetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Direct cholinomimetic used in glaucoma

Use: glaucoma emergencies (v. effective)

A

Pilocarpine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Direct cholinomimetic used in glaucoma

A

Carbachol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Indirect cholinomimetic used in glaucoma

A

Physostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Indirect cholinomimetic used in glaucoma

A

Echothiphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MoA: PGF_2alpha, inc outflow of aqueous humor
Use: glaucoma
ADRs: darkens iris color (browining)

A

Latanoprost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MoA: agonist at opioid-R (esp mu) –> open K+ channels & close Ca2+ channels to dec synaptic transmission & inhibit release of ACh, NE, 5-HT, glutamate, & substance P
Use: pain
ADRs: Respiratory depression, pinpoint pupils, additive CNS depression, addiction, constipation (no tolerance to miosis & constipation)

A

Opioid Analgesics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Opioid-R antagonist

Use: opioid OD

A

Naloxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Opioid-R antagonist

Use: opioid OD

A

Naltrexone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Opioid analgesic

Use: general anesthesia (w/ other CNS depressants); acute pul edema for relief of anxiety (not 1st line)

A

Morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Opioid analgesic

Use: general anesthesia (w/ other CNS depressants)

A

Fentanyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Opioid analgesic

A

Codeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Opioid analgesic

A

Heroin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Opioid analgesic

Use: maintenance programs for addicts

A

Methadone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Opioid analgesic

A

Meperidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Opioid analgesic

Use: cough suppression

A

Dextromethorphan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Opioid analgesic

Use: diarrhea

A

Dipheoxylate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Opioid analgesic

Use: diarrhea

A

Loperamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

MoA: partial opioid mu-R agonist, agonist at opioid kappa-R
Use: pain
ADRs: less respiratory depression than nl opioids; withdrawal if on full opioid agonist

A

Butorphanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

MoA: weak opioid agonist; inhibits 5-HT & NE reuptake
Use: chronic pain
ADRs: like opioid; dec seizure threshold

A

Tramadol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Carbamazepine

A

DOC for simple partial seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Carbamazepine

A

DOC for complex partial seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Carbamazepine, phenytoin, valproic acid

A

DOC for tonic-clonic generalized seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Ethosuximide

A

DOC for absence generalized seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Prophylaxis: phenytoin
Acute: benzodiazepines (diazepam/lorazepam)

A

DOC for status epilepticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Carbamazepine

A

DOC for trigeminal neuralgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Phenobarbital

A

DOC for seizures in pregnant women & children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

1st line: MgSO4

2nd line: benzodiazepines (diazepam/lorazepam)

A

DOC for seizures of eclampsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

MoA: inc Na+ channel inactivation (use-dependent) –> inhibits glutamate release from pre-synaptic neuron
Use: partial & tonic-clonic seizures (1st line for TC), status epilepticus prophylaxis (1st line); also class 1B anti-arrythmic
ADRs: nystagmus, ataxia, diplopia, sedation, drug-induced lupus, teratogenic; chronically –> gingival hyperplasia in children, peripheral neuropathy, hirsutism, megaloblastic anemia
PK: fosphenytoin –> parenteral; induces P450

A

Phenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

MoA: inc Na+ channel inactivation
Use: partial & tonic-clonic seizures (1st line for all), trigenminal neuralgia
ADRs: diplopia, ataxia, agranulocytosis or aplastic anemia, liver tox, SIADH, Stevens-Johnson Syndrome, teratogenesis
PK: induces P450

A

Carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

MoA: blocks V-gated Na+ channels
Use: partial & tonic-clonic seizures
ADRs: Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

A

Lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

MoA: inhibits HVA Ca2+ channels, GABA analog
Use: partial & tonic-clonic seizures, peripheral neuropathy, bipolar disorder
ADRs: sedation, ataxia

A

Gabapentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

MoA: blocks Na+ channels, inc GABA action
Use: partial & tonic-clonic seizures
ADRs: mental dulling, sedation, kidney stones, weight loss

A

Topiramate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

MoA: inc Na+ channel inactivation, inc GABA concentration
Use: partial, tonic-clonic, absence, & myoclonic seizures (1st line for TC)
ADRs: GI distress, neural tube defects in fetus (C/I in preg), tremor, wt gain, rare but fatal hepatotoxicity

A

Valproic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

MoA: blocks thalamic T-type Ca2+ channels
Use: absence seizures (1st line)
ADRs: GI distress, fatigue, headache, urticaria, Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

A

Ethosuximide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

MoA: inhibits GABA reuptake
Use: partial seizures

A

Tiagabine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

MoA: irrev inhibits GABA transaminase –> inc GABA
Use: partial seizures

A

Vigabatrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

MoA: may modulate GABA/glutamate release
Use: partial & tonic-clonic seizures

A

Levetiracetam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

MoA: inc freq of Cl- channel opening –> facilitate GABA action; dec REM sleep
Use: anxiety, spasticity, detoxification (esp delirium tremens ass’d w/ alcohol), night terrors, sleepwalking, general anesthetic, insomnia
ADRs: sedation, tolerance & dependence, additive CNS depression (w/ EtOH), less respiratory depression/coma risks

A

Benzodiazepines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

MoA: competitive GABA BZD-R antatonist
Use: BZD overdose

A

Flumazenil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Benzodiazepine
Use: status epilepticus
PK: Long-acting (lower addictive potential)

A

Diazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Benzodiazepine
Use: status epilepticus
PK: Long-acting (lower addictive potential)

A

Lorazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Benzodiazepine

PK: Short-acting (higher addictive potential)

A

Triazolam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Benzodiazepine

PK: Long-acting (lower addictive potential)

A

Temazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Benzodiazepine

PK: Short-acting (higher addictive potential)

A

Oxazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Benzodiazepine
Use: IV anesthetic for endoscopy (w/ inhaled anesthetics & narcotics
ADRs: severe post-op resp depression, dec BP, amnesia
PK: Short-acting (higher addictive potential)

A

Midazolam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Benzodiazepine

PK: Long-acting (lower addictive potential)

A

Chlordiazepoxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Benzodiazepine

PK: Long-acting (lower addictive potential)

A

Alprazolam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

MoA: inc GABA action by inc duration of Cl channel opeining –> dec neuron firint
Use: (sedative) anxiety, seizures, insomnia
ADRs: sedation, tolerance, dependence, additive CNS depression (w/ alcohol), resp/CV depression
OD Tx: symptom management (respiration, inc BP)
PK: induces P450

A

Barbituates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Barbituate

Use: partial & tonic-clonic seizures, esp in pregnancy

A

Phenobarbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Barbituate

A

Pentobarbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Barbituate
Use: induction of anesthesia, short surgical procedures
PK: high potency (high lipid solubility), rapid CNS entry; dec cerebral blood flow; Fx terminated by redistribution into tissue/fat

A

Thiopental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Barbituate

A

Secobarbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

MoA: act at BZ1-R subtype; reversible by flumazenil
Use: insomnia
ADRs: ataxia, headaches, confusion; lower dependence risk than BZDs, only modest day-after psychomotor depression, few amnestic Fx (short duration)

A

Non-BZD hypnotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Non-BZD hypnotic

A

Zolpidem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Non-BZD hypnotic

A

Zaleplon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Non-BZD hypnotic

A

Eszopiclone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

MoA: unknown
Fx: myocardial & respiratory depression, N/V, inc cerebral blood flow

A

Inhaled anesthetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Inhaled anesthetic

ADR: hepatotoxicity

A

Halothane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Inhaled anesthetic

ADR: proconvulsant

A

Enflurane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Inhaled anesthetic

A

Isoflurane

70
Q

Inhaled anesthetic

A

Sevoflurane

71
Q

Inhaled anesthetic

ADR: nephrotoxicity

A

Methoxyflurane

72
Q

Inhaled anesthetic

ADR: expansion of trapped gas

A

Nitrous Oxide

73
Q

MoA: PCP analogs –> block NMDA-R, inc cerebral bloodflow
Use: dissociative anesthetics
ADRs: cardiovascular stimulant, disorientation, hallucination, bad dreams

A

Arylcyclohexylamines

74
Q

Arylcyclohexylamine

A

Ketamine

75
Q

MoA: potentiates GABA
Use: rapid anesthesia induction, short procedures
ADRs: less post-op nausea than thiopental

A

Propofol

76
Q

MoA: bind to intracellular portion of Na+ channels (penetrate = uncharged; bind = charged); use-dependent (prefer activated Na+ channels)
Use: minor surgical procedures, spinal anesthesia
PK: more needed in infected (acidic) tissue; usually given w/ vasoconstrictors (except cocaine)
ADRs: CNS excitation, HTN/hypotension

A

Local anesthetics

77
Q

Ester local anesthetic

ADRs: allergy (give amide)

A

Procaine

78
Q

Ester local anesthetic

ADRs: allergy (give amide), arrythmias

A

Cocaine

79
Q

Ester local anesthetic

ADRs: allergy (give amide)

A

Tetracaine

80
Q

Amide local anesthetic

A

Lidocaine

81
Q

Amide local anesthetic

A

Mepivacaine

82
Q

Amide local anesthetic

ADRs: severe CV tox (arrythmias, hypotension) if given IV

A

Bupivacaine

83
Q

MoA: Compete w/ ACh for motor nicotinic receptor
Use: muscle paralysis in surgery or mechanical ventilation
Reverse blockade w/ cholinesterase inhibitors

A

Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs

84
Q

MoA: depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drug; Phase I = prolonged depolarization (no antidote), Phase II = repolarized but blocked (use cholinesterase-I)
Use: muscle paralysis in surgery or mechanical ventilation (quicker onset than non-depol)
ADRs: hypercalcemia, hyperkalemia

A

Succinylcholine

85
Q

Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker

A

Tubocurarine

86
Q

Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker

A

Atracurium

87
Q

Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker

A

Mivacurium

88
Q

Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker

A

Pancuronium

89
Q

Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker

A

Vecuronium

90
Q

Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker

A

Rocuronium

91
Q

MoA: prevent Ca2+ release from skeletal muscle sarcoplasmic reticulum
Use: malignant hyperthermia (from inhalation anesthetics + succinylcholine), neuroleptic malignant syndrome (from antipsychotics)

A

Dantrolene

92
Q

MoA: agonize Dopamine receptors
Use: Parkinson’s disease

A

Dopamine agonists

93
Q

Ergot Dopamine agonist

A

Bromocriptine

94
Q

Non-ergot (preferred) Dopamine agonist

A

Pramipezole

95
Q

Non-ergot (preferred) Dopamine agonist

A

Ropinirole

96
Q

MoA: may inc dopamine release
Use: Parkinson’s Disease, influenza A, rubella
ADRs: ataxia

A

Amantadine

97
Q

MoA: inc dopamine in brain (L-dopa crosses BBB & is converted to dopamine)
Use: Parkinsonism
ADRs: N/V w/o constipation, arrhythmias (due to peripheral conversion); long-term: dyskinesia w/ admin, akinesia b/w doses; dec ADRs w/ carbidopa

A

L-dopa/carbidopa

98
Q

MoA: selective MAO-B inhibitor –> inc dopamine availability
Use: Parkinson’s disease (adjunctive Tx), depression, anxiety, hypochondriasis
ADRs: may enhance L-dopa ADRs; hypertensive crisis (w/ tyramine or beta-agonists), CNS stimulation, C/I w/ SSRIs/meperidine

A

Selegiline

99
Q

MoA: prevent L-dopa degradation –> inc dopamine
Use: Parkinson’s disease

A

COMT inhibitors

100
Q

MoA: anti-muscarinic
Use: Parkinson’s disease (for tremor & rigidity, no Fx on bradykinesia)
Avoid if: Hx of GI/GU obstruction –> can exacerbate Sx

A

Benztropine

101
Q

MoA: NMDA-R antagonist –> prevents excitotoxicity
Use: Alzheimer’s Disease
ADRs: dizziness, confusion, hallucinations

A

Memantine

102
Q

MoA: indirect cholinomimetic
Use: Alzheimer’s disease
ADRs: Nausea, dizziness, insomnia

A

Acetylcholinesterase Inhibitors

103
Q

Acetylcholinesterase Inhibitor used in Alzheimer’s

A

Donepezil

104
Q

Acetylcholinesterase Inhibitor used in Alzheimer’s

A

Galantamine

105
Q

Acetylcholinesterase Inhibitor used in Alzheimer’s

A

Rivastigmine

106
Q

MoA: amine-depleting
Use: Huntington’s Disease (HD shows inc dopamine)

A

Reserpine

107
Q

MoA: amine-depleting
Use: Huntington’s Disease (HD shows inc dopamine)

A

Tetrabenazine

108
Q

MoA: dopamine-R antagonist
Use: Huntington’s Disease (HD shows inc dopamine)

A

Haloperidol

109
Q

MoA: 5-HT_1B/1D agonist –> vasoconstiction, inhibition of trigeminal activation, & vasoactive peptide release
Use: acute migraine, cluster headache attacks
ADRs: coronary vasospasm, mild tingling; C/I in CAD or Pinzmetals’ angina

A

Sumatriptan

110
Q

benzodiazepines

A

Treatment for alcohol withdrawal

111
Q

SSRIs

A

Treatment for bulimia

112
Q

Acute: benzodiazepines
Chronic: buspirone, SSRIs

A

Treatment for anxiety

113
Q

Methylphenidate

Amphetamines

A

Treatment for ADHD

114
Q

MAO-Is/SSRIs

A

Treatment for Atypical depression

115
Q

“Mood Stabilizers” –> lithium, valproic acid, carbamazepine

Atypical antipsychotics

A

Treatment for Bipolar Disorder

116
Q

SSRIs, SNRIs

TCAs (less)

A

Treatment for Depression

117
Q

Mirtazapine

A

Treatment for Depression w/ insomnia

118
Q

SSRIs

Clomipramine

A

Treatment for OCD

119
Q

SSRIs, TCAs, BZDs

A

Treatment for Panic Disorder

120
Q

SSRIs

A

Treatment for PTSD

121
Q

Antipsychotics (atypicals 1st))

A

Treatment for Schizophrenia

122
Q

Antipsychotics (haloperidol, risperidone)

A

Treatment for Tourette’s Syndrome

123
Q

SSRIs

A

Treatment for Social Phobias

124
Q

MoA: inc catecholamines at synaptic cleft (esp NE & dopamine)
Use: ADHD, narcolepsy, appetite control)

A

CNS stimulants

125
Q

CNS stimulant

A

Methylphenidate

126
Q

CNS stimulant

A

Dextroamphetamine

127
Q

CNS stimulant

A

Mixed amphetamine salts

128
Q

MoA: block dopamine D2-R (inc cAMP)
Use: Schizophrenia (pos Sx), psychosis, acute mania, Tourette’s Syndrome
ADRs: Extrapyramidal sys side Fx, Neuroleptic malignant Syndrome, Tardive Dyskinesia, endocrine side Fx (e.g. hyperprolactinemia), dry mouth/constipation (anti-muscarinic), hypotension (anti-alpha), & sedation (anti-histamine)

A

Anti-psychotics

129
Q

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome –> rhabdomyolysis -> rigidity & myoglobinuria; autonomic instability, hyperpyrexia
Tx: dantroline, D2 agonists

A

Pt presents w/ fever, encephalopathy, unstable vitals, elevated enzymes, & muscle rigidity (as ADR)

130
Q

High-potency anti-psychotic

ADRs: more neurological –> extrapyramidal Sx, tardive dyskinesia

A

Haloperidol

131
Q

High-potency anti-psychotic

ADRs: more neurological –> extrapyramidal Sx, tardive dyskinesia

A

Trifluoperazine

132
Q

High-potency anti-psychotic

ADRs: more neurological –> extrapyramidal Sx, tardive dyskinesia

A

Fluphenazine

133
Q

Low-potency anti-psychotic

ADRs: more non-neurological –> anticholinergic, antihistamine, & alpha-blockade; retinal deposits

A

Thioridazine

134
Q

Low-potency anti-psychotic

ADRs: more non-neurological –> anticholinergic, antihistamine, & alpha-blockade; corneal deposits

A

Chlorpromazine

135
Q

MoA: Fx on 5-HT, dopamine, alpha, & H1 receptors
Use: schizophrenia (pos & neg Sx)
ADRs: fewer EPs & anti-cholinergic side Fx

A

Atypical Antipsychotics

136
Q

Atypical Antipsychotic
Use: OCD, anxiety disorder, depression, mania, Tourette’s Syndrome
ADRs: weight gain

A

Olanzapine

137
Q

Atypical Antipsychotic

ADRs: weight gain, seizures, agranulocytosis

A

Clozapine

138
Q

Atypical Antipsychotic

A

Quetiapine

139
Q

Atypical Antipsychotic

ADR: hyperprolactinemia (DA-antag)

A

Risperidone

140
Q

Atypical Antipsychotic

A

Aripiprazole

141
Q

Atypical Antipsychotic

ADR: QT prolongation

A

Ziprasidone

142
Q

MoA: unclear, possibly phosphoinositol cascade inhibition
Use: bipolar disorder (mood stabilizer –> blocks relapse & acute manic events); SIADH (ADH antag)
ADRs: MNOP –> Movement (tremor), Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, hypOthyroidism, Pregnancy problems (cardiac defects –> Ebstein anomaly & malformation of great vessels); also sedation, edema, heart block,

A

Lithium

143
Q

MoA: stimulates 5-HT receptors
Use: generalized anxiety disorder
[ADRs: no sedation, addiction, tolerance, or additive CNS depression w/ EtOH]

A

Buspirone

144
Q

MoA: block NE & serotonin reuptake
Use: major depression, fibromyalgia
ADRs: sedation, alpha-blockade, atropine-like (tachycardia, urinary retention, C/I in glaucoma)
OD: 3C: Convulsions, Coma, Cardiotoxicity; also resp depression, hyperpyrexia; elderly –> confusion & halucinations
OD Tx: NaHCO3 for cardiotox

A

Tricyclic antidepressants

145
Q

Tricyclic antidepressant

ADR: tertiary –> more anticholinergic Fx

A

Amitriptyline

146
Q

Tricyclic antidepressant

ADR: secondary –> fewer anticholinergic Fx (better in elderly)

A

Nortriptyline

147
Q

Tricyclic antidepressant

Use: bedwetting

A

Imipramine

148
Q

Tricyclic antidepressant

ADRs: lower seizure threshold, least sedating

A

Desipramine

149
Q

Tricyclic antidepressant

Use: OCD

A

Clomipramine

150
Q

Tricyclic antidepressant

A

Doxepin

151
Q

Tricyclic antidepressant

A

Amoxapine

152
Q

MoA: serotonin-specific reuptake inhibitors
Use: depression, OCD good for suicidal pts

A

SSRIs

153
Q

Serotonin syndrome: due to interaction of 2 drugs that increase serotonin, e.g. SSRIs, MAO-I, meperidine (MC –> SSRI + MAO-I)
Tx: cyproheptadine (5-HT-R antagonist)

A

Depressed pt presenting w/ hyperthermia, myoclonus, hypotension, flushing, diarrhea, seizures

154
Q

SSRI

A

Fluoxetine

155
Q

SSRI

A

Paroxetine

156
Q

SSRI

A

Sertraline

157
Q

SSRI

A

Citalopram

158
Q

MoA: inhibit serotonin & NE reuptake
Use: depression
ADRs: MC inc BP; stimulant Fx, sedation, nausea

A

SNRIs

159
Q

SNRI

Use: generalized anxiety disorder

A

Venlafaxine

160
Q

SNRI (greater NE effect)

Use: diabetic peripheral neuropathy

A

Duloxetine

161
Q

MoA: nonselective MAO inhibition, inc amine neurotransmitter levels (NE, serotonin, dopamine)
Use: atypical depression, anxiety, hypochondriasis
ADRs: Hypertensive crisis (w/ tyramine or beta-agonists), CNS stimulation; C/I w/ SSRIs or meperidine

A

MAO-I

162
Q

MAO-I

A

Tranylcypromine

163
Q

MAO-I

A

Phenelzine

164
Q

MAO-I

A

Isocarboxazid

165
Q

MAO-I

Use: also alkylating agent used in cancer chemoTx)

A

Procarbazine

166
Q

MoA: inc NE & dopamine (unknown mech)
Use: atypical antidepressant; smoking cessation
ADRs: stimulant Fx (tachycardia, insomnia), headache, seizures in bulimic pts [no sexual side Fx]

A

Bupropion

167
Q

MoA: alpha2-antag –> inc NE & 5-HT release; potent 5-HT2 & 5-HT3 antag
Use: atypical antidepressant
ADRs: sedation, inc appetite, weight gain, dry mouth

A

Mitazapine

168
Q

MoA: blocks NE reuptake
Use: atypical antidepressant
ADRs: sedation, orthostatic hypotension

A

Maprotiline

169
Q

MoA: inhibits serotonin reuptake
Use: insomnia (antidepressent Fx = v. high dose)
ADRs: sedation, nausea, priapism, postural hypotension

A

Trazodone

170
Q

MoA: 5-HT2-R antagonist)
Use: Serotonin Syndrome

A

Cyproheptadine

171
Q

modafinil (CNS stimulant thought to inc DA signalling; effective, well tolerated, low abuse potential)

A

DOC for narcolepsy

172
Q

propranolol (beta-blockers)

A

DOC for essential tremor

First Aid Neuro (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions