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Frontier Airlines > F9 Limitations A320 02/13/21 > Flashcards

F9 Limitations A320 02/13/21 Flashcards

captain level knowledge

1
Q

Flight Maneuvering Load Acceleration Limits

A

Clean -1.0g to +2.5g

Flaps or Slats extended 0.0g to +2.0g

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2
Q

Approach Category for A319, A320 and A321

A

A319 Category C
A320 Category C
A321 Category D

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3
Q

Maximum number of seats for all aircraft

A

A319…..150 seats
A320…..190 seats
A321…..230 seats

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4
Q

Stabilized Approach 1000 feet

A

Steady rate of decent not > 1,200 FPM
On the correct lateral path (+or- 1 dot for ILS/LOC, 0.30 NM cross track for RNAV, or 1/2 dot for VOR)
On the correct vertical path (+or - 1 dot)
In the final landing configuration (Ldg and Flaps Extended)
No GPWS Warnings or Cautions

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5
Q

Stabilized Approach 500 feet

A

On the correct lateral path (+or- 1 dot for ILS/LOC, 0.30 NM cross track for RNAV, or 1/2 dot for VOR)
On the correct vertical path (+or - 1 dot)
In the final landing configuration (Ldg and Flaps Extended)
No GPWS Warnings or Cautions
Steady rate of descent not to exceed 1,000 FPM
Within -5 to +15 Knots of target speed for approach

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6
Q

Runway Limits (Slope, Altitude and Minimum Width)

A

Maximum Runway Slope +- 2%
Maximum Runway Altitude 9200 ft
Minimum runway width 148ft/45m

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7
Q

A319 and A320 Maximum Crosswind and Tailwind for T/O and Landing

A

Max Crosswind for T/0 35kts
Max Crosswind for Lnd 38kts

Max Tailwind for T/O 15kts
Max Tailwind for Lnd 10kts

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8
Q

A321 Maximum Crosswind and Tailwind for T/O and Landing

A

Max Crosswind for T/0 35kts
Max Crosswind for Lnd 38kts

Max Tailwind for T/O 10kts
Max Tailwind for Lnd 10kts

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9
Q

We can not operate on a Runway with breaking action reported less then ____?

A

Poor

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10
Q

Normal Runway Width Limitation

A

148ft / 45m

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11
Q

Narrow Runway Operation Limitations

A 
Autoland is NOT authorized 
Diversion to normal width runway is recommended if case of: 
Rudder Jam
Rudder pedal Jam
Yaw damper fault
No nose wheel steering
ANY wheel brake inoperative
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12
Q

Wind Limitations for Passenger and Cargo Door Operation

A

Passenger Door …. 65kts Max

Cargo Door …. 40kts / 50kts

Cargo Door must be closed before the wind speed exceeds 65kts

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13
Q

Max VMO/MMO

A

350KIAS / .82 Mach

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14
Q

Severe Turbulent Air Penetration Speed 320 and 321

A

FL200 and Below ….. 250kts
Above FL200 to FL310 ….. 275kts
Above FL310 ….. 0.76 Mach

270, 300, 0.76 Mach

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15
Q

Max Flap/Slats Speeds A319 / A320

A

Flaps 1 ….. 220kts
Flaps 2 ….. 190kts
Flaps 3 ….. 175kts
Flaps Full ….. 162kts

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16
Q

Max Flap/Slats Speeds A321

A

Flaps 1 ….. 225kts
Flaps 2 ….. 205kts
Flaps 3 ….. 185kts
Flaps Full ….. 175kts

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17
Q

Maximum Landing Gear Operation Speeds
VLO Retraction
VLO Extension
VLE Extended

A

VLO Retraction ….. 220kts
VLO Extension ….. 250kts
VLE Extended ….. 280kts / 0.67 Mach

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18
Q

Max Landing Gear Extended Altitude

A

There is not one. This was changed

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19
Q

Max Tire Speed

A

195kts groundspeed

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20
Q

Max Windshield Wiper Operation Speed

A

230 KIAS

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21
Q

Max Cockpit Window Open Speed

A

200 KIAS

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22
Q

MAX Taxi Speed in a turn

320 and 321

A

With Weight Greater than 167,550 lbs
The max speed during a turn is 20kts
A320 and A321

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23
Q

Max Altitude for Flaps / Slats Extended

A

20,000ft MSL

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24
Q

Cabin Differential Limitations
Negative
Positive
Safety Relief Valve

A
  • 1.0 psi Negative
    9. 0 psi Positive
    8. 6 psi Safety Relief Valve
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25
Q

The Ram Air Inlet will only open if the differential pressure is lower then what?

A

1 psi

But: if the difference is greater then 1psi, the check valve located down stream will not open even if the ram air door has been selected open.

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26
Q

Can you use Low Pressure (LP) Ground Unit Air when the APU is supplying Bleed Air to the system?

A

No

Do not use conditioned air simultaneously from PACKs and LP ground unit ( to avoid chattering of the non return valves).

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27
Q

Can you use High Pressure (HP) Ground Unit Air when the APU is supplying Bleed Air to the system?

A

No

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28
Q

Can you use HP Ground Unit Air to run the PACKs?

A

No

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29
Q

How long can the Aircraft sit without power to cool the avionics?

A

No more then 2 hours with out a cooling system when the outside air temperature is above 49 C

30
Q

Should Airframe Vibration be reported?

A

Yes

Airframe vibrations shall be recorded in the aircraft logbook and on the accompanying Airframe Vibration Reporting Sheet (Form 31048)

Fill out in-flight if possible

Leave completed forms in Aircraft Logbook

31
Q

APU Started Duty Cycle

A

Required Cooling Time:
Between each start ….. 1 min

After 3 consecutive start attempts ….. 60 mins

32
Q

Max APU EGT on ground

A

675c

33
Q

Max APU EGT in flight

A

Above FL 350 1120c

Below FL 350 1090c

34
Q

Max APU Rotor Speed

A

107%

35
Q

Max APU Starting and Operation Altitudes

A

For APU start using battery power only 25,000 ft
For APU start using normal electronics 39,000 ft
One Pack Operation w/Electrical 22,500 ft
For Engine Start 20,000 ft
Two Pack Operation w/Electrical 15,000 ft

36
Q

Autopilot Minimum Engagement Heights

A

After Takeoff (If SRS is indicated)… 100ft AGL
Enroute… 900 ft AGL
RNAV VISUAL APPROACH… 500 AGL
Non-Precision Approaches… DDA/DA
Non-Autoland ILS with CAT 1 FMA… 160 AGL
Non-Autoland ILS with CAT 2/3 FMA… 80 AGL
GO-Around (if SRS is indicated)… 100 AGL
Autoland Approach… ROLLOUT/ Taxi Speed

37
Q

When visibility is less than 4000 RVR or 3/4 mi vis, the approach must be flown with….

A

The autopilot(s) engaged if operable

38
Q

The use of AP or FD in OPEN DES or DES mode is not permitted inside…

A

the FAF or below 1000 ft AGL on a visual approach.

39
Q

If one engine is inoperative, it is not permitted to use the autopilot to perform a non precision approaches in the following modes:

A

ESCEPT IN SOME AIRCRAFT
FINAL APP
NAV V/S
NAV/FPA

Only FD use is authorized

40
Q

How do you derive a DDA?

A

By adding 50 ft to the published MDA

41
Q

Who is PF for all auto land approaches?

A

The Captain

42
Q

Are autolands approved for CONF 3?

A

Yes but CONF FULL is recommended for all autolands to maximize forward slant range visibility.

43
Q

Autolands are prohibited if braking action is reported less then?

A

Medium

44
Q

Autoland is not allowed below what pressure altitude?

A

-1000 ft pressure altitude

45
Q

Autoland approaches may be conducted when the following conditions are satisfied….

A 
CAT II/III runway
CAT II/III aircraft
Crews CAT II/III trained
Appropriate ground facilities are operational 
Wind within limits 
Breaking action medium or better
46
Q

Autoland is required below CAT….. minimums

A

CAT 1 Minimums

47
Q

Frontier’s policy is to set up and brief for an autoland if the reported RVR/visibility is….

A

at or below 1/2 mile or 2400 RVR
AND all of the requirements for an auto land can be met
the approach will be briefed and flown as a CAT II or CAT III Autoland

48
Q

Max autoland airport altitude for

A319, A320 and A321

A

A319 and A320… 9200 ft

A321… 5750 ft

49
Q

Autoland Autobrake requirements

A

MEDIUM if the Runway less than 8,000 ft

LOW or MEDIUM if the Runway is more then 8,000 ft

50
Q

Max Autoland Winds for the A319 and A320

A

Headwind 30 knots
Crosswind 15 knots
Tailwind 10 knots
Wind Correction: Vls + wind correction 5 to 15 knots

51
Q

Max Autoland Winds for the A321

A

Headwind 20 knots
Crosswind 15 knots
Tailwind 5 knots
Wind Correction: Vls + wind correction 5 to 15 knots

52
Q

Autoland Performanz Limits (Below 500 FT)

A 
Glideslope Deviation < one dot
Localizer Deviation < 1/4 dot
Airspeed +- 5 knots of the target
Max Rate of Descent 1000 fpm
Airspeed not below VLS
Bank not to exceed 7 degrees
Pitch not to exceed -2.5 to 10 degrees
53
Q

Is the Airbus A320 series aircraft approved by the AFM to perform a single engine autoland approach?

A

Yes.
But F9 limitations prohibit the imitation of a single engine auto land approach.
The flight crew may use emergency authority if it is determined to be the safest course of action

If you choose this action the AFM only approves CONFIG FULL

54
Q

MAX continuous Generator Load

A

100% (90 KVA)

55
Q

Max continuous TR Load

A

200 amps

56
Q

Max time limit for Max Engine EGT and Thrust

A

CEO 950c
NEO 1060c

5min … All Engines
10 min… One Engine Inop

57
Q

Minimum Engine Oil Pressure

A

17.4 PSI

58
Q

Minimum Engine Oil Quantity for CEO and NEO

A

CEO 9.5… NEO 9.0 qt plus .5 qt for every hour of estimated flight time.
But not below 10.6 qt
For NEO aircraft, if the engines have shut down for more than 60 minutes, decrease the required quantities from the above by 3 quarts to account for oil thermal expansion.

59
Q

Minimum Oil Temperature for take off

A

19c

60
Q

Max Engine RPM for NEO, N1 and N2

A

N1 … 101%

N2 … 116.5%

61
Q

Max Engine RPM for CEO, N1 and N2

A

N1 … 104%

N2 … 105%

62
Q

Engine Starter Duty Cycle for NEO

A

SC OFF
1 60 secs
2 60 secs
3 15 mins

63
Q

Engine Starter Duty Cycle for CEO

A 
SC         OFF
1            20 secs
2           20 secs
3           20 secs
4           15 mins
64
Q

Maximum started reengagement RPM for NEO

A

63% N2

65
Q

Maximum started reengagement RPM for CEO

A

20% N2

66
Q

Engine Reverse Thrust Limitations

A

Selecting reverse thrust in flight is prohibited
Backing the aircraft with reverse thrust is not permitted
Max reverse will not be used below 70 knots
(Idle reverse is allowed down to aircraft stop)
Except in an emergency, reverse thrust is not authorize to reduce taxi speed.

67
Q

When can we use Soft Go-Around mode?

A

Never.

The use of SOFT GO-AROUND (GA-SOFT) mode is prohibited

68
Q

When is takeoff at reduced thrust prohibited:

A

on slippery or contaminated runways;
when suspected, reported or known wind shear is present
when a Special Departure Procedure (SID) specifies full thrust for takeoff

69
Q

Minimum fuel for takeoff

A

3,300 LBS

70
Q

Max operating pressure for Hydraulics

A

3200 psi

71
Q

Max break temp for takeoff (Break Fans OFF)

A

300c

72
Q

Speed break limitation for A319s and NEOs

A

For approach, the use of speed breaks at or below 240 kts is not permitted if:

  • GWCG is above 35% or
  • In overweight landing conditions

Frontier Airlines (1 decks)

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