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EAWS > F/A-18A-E > Flashcards

F/A-18A-E Flashcards

1
Q

When is Monthly Maintenance Plan (MMP) due at O-Level?

A

25th of month

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2
Q

When is Monthly Maintenance Plan (MMP) due at I-Level?

A

1st of month

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3
Q

What are the three objectives of First Aid

A

prevent further injury
prevent infection
prevent loss of life

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4
Q

What are the four methods of controlling bleeding

A

direct pressure
elevation
pressure points
tourniquet

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5
Q

what is a pressure point

A

point where artery near skin & over bone

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6
Q

how many principle pressure points are there

A

22

11 on each side of the body

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7
Q

what are the primary pressure points

A
  1. superficial temporal artery (temple)
  2. Facial artery (jaw)
  3. Common carotid artery (neck)
  4. Subclavian artery (collar bone)
  5. Brachial artery (inner upper arm)
  6. Brachial artery (inner elbow)
  7. Radial/Ulnar artery (wrist)
  8. Femoral artery (upper thigh)
  9. Iliac artery (groin)
  10. Popliteal artery (knee)
  11. Anterior/posterior tibial artery (ankle)
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8
Q

what are the three classifications of burns

A

First degree
Second degree
Third degree

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9
Q

what is a first degree burn

A

redness

mild pain

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10
Q

what is a second degree burn

A

blisters

severe pain

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11
Q

what is a third degree burn

A

Destroys tissue, skin & bone

severe pain may be absent due to nerve endings being destroyed

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12
Q

how many types of fractures are there

A

2

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13
Q

what are the two types of fractures

A

closed/simple

open/compound

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14
Q

what types of injury are caused by a shock

A

little or no evidence of injury to severe trauma

cardiac arrest

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15
Q

what indications does an obstructed airway give

A

inability to talk
grasping & pointing to throat
exaggerated breathing efforts
skin turning bluish color

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16
Q

what are the two types of heat related injuries

A

heat exhaustion

heat stroke

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17
Q

explain heat exhaustion

A

skin is cool, moist, and clammy
pupils dilated
body temp may be normal or high
profusely sweating

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18
Q

explain heat stroke

A

breakdown of sweating mechanism
hot dry skin
uneven pupil dilation
weak rapid pulse

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19
Q

how many types of cold weather injuries are there

A

three

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20
Q

what is hypothermia

A 
general cooling of body
pale and unconscious
breathing is slow & shallow
pulse faint or undetectable
body tissues feel semi-rigid
arms & legs feel stiff
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21
Q

what are the three types of cold weather injuries

A

hypothermia
superficial frostbite
deep frostbite

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22
Q

what is superficial frostbite

A

ice crystals forming in the upper skin layers

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23
Q

what is deep frostbite

A

ice crystals forming in the deeper tissues

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24
Q

what is shock (not electrical)

A

body suffers from insufficient blood flow

result of severe injury or illness

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25
Q

how many types of shock are there

A

5

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26
Q

name the five types of shock

A

CHASN

cardiogenic
hypovolemic
anaphylactic
septic
neurogenic
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27
Q

what is septic shock

A

bacteria in blood releasing toxins

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28
Q

what is anaphylactic shock

A

severe allergic reaction

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29
Q

what is cardiogenic shock

A

heart is damaged & unable to supply sufficient blood

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30
Q

what is hypovolemic shock

A

severe blood and fluid loss

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31
Q

what is neurogenic shock

A

spinal cord injury

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32
Q

what is Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR)

A

combination of rescue breathing & chest compressions

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33
Q

what is the purpose of Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR)

A

support blood flow to heart & brain to “buy time”

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34
Q

what are the steps of Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR)

A

C/A/B or Circulation/Airway/Breathing

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35
Q

what are the steps of the Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) survival chain

A 
Recognition/activation of CPR
Chest compressions
AED/defibrillator
Rapid defibrillation
Effective advanced life support (EMT’s, ambulance)
Integrated post-cardiac arrest care
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36
Q

what is Operational Risk Management (ORM)

A

systematic decision-making process to identify and manage hazards

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37
Q

How many steps of ORM are there

A

five

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38
Q

what are the steps of ORM

A

IAMIS

Identify Hazards
Assess Hazards
Make Risk Decisions
Implement Controls
Supervise
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39
Q

how many classes of mishaps are there

A

three

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40
Q

what is a Class A mishap

A

$2,000,000 or more
death
permanent total disability

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41
Q

what is a Class B mishap

A

$500,000 to $2,000,000
permanent partial disability
three or more personnel hospitalized

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42
Q

what is a Class C mishap

A

$50,000 to $500,000

loss of one day or more work (not including day of)

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43
Q

name the flight line PPE

A 
Cranials
Eye Protection
Hearing Protection
Impact Protection
Gloves
Foot Protection
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44
Q

what is the minimum foot protection

A

steel toed
ANSI approved
FOD free soles

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45
Q

define chemical warfare

A

employment of chemical agents
military operations
kill, seriously injure, or incapacitate personnel

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46
Q

what is an example of a nerve agent

A

Sarin (GB)

VX

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47
Q

how does a nerve agent work

A

agents that disrupt nerve impulses to body

damage body functions rather than tissue

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48
Q

how does a blister agent work

A

agents that cause inflammation, blisters, and general destruction of tissues
temporary blindness and/or death

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49
Q

what is an example of a blister agent

A 
Distilled mustard (HD)
Levinstein Mustard (HL)
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50
Q

how does a blood agent work

A

agents that attack enzymes carrying oxygen in blood stream

rapid breathing or choking due to lack of oxygen in the blood

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51
Q

what is an example of a blood agent

A 
Hydrogen Cyanide (AC)
Cyanogen Chloride (CK)
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52
Q

how does a choking agent work

A

agents causing tears, nausea, vomiting, and headache lungs fil with fluid, causing drowning feeling
breathing rapid and shallow

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53
Q

what is an example of a choking agent

A

Phosgene (CG)

Diphosgene

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54
Q

what does M9 paper do

A

detects presence of liquid chemical agents

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55
Q

how does M9 paper indicate liquid chemical agents

A

turning reddish color

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56
Q

what can M9 paper not detect

A

chemical agent vapors

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57
Q

what is Atropine/2-PAM-chloride

A

specific therapy for nerve agent casualties

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58
Q

where is Atropine/2-PAM-chloride injected

A

intramuscular injection, self-aid or first aid

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59
Q

how does biological warfare work

A

agents to cause disease, sickness, or death

reduce the effectiveness of opposing forces

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60
Q

what are the basic divisions of biological warfare agents

A
  • pathogens

- toxins

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61
Q

what is a pathogen

A

bacteria
viruses
fungus

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62
Q

how are biological warfare toxins categorized

A

source

physiological affect

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63
Q

what are the sources of biological toxins

A

bacterial toxins
plant toxins
animal venoms

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64
Q

what are the physiological effects of biological toxins

A

neurotoxins
cytotoxins
dermatoxins

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65
Q

define IPE

A

Individual Protective Equipment

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66
Q

Name Individual Protective Equipment (IPE)

A 
MCU-2P
C-2 canister filter
Advanced chemical protective garment (ACPG)
Chemical protective gloves and liners
Chemical protective overboots and laces
Skin decontamination kit
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67
Q

what is Radiological Warfare

A

deliberate use of radiological weapons to produce widespread injury and death of all life.

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68
Q

name the types of nuclear blasts

A 
High altitude air burst
Air burst
Surface Burst
Shallow underwater burst
Deep underwater burst
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69
Q

describe a nuclear high altitude burst

A

above 100,000 feet

EMP

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70
Q

describe a nuclear air burst

A

fireball does not reach the surface

vacuum collects debris from severe blast damage resulting fallout

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71
Q

describe a nuclear surface blast

A

worst fallout
fireball touches surface
massive radioactive fallout

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72
Q

describe a nuclear shallow underwater burst

A

small fireball and blast wave

large waves and water contamination

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73
Q

describe a nuclear deep underwater blast

A

less visual effect

yields greater contaminated water

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74
Q

what is the worst nuclear blast

A

Surface Burst

worst fallout due to the fireball touching the surface

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75
Q

what is the difference between deep shelter and ready shelter on a ship

A 
Ready-shelter:
just inside weather envelope
access to deep shelter
min shielding
close to battle stations
Deep-shelter:
low in ship 
near centerline
max shielding
often far from battle stations
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76
Q

what is a DT-60

A

non-self reading
high range casualty dosimeter
0-600 roentgens.

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77
Q

what is MOPP

A

management tool to coordinate systems in CBR environment

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78
Q

how many MOPP levels are there

A

five

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79
Q

what is the worst MOPP level

A

four

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80
Q

what is MOPP level zero

A

Issue IPE, accessible within five minutes

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81
Q

what is MOPP level one

A

Afloat: MASK & Gloves readily accessible

Ashore: Don protective equipment, M9 tape

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82
Q

what is MOPP level two

A

Afloat: Mask carried, decon supplies stage

Ashore: don protective over-boots.

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83
Q

what is MOPP level three

A

Afloat: GQ, install filters, don over-boots

Ashore: fill canteens, activate decon stations

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84
Q

what is MOPP level four

A

Afloat: Don mask/hood, gloves, Circle William, countermeasure washdown

Ashore: Gloves

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85
Q

how do you extinguish a class alpha fire

A

water
Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF)
Carbon Dioxide (CO2)

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86
Q

how do you extinguish a class bravo fire

A

AFFF
Halon 1211
Potassium Bicarbonate (PKP)
Carbon Dioxide (CO2)

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87
Q

how do you extinguish a class charlie fire

A 
Energized:
Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
Halon 1211
Potassium Bicarbonate (PKP)
H2O in fog patterns with a min distance of 4 feet

De-energized: Treat as a Class A, B, or D fire.

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88
Q

how do you extinguish a class delta fire

A

H2O in large quantities in high velocity fog from safe distance due to possible explosion
Jettison

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89
Q

what % of AFFF is used

A

6% AFFF

94% water

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90
Q

what is Halon 1211

A

colorless, faintly sweet smelling, electrically nonconductive gas that leaves no residue to clean up.

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91
Q

what sizes do CO2 bottles come in

A

15lb

50lb wheeled

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92
Q

define PKP

A

Potassium Bicarbonate

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93
Q

what is Potassium Bicarbonate

A

PKP

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94
Q

what are the safety concerns on the flight deck/flight line

A

jet blast
rotor arcs
propellers
jet intakes

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95
Q

what are mitigating factors to flight deck/flight line hazards

A

being FOD free
wearing PPE
being qualified
keeping head on a swivel

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96
Q

explain a runway

A

Paved areas for takeoff and landing

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97
Q

what are threshold markings

A

parallel stripes on ends of the runways
12 feet wide by 150 feet long
designate landing area

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98
Q

what is an overrun area

A

paved or un-paved
ends of runways
provides deceleration area for aborting or overshooting

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99
Q

what is a MA-1 series overrun barrier

A

designed to stop tricycle landing gear aircraft not without hooks
always in standby status

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100
Q

what is emergency shore based recovery equipment

A

for in-flight emergencies

stop in shortest distance possible to minimize injury to pilot or aircrew and damage to the aircraft

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101
Q

what are taxiways

A

paved areas for aircraft to move between parking aprons, runways, and airfield services

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102
Q

what is a parking apron

A

open paved areas adjacent to hangers, fuel, services often called the flight line
used for parking, servicing, and loading aircraft; they are connected to the runways by taxiways

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103
Q

what is the compass calibration pad

A

magnetically quiet area where compass is calibrated

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104
Q

where do we calibrate aircraft compasses

A

compase rose

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105
Q

explain runway numbering system

A

numbered in relation to magnetic heading
rounded to nearest 10
If there are 2 parallel runways then L/R or C added

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106
Q

what is the airfield rotating beacon

A

airport below Visual Flight Rules (VFR)
identifies airport location
rotates clockwise at a constant speed
military airfields use 2 white lights and one green flashing 12 to 15 times per minute

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107
Q

which way does airfield rotating beacon spin

A

clockwise at constant speed

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108
Q

explain the lights on a military airfield rotating beacon

A

2 white lights
one green
flash 12-15 times per minute

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109
Q

how fast do lights on military airfield rotating beacon flash

A

12 to 15 times per minute

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110
Q

Flight Deck PPE

A 
Flight deck (steel-toed) safety shoes
Protective jersey
Cranial impact helmet
Protective eye goggles
Leather gloves
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111
Q

Yellow Jerseys

A 
Aircraft Handling Officer
Flight Deck Officer
Catapult & Arresting Officer
Air Bos’n
Plane directors
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112
Q

White Jerseys

A 
Safety department
Air Transport Officer
Landing Signal Officer
Troubleshooters
Medical
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113
Q

Brown Jerseys

A

Plane Captains

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114
Q

Blue Jerseys

A

Chocks & Chains
Tractors
Elevator Operators

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115
Q

Green Jerseys

A

Catapult and Arresting Gear
Squadron Aircraft Maintenance personnel
Helo LSE
Photographers

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116
Q

Red Jerseys

A

Crash & Salvage
EOD
AOs

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117
Q

Purple Jerseys

A

Fuel

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118
Q

Flight Deck PKP Markings

A

Wheel Edge Coaming
12in red stripe
3in white “PKP” stencil

No Coaming
18in white circle
5in red “PKP” stencil

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119
Q

Flight Deck Salt Water Station Markings

A

Wheel Edge Coaming
18in wide red stripe
3in yellow “W” stencil

No Coaming
18in red triangle
yellow “W” stencil

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120
Q

Flight Deck CO2 Bottle Markings

A

Wheel Edge Coaming
12in red stripe
3in white “CO2” stencil

No Coaming
18in white circle
5in red “CO2” stencil

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121
Q

Flight Deck AFFF station markings

A

Wheel Edge Coaming
18in green stripe
3in white “AFFF” stencil

No Coaming
18in green square
3in white “AFFF” stencil

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122
Q

Flight Deck Bomb Jettison Ramp markings

A

yellow stripe up & over deck edge on sides
alternating 4in wide red & yellow stripes
12in black bomb picture in center

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123
Q

Flight Deck steam smothering markings

A

18in black stripe

3” white “STEAM” stencil

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124
Q

where should Support Equipment (SE) not be driven

A

under any part of parked acft

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125
Q

where should Support Equipment (SE) be parked

A

adjacent to acft

prevents collision

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126
Q

safety precaution if Support Equipment (SE) motor is running

A

must be manned

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127
Q

how do you hook up a grounding strap

A

ground then acft

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128
Q

how much static charge can build up on acft windshield & canopy

A

100,000 volts

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129
Q

what safety precaution do you have to take after flight or prolonged exposure to high winds

A

discharge canopy & windshield before touching

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130
Q

what is the initial tie-down

A

min 6 chains

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131
Q

when is initial tie-down used

A

immediately:
prior to
in between
after flight

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132
Q

how many different tie down schemes are there

A

four

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133
Q

what tie down do we use up to 45 knots

A

normal

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134
Q

what is a normal tie down

A

9 chains

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135
Q

how many knots is normal tie-down rated for

A

up to 45 knots

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136
Q

what tie down do we between 45 & 60 knots

A

moderate

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137
Q

how many chains in a moderate tie-down

A

14

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138
Q

how many knots is moderate tie-down rated for

A

45 to 60 knots

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139
Q

what tie-down do we use over 60 knots

A

heavy

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140
Q

how many chains in a heavy tie-down

A

20

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141
Q

how many knots is heavy tie-down rated for

A

above 60 knots

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142
Q

how are tie-down hooks configured

A

hook down on acft

hook up on deck

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143
Q

how are acft critical walkways identified

A

“NO STEP” markings

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144
Q

what is the only mandatory signal regardless of type

A

emergency stop

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145
Q

what is max towing speed

A

5 knots
or
speed of slowest walker

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146
Q

how many people are required to move acft

A

6 to 10

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147
Q

what are move directors responsibilities

A

Overall responsible for assembling crew
ensuring proper quals
pre move briefing
safe movement of the aircraft with emphasis on safety

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148
Q

who is required to move acft

A 
Move Director
Brake Rider
Chock Walker
Safety Observers
Tractor Driver
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149
Q

what is brake riders responsibilities on move team

A

pre-move brake inspection

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150
Q

what is chock walkers responsibilities on move team

A

removing, carrying, installing chocks

escorts acft

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151
Q

what is move team safety observers responsibilities

A

ensure acft ready to be towed

ensure clearance

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152
Q

how many move team safety observers do you need

A

three
wing tips
tail of acft

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153
Q

where are move team safety observers placed

A

wing tips

tail of acft

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154
Q

what is move team tractor drivers responsibilities

A

safe & slow movement from hook up to final parking

responsible directly to Move Director

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155
Q

who is move team tractor driver responsible to

A

Move Director

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156
Q

Define FPCON

A

Force Protection Conditions

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157
Q

what is FPCON

A

measures designed to increase the level of a unit’s defense against terrorist attacks

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158
Q

who sets FPCON

A

commanders at any level

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159
Q

can subordinate commanders up FPCON locally

A

yes

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160
Q

define FPCONs

A

Alpha: general threat
Bravo: increased threat
Charlie: incident occurs or intel of incident
Delta: area of attack or intel of imminent attack

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161
Q

define DEFCON

A

Defense Condition of Readiness

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162
Q

what is DEFCON

A

graduated levels of readiness for military

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163
Q

what DEFCON is most severe

A

DEFCON 1

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164
Q

what DEFCON is least severe

A

DEFCON 5

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165
Q

how many DEFCON levels are there

A

five

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166
Q

what DEFCON is set during normal peacetime

A

DEFCON 5

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167
Q

what is DEFCON 1

A

maximum force readiness

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168
Q

what is the objective of Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP)

A

achieve & continually improve aviation material readiness & safety standards with optimum use of manpower, material, facilities, and funds

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169
Q

define NAMP

A

Naval Aviation Maintenance Program

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170
Q

what is MO’s job

A

maintenance Department DH

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171
Q

what is Assistant Maintenance Officer’s (AMO) job

A

assist MO
coordinate TAD
manages SE training & licensing
manages manpower via NTMPS/FLTMPS

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172
Q

Define MMCO

A

Maintenance/Material Control Officer

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173
Q

what is Maintenance, Material Control Officer’s (MMCO) job

A

overall production and material support
coordinates and monitors department workload
responsible for preparing and publishing the MMP.

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174
Q

what is Quality Assurance Officer’s (QAO) job

A

assign personnel to perform QA functions
conduct QA training
ensure QARs receive cross training

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175
Q

what is the Material Control Officer’s (MCO) job

A

handles supply

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176
Q

define MCO

A

Material Control Officer

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177
Q

Define QAO

A

Quality Assurance Officer

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178
Q

how many levels of maint are there in the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP)

A

three

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179
Q

what are the three levels of maint in the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP)

A

I
O
D

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180
Q

what is O-Level maint

A

Maintenance performed by operating unit day-to-day in support of its own operations

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181
Q

what is I-Level maint

A

enhance and sustain combat readiness & mission capability of supported activities

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182
Q

what is D-Level maint

A

FRC sites

depot

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183
Q

what are the two types of maint described in the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP)

A

rework

upkeep

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184
Q

what is rework

A

work done above squadron level

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185
Q

what is upkeep

A

work down by squadron

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186
Q

what is turnaround maint

A

between flights

good for 24 hours (if no flight or maint performed)

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187
Q

what is daily maint

A

inspect for defects
good for 72 hours (If no flight or major maint)
acft can be flown for 24 hours before needs to be redone

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188
Q

what is special maint

A

maint/inspect based on periodicity

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189
Q

what is conditional maint

A

based on unscheduled events/circumstances

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190
Q

what is phase maint

A

dividing total maint package into smaller requirements

done sequentially and in order

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191
Q

where is rework done

A

D-Level facitlity

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192
Q

what is an aircraft logbook

A

hard bound record of acft history

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193
Q

name the sections of the aircraft logbook

A 
Non-aging record
Flight time
Inspection records
Repair/Rework
Technical Directive
Miscellaneous History
Preservation and De-preservation record
Installed Explosive Devices
Inventory Record
Assembly Service Record
Equipment History Record
Scheduled Removal Components cards (SRCs)
Aviation Life Support System records
Aeronautical Equipment Service Records (AESRs)
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194
Q

how many sections are in an acft logbook

A

14

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195
Q

what is the Quality Assurance (QA) concept

A

prevention of defects

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196
Q

what is a Quality Assurance Representative

A

maint personnel assigned to QA

certify work has been completed IAW with current instructions and directives

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197
Q

what is a Collateral Duty QAR (CDQAR)

A

maint personnel who function capacity as QARs
meet same quals
assigned on a temporary or permanent basis

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198
Q

what is a Collateral Duty Inspector (CDI)

A

assigned to production
inspect all work and comply with the required QA inspections
spot check all work in progress
familiar with QA programs & audits

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199
Q

what is the Central Technical Publications Library (CTPL)

A

central source of up-to-date technical directives

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200
Q

define CTPL

A

Central Technical Publications Library

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201
Q

what is CSEC

A

tool used by QA

provides standardized objective measurement for audits

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202
Q

how many types of audits are performed by QA

A

three

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203
Q

name the types of audits performed by QA

A

special
work center
programs

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204
Q

what is a special audit

A

evaluate specific maintenance task, process, procedure or program
audits held for one year

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205
Q

how long are special audit records kept for

A

one year

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206
Q

what is a work center audit

A

semi-annual
evaluate overall performance of each work center
all areas of work center evaluated including
personnel
monitored and managed programs
logs and records
licenses

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207
Q

what is a program audit

A

evaluate specific programs

annually

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208
Q

what is the Aircraft Confined Space Program (ACSP)

A

ensure safe enviro for fuel cells & tank work

can use FRC if no one qualified

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209
Q

define ACSP

A

Aircraft Confined Space Program

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210
Q

what is the Naval Aviation Maintenance Deficiency Reporting Program (NAMDRP)

A

reporting of:
substandard workmanship
improper QA procedures
deficiencies in material & publications

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211
Q

define NAMDRP

A

Naval Aviation Maintenance Deficiency Reporting Program

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212
Q

define NATOPS

A

Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization

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213
Q

what is the Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS)

A

improving combat readiness

reducing mishap rate

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214
Q

when was the Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) program established

A

1961

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215
Q

how many acft did the navy lose in 1950

A

776

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216
Q

what is most dangerous time for personnel

A

engine startup and shutdown

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217
Q

steps for starting an engine

A 
wheels chocked
parking brake set
intake screens installed
Foreign Object Damage (FOD) inspection
plane tied down
adequate fire extinguishing equipment
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218
Q

what does “warning” mean in Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) program

A

may result in injury or death

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219
Q

what does “caution” mean in Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) program

A

may result in damage to equipment

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220
Q

what does “note” mean in Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) program

A

must be emphasized

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221
Q

what does “shall” mean in Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) program

A

procedure is mandatory

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222
Q

what does “should” mean in Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) program

A

procedure is recommended

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223
Q

what does “may” mean in Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) program

A

procedure is optional

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224
Q

what does “will” mean in Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) program

A

future

never indicates any degree of requirement

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225
Q

where are visual identifications placed

A

vertical stabilizer

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226
Q

what identifications does LANT use

A

first character “A through M”

second character “A through Z”

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227
Q

what identifications does PAC use

A

first character shall be “N through Z”

second character “A through Z”

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228
Q

what identification does CANTRA use

A

first character shall be “A through G”

no second character

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229
Q

Significance of 14 November 1910

A

First take off from a ship
Eugene Ely
Civilian pilot
USS BIRMINGHAM (CL 2)

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230
Q

what ship did the first shipboard take off happen from

A

USS BIRMINGHAM

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231
Q

who was the first pilot to take off from a ship

A

Eugene Ely

Civilian Pilot

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232
Q

what date did the first shipboard take off happen on

A

14 November 1910

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233
Q

what is the birthday of naval aviation

A

08 May 1911

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234
Q

what signified the birth of Naval aviation

A

purchase of two planes for $5,500 by Captain W. I. Chambers

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235
Q

what were the first planes purchased by the navy designated as

A

A-1 Triad

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236
Q

who purchased the first navy planes

A

Captain W. I. Chambers

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237
Q

who was the first fatality in naval aviation

A

Ensign William D. Billingsley

fell from B-2 at 1,600 ft

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238
Q

what is significant about 08 May 1911

A

birth of naval aviation

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239
Q

what was the A-1 Triad

A

first plane purchased by the navy

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240
Q

who was with Ensign William D. Billingsley in the B-2 when he died

A

Lieutenant John H. Towers

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241
Q

what date did the first naval aviation death occur on

A

20 June 1913

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242
Q

what is significant about 20 June 1913

A

first naval aviation death

Ensign William D. Billingsley

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243
Q

what is significant about 22 October 1917

A

first Inspectors School started
14 men at MIT
predecessor of current QAR

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244
Q

what was the first carrier

A

USS LANGLEY (CV 1)

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245
Q

When did the first carrier get commissioned

A

20 March 1922

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246
Q

what is significant about 20 March 1922

A

first carrier, USS LANGLEY (CV 1) commissioned

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247
Q

what was the USS LANGLEY (CV 1) before conversion

A

Jupiter

Coal Carrier

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248
Q

what is significant about 10 March 1948

A 
FJ-1 Fury, first navy jet, makes first carrier landing
USS BOXER (CV 21)
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249
Q

when was the first jet landing on a carrier

A

10 March 1948

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250
Q

what was the first navy jet to land on a carrier

A

FJ-1 Fury

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251
Q

what carrier did the first navy jet land on

A

USS BOXER (CV 21)

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252
Q

when did the battle of the Coral Sea happen

A

07-08 May 1942

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253
Q

what is significant about the battle of the Coral Sea

A

first carrier vs carrier battle

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254
Q

what is significant about 07-08 May 1942

A

Battle of the Coral Sea

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255
Q

what did the US prevent in the battle of the Coral Sea

A

Japanese invasion of Australia

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256
Q

how many ships were lost on 07May in the battle of the Coral Sea

A

US lost two minor ships

Japan lost one Carrier

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257
Q

how many carriers were involved in Coral Sea

A

5
three Japanese
two US

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258
Q

how many ships were lost on 08May in the battle of the Coral Sea

A

US lost one carrier (LEXINGTON)
USS YORKTOWN Carrier severely damaged
Japan had on carrier damaged

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259
Q

what carrier did US lose on 08May at battle of the Coral Sea

A

USS LEXINGTON

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260
Q

what US carriers were involved in the Battle of the Coral Sea

A

USS LEXINGTON

USS YORKTOWN

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261
Q

what is significant of the Battle of Midway

A

turning point in Pacific War

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262
Q

what is significant about 03-05 June 1942

A

Battle of Midway

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263
Q

when was the Battle of Midway

A

03-05 June 1942

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264
Q

explain Battle of Midway

A

Japanese armada of 160 warships
Commander-in-chief Admiral Yamamoto split his force
Japan had 4 aircraft carriers and 11 battleships
U.S. had 3 carriers and no battleships
Americans broke Japanese codes
Admiral Nimitz positioned his 3 carriers
HORNET
ENTERPRISE
YO0RKTOWN
As Japanese launched planes U.S. planes headed for the enemy carriers
U.S. sank 3 Japanese carriers
next day fourth Japanese carrier was sunk
Japanese planes sank the YORKTOWN
In one day Japan lost its bid for control of the Pacific

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265
Q

who were the Admirals involved in the Battle of Midway

A

US: Admiral Nimitz
Japan: Admiral Yamamoto

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266
Q

how many carriers were involved in Battle of Midway

A

seven
US: three (HORNET, ENTERPRISE, YORKTOWN)
Japan: four

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267
Q

how many carriers did US lose at Midway

A

one - YORKTOWN

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268
Q

what carrier did the US lose at Midway

A

YORKTOWN

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269
Q

when was Guadalcanal

A

13-15 November 1942

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270
Q

what is significant about 13-15 November 1942

A

Guadalcanal

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271
Q

what happened at Guadalcanal

A

US Marines took control of island
Japan lost 8 ships
five Sullivan Brothers died on USS JENEAU
US changed policy on siblings serving together

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272
Q

what ship did the Sullivan brothers die on

A

USS JENEAU

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273
Q

what battle did the Sullivan brothers die during

A

Guadalcanal

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274
Q

where were the Sullivan brothers from

A

Waterloo, Iowa

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275
Q

define acceleration

A

rate of change of the speed and or velocity of matter with time

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276
Q

what is the rate of change of the speed and or velocity of matter with time

A

acceleration

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277
Q

define speed

A

rate of movement in terms of distance measured in an allotted amount of time

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278
Q

what is the rate of movement in terms of distance measured in an allotted amount of time

A

speed

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279
Q

define velocity

A

quickness or speed of an object in a given time and direction

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280
Q

what is the quickness or speed of an object in a given time and direction

A

velocity

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281
Q

explain Newton’s First Law

A

inertia
object at rest will remain at rest
object in motion will remain in motion
until acted upon by an outside force

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282
Q

what is Newton’s Law of “inertia”

A

Newton’s First Law

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283
Q

explain Newton’s Second Law

A

force
object moving with uniform speed is acted upon by an external force
change of motion, or acceleration
directly proportional to amount of force
inversely proportional to mass of object

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284
Q

which of Newton’s Laws is “force”

A

Newton’s Second Law

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285
Q

what is Newton’s Third Law

A

action and reaction

for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction

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286
Q

what of Newton’s Laws is “action and reaction”

A

Newton’s Third Law

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287
Q

how does Bernoulli’s principle apply to flight

A 
relative wind strikes leading edge wing
flow of air is split up and down
upper surface of wing is curved
flow over its surface is disrupted
lift is accomplished by difference in airflow across top and bottom of wing
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288
Q

explain lift

A

force that acts in upward direction
supports aircraft in the air
counteracts effects of weight
must be greater than or equal to weight if flight is to be sustained

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289
Q

what is the force that acts, in an upward direction, to support the aircraft in the air

A

lift

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290
Q

explain weight

A

force of gravity acting downward

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291
Q

what is the force of gravity acting downward on the aircraft and everything on the aircraft

A

weight

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292
Q

explain drag

A

force that tends to hold aircraft back - resists motion

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293
Q

what is the force that tends to hold aircraft back

A

drag

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294
Q

explain thrust

A

force developed by aircraft’s engine
acts in forward direction
must be greater than or equal to drag in order for flight to begin or be sustained

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295
Q

what is the force developed by acft engine

A

thrust

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296
Q

define Longitudinal Axis

A

reference line running down the center of the aircraft between the nose and tail

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297
Q

what is the imaginary reference line running down the center of the aircraft between the nose and tail

A

Longitudinal Axis

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298
Q

what motion is centered on Longitudinal Axis

A

Roll

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299
Q

define Lateral Axis

A

imaginary reference line running parallel to the wings

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300
Q

what is the imaginary reference line running parallel to the wings

A

Lateral Axis

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301
Q

what motion is centered on Lateral Axis

A

Pitch

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302
Q

Pitch is centered on which axis

A

Lateral

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303
Q

Roll is centered on which axis

A

Longitudinal

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304
Q

explain Vertical Axis

A

imaginary reference line running from the top to the bottom of the aircraft

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305
Q

what is the imaginary reference line running from the top to the bottom of the aircraft

A

Vertical Axis

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306
Q

what motion is centered around Vertical Axis

A

Yaw

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307
Q

Yaw is centered around which axis

A

Vertical Axis

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308
Q

what acft moveable surface affects roll

A

ailerons

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309
Q

what axis do ailerons affect

A

longitudinal

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310
Q

what motion do ailerons control

A

roll

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311
Q

what axis do elevators affect

A

lateral

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312
Q

what motion do elevators control

A

pitch

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313
Q

what acft moveable surface affects yaw

A

rudder

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314
Q

what axis do rudders affect

A

vertical

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315
Q

what motion do rudders control

A

yaw

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316
Q

what motion in helos does the cyclic stick control

A

roll & pitch

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317
Q

what does the cyclic stick do

A 
tilts plane (angle) of rotor blades
gives helicopter directional motion by changing direction of lift
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318
Q

what motion in helos does the tail rotor control

A

yaw

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319
Q

how does a helos tail rotor work

A

counteracts torque of main rotor

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320
Q

what is the purpose of flaps

A

creates extra lift
resulting in max lift
reducing takeoff runs and landing rollout

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321
Q

what is the purpose of the spoiler

A

decrease or spoil wing lift

creates more predictable landing glideslope

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322
Q

what is the purpose of speed brakes

A

reduce speed of aircraft

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323
Q

what are slats

A

movable control surfaces attached to the leading edge of the wing

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324
Q

what do slats do

A

introduces high-energy air into boundary layer over wing

low airspeeds: improves lateral control
allows aircraft to be controlled at
speeds below normal landing speed

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325
Q

what is a collective

A

main rotor of helicopter w/two or more rotor blades

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326
Q

how does a collective produce lift

A

rotating blades at high rate

collectively increasing angle of attack or pitch of the rotor blades

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327
Q

what are is the main rotor on a helicopter called

A

collective

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328
Q

what is the Angle of Attack (AoA)

A

angle wing or fuselage meets a flow of air

angle between chord line (imaginary line from leading to trailing edge of wing) & relative wind

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329
Q

define relative wind

A

direction of air stream in relationship to the wing

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330
Q

how is Angle of Attack (AoA) measured

A

“units” opposed to degrees

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331
Q

what is autorotation

A

method of allowing helicopter to land safely from altitude without using engine power

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332
Q

how does autorotation

A 
collective lowered
allowing reverse airflow through rotor
maintains RPM
predetermined altitude
collective pitch increased
converts inertial energy into lift
reduces rate of descent, cushioning landing
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333
Q

name the basic acft hydraulic system components

A 
reservoir
pump
tubing to transmit fluid
selector valves to direct flow
actuating unit to convert fluid to work
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334
Q

name the basic landing gear components

A 
shock strut assembly
tires
wheel brake assembly
retracting & extending mechanism
side struts & supports
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335
Q

what does landing gear shot strut assembly do

A

absorbs shock instead of airframe absorbing it

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336
Q

what do landing gear tires do

A

allows aircraft to roll easily

provides traction during takeoff & landing

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337
Q

what does landing gear wheel brake assembly do

A

slow & stop aircraft

prevent aircraft from rolling while parked

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338
Q

what does landing gear retracting & extending mechanism do

A

electrically or hydraulically extend and retract the landing gear

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339
Q

what do landing gear side struts & supports do

A

Provides lateral strength/support for the landing gear

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340
Q

define NALCOMIS

A

Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System

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341
Q

define OOMA

A

Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity

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342
Q

define OIMA

A

Optimized Intermediate Maintenance Activity

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343
Q

what does NALCOMIS provide

A

capability to manage maintenance and supply functions and processes

allows users to enter, collect, process, store, review and report information required by the organization

344
Q

what are the subsections of the Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity (OOMA)

A 
Maintenance subsystem
Material subsystem
Flight subsystem
Platform software interface
CM/Logs and records subsystem
345
Q

what is the Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity (OOMA)

A

management tool that provides essential, real time information on a continuing basis
tracks and enables maintenance managers to assign relative importance to each item

346
Q

what does Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity (OOMA) allow tracking of

A 
NMCS/PMCS status
Flyable discrepancies
Non-aircraft related discrepancies
ALSS status
SE status
Mission Mounted Equipment (MME) status
347
Q

what is a JCN

A

9 character alphanumeric code

basis for data collection

348
Q

what is the Accumulated Job Status History

A

history of the WO from start to finish

349
Q

in Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity (OOMA) what is in the “Worker Hours” block

A

workers name
tools used
QA/CDI
hours they worked

350
Q

in Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity (OOMA) what is in the “Work Unit Code” block

A

numeric or alpha-numeric code that identifies the system or subsystem of the malfunction

351
Q

what are some common types of Work Orders (WO)

A 
DM:  Discrepancy Maintenance
TS:  Troubleshooting
CM:  Cannibalization Maintenance
AD:  Assist Maintenance
FO:  Facilitate Other Maintenance
CL:  Conditional look phase
CF:  Conditional fix Phase
SX:  Special inspection one workcenter
SC:  Special inspection control
TD:  Technical Directive
352
Q

what are the six core capabilities

A 
forward presence
deterrence
sea control
power projection
maritime security
humanitarian assistance/disaster relief (HADR)
353
Q

mission of Helicopter Sea Combat (HSC)

A

perform rescue
logistics
mine countermeasures
combat search-and-rescue

354
Q

what platform has the following missions:

  • perform rescue
  • logistics
  • mine countermeasures
  • combat search-and-rescue
A

Helicopter Sea Combat (HSC)

355
Q

mission of Helicopter Maritime Strike (HSM)

A

Pri
antisubmarine
anti-surface warfare

Sec
logistics
rescue

356
Q

what platform has the following primary mission:

  • antisubmarine
  • anti-surface warfare
A

Helicopter Maritime Strike (HSM)

357
Q

mission of Helicopter Training (HT)

A

basic & advanced training

358
Q

what platform does basic & advanced helicopter training

A

Helicopter Training (HT)

359
Q

mission of Tactical Electronic Warfare (VAQ)

A

tactically exploit, suppresses, degrade and deceive enemy electromagnetic defensive and offensive and communication

360
Q

what platform is responsible for electromagnetic warfare

A

Tactical Electronic Warfare (VAQ)

361
Q

mission of Carrier Airborne Early Warning (VAW)

A

provide early warning against weather, missiles, shipping and aircraft

362
Q

what platform provides early warning against weather, missiles, shipping and aircraft

A

Carrier Airborne Early Warning (VAW)

363
Q

mission of Fleet Composite (VC)

A

provide simulations and target towing

364
Q

what platform provides simulations and target towing

A

Fleet Composite (VC)

365
Q

mission of Strike Fighter (VFA)

A

fighter and attack

366
Q

what platform does fighter and attack missions

A

Strike Fighter (VFA)

367
Q

mission of Patrol (VP)

A

anti-submarine
anti-surface
reconnaissance
mining

368
Q 
what platform does:
anti-submarine
anti-surface
reconnaissance
mining
A

Patrol (VP)

369
Q

mission of Fleet Air Reconnaissance (VQ)

A

electronic warfare support
interception
recording
analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy

370
Q

what platform performs electronic warfare support of electromagnetic energy

A

Fleet Air Reconnaissance (VQ)

371
Q

mission of Aircraft Logistics Support (VR)

A

transport of personnel and supplies

372
Q

what platform transports personnel and supplies

A

Aircraft Logistics Support (VR)

373
Q

mission of Carrier Logistics Support (VRC)

A

transport of personnel and supplies from carrier

374
Q

what platform transports personnel and supplies from carriers

A

Carrier Logistics Support (VRC)

375
Q

mission of Training (VT)

A

basic & advanced fixed wing training

376
Q

what platform provides fixed wing pilot training

A

Training (VT)

377
Q

mission of Air Test and Evaluation (VX/VXE)

A

test & evaluate operational capabilities of new aircraft and equipment
develop tactic & doctrines for their most effective use.

378
Q

what platform tests & evaluates new acft and develops tactics

A

Air Test and Evaluation (VX/VXE)

379
Q

what is a HAZMAT Authorized Use List (AUL)

A

current inventory of HAZMAT, chemical substances, or components known or suspected to contain HAZMAT used for local acquisition and use

380
Q

what are the general steps of HAZMAT spill response

A 
Discovery
Notification
Initiation of action
Evaluation
Containment
Damage control
Dispersion of Gases/vapors
Cleanup and decontamination
Disposal
Certification for re-entry
Follow-up reports
381
Q

how often do HAZMAT storage locations have to be inspected

A

monthly

quarterly

382
Q

what does a HAZMAT inspection consist of

A 
tightness of closure
corrosion
leakage
labeling
shelf-life
383
Q

what are Type I hangars designed for

A

carrier aircraft

384
Q

what are Type II hangars designed for

A

US Marine Corps Aviation

385
Q

what are Type III hangars designed for

A

land based patrol and large transport aircraft

386
Q

what items are in shore based hangars

A 
painted red fire lane
portable CO2 
acft electrical systems with cords for connecting acft
manual or auto hangar doors
ground points (10 ohms or less)
387
Q

what hangar fire protection systems are there

A

low level AFFF system (optical detector)
closed head water only overhead sprinklers
draft curtains

388
Q

what are the largest hangars

A

aircraft carriers

389
Q

how many acft can a aircraft carrier hangar hold

A

60

390
Q

what are the structure and surfaces on the F/A-18 made of

A

graphite and carbon/epoxy composite materials

391
Q

what precautions are used when handling composite material

A

respirator
goggles
close weave cotton gloves

392
Q

what are no-step areas on acft

A 
leading edge flaps
trailing edge flaps
horizontal stabilizers
ailerons
radome surfaces
393
Q

how are step surfaces identified

A

non-skid

394
Q

what is the minimum structural towing requirements

A

radome closed & secured
hydraulic brake pressure min 2900 psi
doors 68 left & right closed or removed

395
Q

what voltage can build up on canopy and windshield

A

100,000 volts

396
Q

how many tie downs on acft

A

12 rings

14 with jacking beam

397
Q

where are acft tie downs located

A 
1/2: nose landing gear
3: FWD fuselage (door 16)
4/6/8: port main landing gear
5/7/9: STBD main landing gear
10/11: under wings (doors 107L & 107R)
12: aft fuselage (door 164)
13/14: jacking beam
398
Q

what is a temporary composite repair

A

simple & practical
restore full load carrying
until permanent repair

399
Q

what is a one-time flight composite repair

A

restore limited load carrying

allow acft to be flown to a repair station for permanent repairs

400
Q

what is a permanent composite repair

A

meets or exceeds strength of original structure or component

401
Q

name the major sections of the acft fuselage

A 
radome
FWD fuselage
center fuselage
aft fuselage
wings
402
Q

where is the FWD fuselage

A 
radome - aft edge of panel 18
includes: 
    canopy
    windshield
    cockpit
    Leading Edge Extension (LEX)
    nose landing gear
403
Q

where is the center fuselage

A

FWD edge panel 26 to aft edge panel 55L & R
includes
main landing gear
intake ducts
external stores stations
fuselage fuel tanks
Airframe Mounted Accessory Drive (AMAD)

404
Q

where is the aft fuselage

A 
panel 62L&R to exhaust nozzles
includes:
    engines
    speed brake
    vertical stabilizers
    horizontal stabilizers
    arresting hook
405
Q

what does the Leading Edge Extensions (LEX) do

A

provide added lift at high angles of attack

406
Q

define LEX

A

Leading Edge Extensions

407
Q

what are Leading Edge Extensions (LEX)

A

extensions of wing leading edge

408
Q

name flight control surfaces

A 
ailerons
leading edge flaps
trailing edge flaps
stabilizers
rudders
speed brake
Leading Edge Extensions (LEX)
409
Q

where are ailerons located

A

outboard trailing edge of each wing

410
Q

how do ailerons work

A

in flight
asymmetrically to produce roll motion

takeoff/landing
deflect symmetrically with trailing edge flaps up to 42 degrees

411
Q

where are Leading Edge Flaps located

A

inboard and outboard leading edge of each wing

412
Q

how do Leading Edge Flaps work

A

in flight
asymmetrically to aid the ailerons in producing roll motion

take off landing
deflect symmetrically to change lift

413
Q

where are Trailing Edge Flaps

A

trailing edge of each wing

414
Q

how do Trailing Edge Flaps work

A

in flight
independently deflect asymmetrically to aid the ailerons in producing roll motion

take off landing
deflect symmetrically to change lift

415
Q

where are stabilizers

A

either side of the tail of the aircraft

416
Q

how do stabilizers work

A

deflect symmetrically to produce pitch motion

asymmetrically to produce roll motion

417
Q

where are rudders

A

rear of each vertical stabilizer

418
Q

how do rudders work

A

in flight
commanded symmetrically to produce yaw motion

take off landing (AOA less than 8 degrees)
rudders toe-in to increase lift and improve stability

take off landing (AOA greater than 8 degrees)
rudders toe-out to improve stability

419
Q

where is the speed brake

A

F/A-18 A-D only

top of the aft fuselage between the vertical stabilizers

420
Q

how does speed brake work

A

extended into the air stream creating drag and slowing the aircraft’s airspeed

421
Q

where are Leading Edge Extensions (LEX)

A

left and right side of aircraft

422
Q

how do Leading Edge Extensions (LEX) work

A

speed brake when commanded by pilot below Mach 1.5

provides high nose down pitch movement when transitioning from a high AOA with aggressive nose down maneuver

423
Q

define NLG

A

Nose Landing Gear

424
Q

what is the Nose Landing Gear (NLG)

A 
provides
 landing
 takeoff
 taxi energy absorption
 tire/runway compliance
425
Q

what is the design of the Nose Landing Gear (NLG)

A

Dual chamber design

426
Q

what does Nose Landing Gear (NLG) dual chamber design provide

A

smooth long strike during landing & catapult operations

427
Q

where is the launch bar attached

A

forward side Nose Landing Gear (NLG) shock strut

428
Q

what does launch gear provide

A

means of steering aircraft during carrier deck tracking

engages catapult, applying catapult tow forces to the aircraft

429
Q

define MLG

A

Main Landing Gear

430
Q

what sit he design of the Main Landing Gear (MLG)

A

lever design with a shock absorber

431
Q

what does Main Landing Gear (MLG) provide

A

stable platform for aircraft carrier and shore based operations

432
Q

where are wheel brakes attached to acft

A

Main Landing Gear (MLG)

433
Q

what do wheel brakes do

A

provide modulated individual wheel-controlled braking

anti-skid system

434
Q

what is the arresting hook

A

hydraulically controlled arm

means of stopping aircraft where normal runway landings are not available & carrier

435
Q

what does each F-18 hydraulic system contain

A

PARTS

Pump
Actuating Unit
Reservoir
Tubing
Selector Valves
436
Q

how many hydraulic systems does acft have

A

two

437
Q

what is Hydraulic System 1

A

provides hydraulic fluid pressure to primary flight controls either as a primary or backup source

438
Q

what is Hydraulic System 2

A

provides hydraulic fluid pressure to primary flight controls either as a primary or backup source

also supplies pressure to all other non-flight control systems

439
Q

what do hydraulic switching valves do

A

allow backup hydraulic pressure to replace the primary hydraulic pressure

If primary hydraulic is restored, the switching valve shifts to normal operating position

440
Q

what dangers does engine operation produce

A

exhaust velocity
temperature
air intake
noise

441
Q

what is the safe distance from acft intakes

A

9 ft norm

25 ft at MIL or MAX

442
Q

how long is area aft of tailpipe hazardous after engine shutdown

A

15 min

443
Q

what is the safe distance directly behind exhaust

A

115 ft at idle

925 ft at MAX

444
Q

define APU

A

Auxiliary Power Unit

445
Q

what is the hazards of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)

A

center point of exhaust
142 MPH
328-350 degrees

19 inch diameter exhaust
24-MPH
250-300 degrees

446
Q

what ranges for HERF must be followed when refueling

A

100 ft airborne radars

300 ft ground radars

447
Q

what engine is used on the F/A-18E/F

A

F414-GE-400

448
Q

what engines are used in the F/A-18A-D

A

F404-GE-400

F404-GE-402

449
Q

what acft is the F414-GE-400 engine in

A

F/A-18E/F

450
Q

what acft is the F404-GE-400 engine in

A

F/A-18A-D

451
Q

what acft is the F404-GE-402 engine in

A

F/A-18A-D

452
Q

what type of engine is the F-18 engine

A 
low bypass
axial flow
dual-spool turbofan
Modular construction
afterburner
453
Q

what type of ignition system does engine have

A

automatic
intermittent duty
AC powered
capacitor discharge system

454
Q

does engine ignition system require acft electrical power

A

no

system is self contained on engine

455
Q

how long does engine ignition system remain energized

A

N2 rpm is 54% or greater

throttle is retarded below idle

456
Q

what components make up the engine ignition system

A 
alternator
FADEC or ECA
engine fuel control
ignition exciter
main igniter
AB igniter
AB flame sensor
two fan speed transmitters
thermocouple harnesses
457
Q

explain engine lubrication system

A

self-contained
recirculation
dry sump system
no external connections or inputs

458
Q

what does engine lubrication system provide lubrication/cooling to

A

required bearings and gears

459
Q

does engine lubrication system require external connections or inputs

A

no

460
Q

define VEN

A

Variable Exhaust Nozzle

461
Q

what type of Variable Exhaust Nozzle (VEN) does engine have

A

cam and link-positioned
hinged-flap
convergent-divergent nozzle

462
Q

where is Variable Exhaust Nozzle (VEN) located

A

mounted to aft end of the afterburner case

463
Q

how is Variable Exhaust Nozzle (VEN) operated

A

hydraulically (fuel) operated
electrically controlled series of actuators, synchronizing shafts, links, flaps, seals

provides controlled throat area (A8) for the exhaust gasses from the turbine and AB

464
Q

what does the Variable Exhaust Nozzle (VEN) do

A

provide required thrust and fuel efficiencies while maintaining exhaust gas temperature (T5)

465
Q

what does Variable Geometry consist of

A

Fan Variable Geometry (FVG)

Compressor Variable Geometry (CVG)

466
Q

define FVG

A

Fan Variable Geometry

467
Q

define CVG

A

Compressor Variable Geometry

468
Q

what does Fan Variable Geometry (FVG) do

A

provide best efficiency of the fan while preserving fan stall margin

469
Q

what does Compressor Variable Geometry (CVG) do

A

provides best efficiency of the compressor while preserving compressor stall margin

470
Q

what provides best efficiency of the fan while preserving fan stall margin

A

Fan Variable Geometry (FVG)

471
Q

what provides best efficiency of the compressor while preserving compressor stall margin

A

Compressor Variable Geometry (CVG)

472
Q

how is anti-icing activated

A

manually by pilot
signal to FADEC/ECA
activate anti-icing valves

473
Q

define FADEC

A

Full Authority Digital Engine Control

474
Q

what does the Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) / ECA do

A

receives aircraft & engine sensor info

determines appropriate engine scheduling to operate the engine in all areas of the flight envelope

475
Q

what does fuel system do

A

distribution
control
storage

476
Q

what are the components of fuel system

A 
main fuel control
afterburner (AB) fuel control
throttle system
fuel cooling
fuel storage
477
Q

what does main fuel control do

A

govern correct fuel flow to combustion section

control engine starting & operation from IDLE through MIL power

working fluid for hydraulic and cooling tasks

478
Q

what does Afterburner (AB) fuel control do

A

governs correct AB fuel flow controlling AB from start through MAX power

479
Q

what does throttle system do

A

provides pilot control of acft engines

480
Q

what type of system is throttle system

A

fly-by-wire

no mechanical connections

481
Q

what makes up the throttle system

A

throttle quadrant on left hand console

FADEC/ECA

482
Q

how does engine rcv throttle controls

A

via FADEC/ECA

483
Q

how do the left and right throttle levers operate

A

independently to left/right engine respectively

484
Q

how many internal fuel tanks are there

A

six
four fuselage
two wing

485
Q

how many external tanks can be carried

A

five

486
Q

how much fuel can F/A-18C with no external fuel tanks carry

A

10,200 lbs

487
Q

how much fuel can F/A-18E configured with five external fuel tanks carry

A

30,000 lbs

488
Q

what are wing tanks made of

A

foam

489
Q

what does foam in wing tanks allow

A

self-seal holes

490
Q

can acft be fueled without power

A

yes

491
Q

can acft be fueled/defueled with out engines running

A

yes

492
Q

what is the refuel/defuel system

A

manifold providing
single point ground
single air input
single output in each tank

493
Q

where is refueling/defueling controlled/monitored

A

door 8

494
Q

where is In-Flight Refueling (IFR) probe located

A

right forward fuselage

495
Q

define CG

A

Center of Gravity

496
Q

what does internal fuel transfer system do

A

replenish fuel in #2 & #3 tank

maintains fuel system Center of Gravity (CG)

497
Q

how does internal fuel transfer system normally operate

A

pumps fill #2 & #3 tank

wing fuel tanks replenish tank #4

498
Q

what controls Center-of-Gravity (CG) via fuel

A

signal data compute

monitors tanks #1 & #4

499
Q

what does Hot Fuel Recirculation system do

A

maintains optimum fuel delivery temp to engines

cools engines Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) & other engine components

500
Q

what does the Hot Fuel Recirculation system absorb heat from

A

liquid cooling systems
Airframe Mounted Auxiliary Drive (AMAD) oil
hydraulic fuel in heat exchangers

501
Q

what doe the fuel pressurization and vent system do

A

maintains pressure on the fuel in all tanks

vents fuel vapors overboard

502
Q

how does fuel pressurization and vent system work

A

removes pressure

or

increases pressure via ram air pressure supplied by scarf vent outlets

503
Q

how is fuel quantity in each tank measured

A

capacitance gauging transmitters

controlled by signal data computer

504
Q

what does secondary power system consist of

A

auxiliary power unit (APU)

airframe mounted accessory drive (AMAD)

505
Q

what is the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)

A

centrifugal flow gas turbine engine

supplies air through the AMAD for
Environmental Control Systems (ECS)
Main Engine Start (MES)
Ground Maintenance Mode (GMM)

506
Q

define GMM

A

Ground Maintenance Mode

507
Q

define MES

A

Main Engine Start

508
Q

define ECS

A

Environmental Control Systems

509
Q

what are the three modes of operation for the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)

A

Environmental Control Systems (ECS)
Main Engine Start (MES)
Ground Maintenance Mode (GMM)

510
Q

how does Secondary Power Compressed Air work

A

provides pneumatic power for operating
air turbine starter

or

environmental control system (ECS)

511
Q

where is the connection for huffer starts

A

right wheel well

512
Q

what is a huffer start

A

use of an external air source

513
Q

how is Airframe Mounted Auxiliary Drive (AMAD) connected to Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)

A

pneumatically through the Air Turbine Start (ATS)

514
Q

define ATS

A

Air Turbine Start

515
Q

what does the Airframe Mounted Auxiliary Drive (AMAD) provide

A

transmits power to engine for starts

516
Q

what powers the Airframe Mounted Auxiliary Drive (AMAD)

A

engine during normal ops

APU during Ground Maintenance Mode (GMM)

517
Q

where are the Airframe Mounted Auxiliary Drive (AMAD) gearboxes

A

door 53L/R

518
Q

are the Airframe Mounted Auxiliary Drive (AMAD) gear boxes interchangeable

A

yes

519
Q

how is Airframe Mounted Auxiliary Drive (AMAD) gear box connected to engine

A

mechanically via Power Transmission Shaft (PTS)

520
Q

what components does Airframe Mounted Auxiliary Drive (AMAD) drive

A

fuel boost/motive flow pump
electrical generator
3000/5000 psi hydraulic pump

521
Q

purpose of the Air Refueling System

A

provide tanker capabilities

522
Q

what does the Air Refueling System

A 
integrated structural
hydraulic
pneumatic
fuel
electrical systems
523
Q

what does the Air Refueling System structural system consist of

A

nose (dry)
center (wet)
tail (dry)

524
Q

what does the Air Refueling System structural system provide

A

load carrying

mounting structure

525
Q

what is the nominal operating pressure of the Air Refueling System hydraulic system

A

3000 psi

526
Q

what does the Air Refueling System hydraulic system provide

A

necessary power for
hose extension
hose retraction
fuel transfer

527
Q

how does the Air Refueling System hydraulic system operate with or without acft

A

independent of acft

528
Q

what is the delivery pressure of the Air Refueling System delivery system

A

35-60 psi

529
Q

what is the capability of the Air Refueling System to deliver fuel at the coupling

A

220 gpm

530
Q

what does the Air Refueling System electrical system consist of

A

flight station mounted control panel

provides cmd & cntl of refueling store

531
Q

what is the Air Refueling System electrical system shielded from

A

EMI

532
Q

what features does the Air Refueling System Electrical System have

A

EMI protection
Built-in-Test (BIT) codes
Frequency Shift Keying data transmission

533
Q

what is the Ram Air Turbine A2 (RAT)

A

four bladed power source

drives the hydraulic pump via a spline shaft of the Air Refueling System

534
Q

where is the Air Refueling Store Ram Air Turbine A2 (RAT) located

A

nose of store via six threaded studs

535
Q

how does the Air Refueling Store Ram Air Turbine A2 (RAT) operate

A

auto feathering feature
solenoid operated brake

PWR Off:
solenoid deenergized
blades feathered
brake on

PWR On:
solenoid energized
brake released
blades unfeather via springs & accelerate - settling at right speed due to weights and centrifugal forces

536
Q

what is the governing speed of the Air Refueling Store Ram Air Turbine A2 (RAT)

A

3,600 to 5,000 RPM

537
Q

what does the Air Refueling Store hydraulic pump provide

A

pressurized hydraulic fluid for operation of Air Refueling Store

538
Q

what is the capability of the Air Refueling Store fuel transfer pump

A

220 gpm at 35-60 psi

539
Q

what does the guillotine on the Air Refueling Store do

A

provides an explosive means for severing the hose from the store

540
Q

what must be done before applying external pwr to acft

A

circuit breakers & switches IAW MIMS
inspect pwr cables & cable assembly plugs
ensure pwr source is secure

541
Q

what is a barometric altimeter

A

uses pitot-static pressure to indicate altitude above sea level

542
Q

what determines altitude above sea level

A

barometric altimeter

543
Q

what is a radar altimeter

A

uses radio echoes to determine altitude above ground level

544
Q

what determines altitude above ground level

A

radar altimeter

545
Q

define azimuth

A

angular position in horizontal plane measured clockwise from true north

546
Q

define bearing

A

angular position of an object with respect to a reference point or line

547
Q

define range

A

distance of an object from an observer

548
Q

define heading

A

actual orientation of the aircraft’s longitudinal axis at any instance

549
Q

define true heading

A

direction measured by true north

550
Q

define magnetic heading

A

direction of the earth’s magnetic field at that location as the reference

551
Q

what is the angular position in horizontal plane measured clockwise from true north

A

azimuth

552
Q

what is the angular position of an object with respect to a reference point or line

A

bearing

553
Q

what is the distance of an object from an observer

A

range

554
Q

what is the actual orientation of the aircraft’s longitudinal axis at any instance

A

heading

555
Q

what is the direction measured by true north

A

true heading

556
Q

what is the direction of the earth’s magnetic field at that location as the reference

A

magnetic heading

557
Q

define relative heading

A

current direction that an object is facing a the 0/360 azimuth alignment

558
Q

what is the current direction that an object is facing a the 0/360 azimuth alignment

A

relative heading

559
Q

what is the advantage of using Fiber Optic Cables

A 
improved system performance
immunity to electrical noise
signal security
improved safety and electrical isolation
reduced size and weight
environmental protection
overall system economy
560
Q

what is the purpose of UHF & VHF

A

communicate with other aircraft, ground stations, shipping traffic and coastal stations

561
Q

what is the Intercommunication Audio System (IAS)

A

amplification & routing of audio signals between cockpit, ground crew and rear cockpit

supplemental and backup communication, radio navigation, and identification (CNI) controls

combined aircraft threat warnings and advisories, weapon tones, and voice alerting

562
Q

define IAS

A

Intercommunication Audio System

563
Q

define CNI

A

Comms / Navigation / Identification

564
Q

define INS

A

Inertial Navigation System

565
Q

what is the Inertial Navigation System (INS)

A

self-contained
fully automatic
dead reckoning
navigation system

566
Q

what does Inertial Navigation System (INS)

A

detects aircraft motion (acceleration and attitude)

provides acceleration, velocity, present position, pitch roll, and true heading to related systems

567
Q

define ARI

A

Attitude Reference Indicator

568
Q

what is the Attitude Reference Indicator (ARI)

A

self-contained pitch and roll attitude reference system with an electrically driven gyro

provides a minimum of 3 minutes of attitude information with total loss power

provide backup pitch and roll attitude for use by other systems

569
Q

define ILS

A

Instrument Landing System

570
Q

what is the Instrument Landing System (ILS)

A

all weather approach guidance system
provides steering info during aircraft approach by decoding azimuth & elevation signals from surf xmtrs
signals displayed on HUD and ARI

571
Q

what does Pitot Static system measure

A

temperature
pitot
static pressure

572
Q

what measures temperature, pitot & static pressure surrounding acft

A

Pitot Static system

573
Q

what detects aircraft motion (acceleration and attitude) and provides acceleration, velocity, present position, pitch roll, and true heading to related systems

A

Inertial Navigation System (INS)

574
Q

what is a self-contained pitch and roll attitude reference system with an electrically driven gyro

A

Attitude Reference Indicator (ARI)

575
Q

how many minutes of attitude reference does Attitude Reference Indicator (ARI) provide with total loss of power

A

3 min

576
Q

what is an all weather approach guidance system

A

Instrument Landing System (ILS)

577
Q

how does Instrument Landing System (ILS) work

A

provides steering info during aircraft approach by decoding azimuth & elevation signals from surf xmtrs

578
Q

where is Instrument Landing System (ILS) information displayed

A

Heads Up Display (HUD)

Attitude Reference Indicator (ARI)

579
Q

define AFCS

A

Automatic Flight Control System

580
Q

define ATC

A

Automatic Throttle Control

581
Q

what is the function of the Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS)

A

provide autopilot and Automatic Throttle Control (ATC)

582
Q

what does the Airspeed Indicator do

A

displays airspeed

583
Q

what does the Airspeed Indicator use to determine airspeed

A

function of pitot and static pressure

584
Q

what increment is airspeed indicated on the Airspeed Indicator

A

10 knot increments from 50 to 200 knots

585
Q

how does the standby Pressure Altimeter display altitude

A

three displays
pointer display (0 to 1000 ft in 50 ft increments)
drum display w/two movable digits (1000 ft increments to 99,000 ft)
four digit display indicating barometric pressure in inches of mercury

586
Q

how many displays does the standby Pressure Altimeter have

A

three

587
Q

what does the Vertical Speed Indicator display

A

climb or dive rate

588
Q

how does the Vertical Speed Indicator work

A

senses changes in air pressure

589
Q

how does the Vertical Speed Indictor work

A

climb or dive rates between 0 to 6,000ft per min
Upper Half: rate of climb
Lower Half: rate of dive

      100ft increments (0-1,000ft)
      500ft increments (1,000-6,000ft)
590
Q

when does the Angle of Attack (AOA) Indexer operate

A

landing gear down

weight off the gear

591
Q

what does the Angle of Attack (AOA) Indexer display

A

approach angle of attack with lighted symbols

592
Q

what shows the approach angle of attack with lighted symbols

A

Angle of Attack (AOA) Indexer

593
Q

what displays the climb or dive rate

A

Vertical Speed Indictor

594
Q

define AOAT

A

Angle of Attack Transmitters

595
Q

what does the Angle of Attack Transmitters (AOAT) do

A

measure the difference between the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the airstream

596
Q

define ADC

A

Air Data Computer

597
Q

what does the Air Data Computer (ADC) do

A

receives inputs from various aircraft sensors
corrects errors
computes accurate air data & magnetic heading

598
Q

what are Air Data Computer (ADC) outputs used for

A 
primary flight data displays
navigation
weapons delivery
altitude reporting
environment control
unsafe landing warning
599
Q

define ADSU

A

Airstream Direction Sensing Units

600
Q

what four modes does the Data Link have

A

automatic carrier landing (ACL)
vector (VEC)
waypoint mode
alignment (ALGN)

601
Q

define ACL

A

automatic carrier landing

602
Q

define VEC

A

vector

603
Q

define ALGN

A

alignment

604
Q

how many modes does the Data Link have

A

four

605
Q

what modes does the RADAR have

A

A/A: Air-to-Air

A/G: Air-to-Ground

606
Q

what does RADAR provide

A 
target detection
designation
tracking 
navigation
terrain avoidance
precision velocity measurement for navigation update and improved weapon delivery accuracy
607
Q

what do Mission Computers (MC) do

A

communicate & provide data conversion with non-mux avionic equip

air-to-air & air-to-ground master modes of operation

608
Q

define MC

A

Mission Computers

609
Q

what does HUD provide

A 
altitude
steering
navigation
A/A and A/G weapons
navigation FLIR video
610
Q

what is the field of view of the HUD

A

20 degrees

611
Q

where is the optical center for the HUD

A

4 degrees below waterline

612
Q

define DDI

A

Digital Display Indicator

613
Q

how many Digital Display Indicators (DDI) are there

A

two

614
Q

what does Digital Display Indicators (DDI) display

A

stores status

system status

615
Q

define UFCD

A

Up Front Control Display

616
Q

what does Up Front Control Display (UFCD) provide

A

entry and display of aircraft data

617
Q

what is Up Front Control Display (UFCD) used for

A

selection and control of communication, radio navigation, and identification (CNI) functions

618
Q

define MPCD

A

Multi Purpose Color Display

619
Q

what is Multi Purpose Color Display (MPCD) used for

A

maps

620
Q

define TAMMAC

A

Tactical Aircraft Moving Map Capability

621
Q

define DMC

A

Digital Map Computer

622
Q

define DMS

A

Digital Map Set

623
Q

what does Tactical Aircraft Moving Map Capability (TAMMAC) provide

A

provide enhanced navigational/tactical situational awareness to aircrew

624
Q

what is Digital Map Set (DMS) made up of

A

Digital Map Computer

high speed interface cable

625
Q

define SSR

A

Solid State Recorder

626
Q

what does the cockpit recording system do

A

records critical events and displays as selected by the aircrew

627
Q

what does cockpit recording system record to

A

either 8mm or Solid State Recorder (SSR)

628
Q

define DFIRS

A

Deployable Flight Incident Recorder Set

629
Q

how many functions does the Deployable Flight Incident Recorder Set (DFIRS) have

A

two

630
Q

what are the two functions of the Deployable Flight Incident Recorder Set (DFIRS)

A

retrieving and storage of flight data

deployment of stored flight data before the aircraft crashes or upon aircraft impact

631
Q

what provides deployment capability for Deployable Flight Incident Recorder Set (DFIRS)

A 
front mount
rear mount
impact initiator
severable door (door 300)
thin layer explosive
shielded mild detonation cord
632
Q

what freq does Deployable Flight Incident Recorder Set (DFIRS) beacon transmit on

A

243 MHz for SAR

MAD

633
Q

how long does Deployable Flight Incident Recorder Set (DFIRS) beacon last for

A

72 hours

634
Q

define FIRAMS

A

Flight Incident Recorder and Monitoring System

635
Q

what does Flight Incident Recorder and Monitoring System (FIRAMS) do

A

monitors engine and airframe operational status for unit failures and caution/advisory conditions

636
Q

define JHMCS

A

Joint Helmet Cueing System

637
Q

what does the Joint Helmet Cueing System (JHMCS) do

A

improves situational awareness, increases aircraft survivability and increases the ability to acquire a visual target

638
Q

what weapon does the Joint Helmet Cueing System (JHMCS) work with

A

AIM-9X

639
Q

what is position lighting used for

A

determine the relative position of the aircraft at night

640
Q

what are the colors of the position lighting

A

port: red
stbd: green
tail: white

641
Q

where I the DAY ID strobe light located

A

nose landing gear

642
Q

explain taxi/landing light assembly

A

white
faces forward
does not turn with nose wheel
used at night

643
Q

when are approach lights activated

A

when all landing gear are down and locked and weight is off wheels

644
Q

where are the approach lights located

A

nose landing gear strut

645
Q

during carrier ops what does the AOA approach lights do

A

displays AOA to LSO

646
Q

how many formation lights are there

A

eight

647
Q

what color are the formation lights

A

green

648
Q

where are the formation lights located

A

two on each wing tip
one outside each vertical stab
one on each side of the forward fuselage just forward of the LEX

649
Q

when are formation lights used

A

during join up after takeoff
in-flight refueling
routine night formation flights

650
Q

what do formation lights provide to wingmen

A

indicate changes of attitude and relative position

651
Q

what does the electrical power supply system consist of

A

two generators
two transformer-rectifiers (TR)
one battery
one power distribution bus

652
Q

during normal ops what is the generator configuration

A

left generator powers left bus

right generator powers right bus

653
Q

what is battery power provided for

A

normal engine start

654
Q

what does the maintenance battery supply power to

A

28vdc to essential & maint buses

655
Q

what kind of generators are they

A 
variable speed
constant frequency
115/200 VAC
400 Hz
three phase
656
Q

what are hazards with forward firing ordnance

A 
auto-ignition
toxic chemicals
inadvertent separation
high heat
protruding surfaces
motor detonation
657
Q

yellow ordnance

A

HE

658
Q

brown ordnance

A

rocket motor

659
Q

blue ordnance

A

training, inert

660
Q

explain BRU suspension equipment

A

bomb ejector racks

suspend & eject single stores & weapons

661
Q

name the BRUs

A

BRU-32
BRU-33
BRU-41
BRU-42

662
Q

explain LAUs

A

used to suspend and launch missiles

663
Q

name the LAUs

A

LAU-7
LAU-116
LAU-127

664
Q

name the ordnance pylons

A 
SUU-62
SUU-63
SUU-78
SUU-79
SUU-80
665
Q

how many weapon stations does F/A-18A-D have

A

nine

666
Q

name the F/A-18A-D weapon stations

A

1&9: LAU-7
2/3/7/8: SUU-63 w/BRU-32
4&6: LAU-116
5: SUU-62 w/BRU-32

667
Q

how many weapon stations does F/A-18E/F have

A

eleven

668
Q

name the F/A-18E/F weapon stations

A 
1&11: LAU-127
2&10: SUU-80 w/BRU-32
3/4/8/9: SUU-79 w/BRU-32
5&7: LAU-116
6: SUU-78 w/BRU-32
669
Q

what are CADs

A

small explosive filled cartridges used to fire other explosives or release mechanisms

670
Q

name the CADs

A

MK 19
MK 107
MK 125

671
Q

what is the MK 19 CAD used for

A

auxiliary CAD
opens BRU-32 bomb rack allowing weapon to free fall
used when all other options have failed

672
Q

what are cluster bombs

A

anti-tank bomb

673
Q

name the cluster bombs

A

MK 20
CBU-99
CBU-100

674
Q

what are Fire Bombs

A

thin-skinned container of fuel gel designed for use against dug-in troops, supply installations, wooden structures, and land convoys

675
Q

what kinds of fuel/gelling solutions do Fire Bombs use

A

JP-4 or JP-5

676
Q

name the fire bomb

A

MK 77 Mod 4

677
Q

what is a MK 77 Mod 4

A

fire bomb

678
Q

how much fuel does a MK 77 Mod 4 fire bomb hold

A

75 gallons

679
Q

how much does a MK 77 Mod 4 fire bomb weigh

A

500 lbs full

680
Q

what are aircraft laid mines used for

A

employed in offensive operations and defensive mining operations
defend or control vital straits, port approaches, convoy anchorages, and seaward coastal barriers

681
Q

what does GBU stand for

A

Guided Bomb Unit

682
Q

what makes up a GBU

A

Bomb: Mk-82/Mk-83/Mk-84
Computer Control Group (CCG): MAU-169
Airfoil Group (AFG): MXU-650/MXU-651/MXU-667

683
Q

define AFG

A

Airfoil Group

684
Q

define CCG

A

Computer Control Group

685
Q

how does Computer Control Group (CCG) work

A

mounts on nose of bomb (no nose fusing)
detects laser-illuminated target
provides weapon guidance signals to moveable guidance fins

686
Q

what are the two methods bomb fins can operate

A

retarded

non-retarded

687
Q

what does retarded fins mean

A

fins open to slow bomb to allow acft to clear tgt area

688
Q

what does non-retarded fins mean

A

fins folded, weapon falls unimpeded for high level bombing

689
Q

define CATM

A

Captive Air Training Missile

690
Q

what are Captive Air Training Missile (CATM)

A

all types of missiles other than service or tactical

691
Q

what are the Captive Air Training Missile (CATM) categories

A

Captive Air Training Missile (CATM)
Dummy Air Training Missile (DATM)
Special Air Training Missile (NATM)
Practice Guided Weapon (PGW)

692
Q

define DATM

A

Dummy Air Training Missile

693
Q

define NATM

A

Special Air Training Missile

694
Q

define PGW

A

Practice Guided Weapon

695
Q

what are Dummy Air Training Missile (DATM)

used for

A

ground training missiles used to train ground personnel in missile assembly/disassembly, uploading and downloading, and handling procedures

696
Q

what kind of missile is a AIM

A

air to air

697
Q

what kind of missile is a AGM

A

air to ground

698
Q

what is the difference between an AIM-9M and AIM-9X

A

AIM-9X has IR sensor & forward wings to improve maneuverability

699
Q

what is a AGM-154

A

Joint Standoff Weapon (JSOW)

700
Q

what is the nomenclature for Joint Standoff Weapon (JSOW)

A

AGM-154

701
Q

what is the purpose of the AGM-154 Joint Standoff Weapon (JSOW)

A

engagement of defended targets at ranges outside that of standard anti-aircraft defenses, thereby increasing aircraft survivability and minimizing friendly losses

702
Q

what is a AGM-65

A

Maverick

703
Q

What is the nomenclature for a Maverick

A

AGM-65

704
Q

characteristics of the AGM-84 series

A

solid fuel rocked
conventional warhead
imaging infrared guidance

705
Q

what is a AGM-84D

A

Harpoon

706
Q

What is the nomenclature for a Harpoon

A

AGM-84D

707
Q

what is a AGM-84E

A

Stand-off Land Attack Missile (SLAM)

708
Q

What is the nomenclature for a Stand-off Land Attack Missile (SLAM)

A

AGM-84E

709
Q

what does the AGM-84E Stand-off Land Attack Missile (SLAM) uses for terminal flight

A

Inertial Navigation System (INS)
GPS
IR

710
Q

what is a AGM-84H

A

Stand-off Land Attack Missile-Expanded Response (SLAM-ER)

711
Q

What is the nomenclature for a Stand-off Land Attack Missile-Expanded Response (SLAM-ER)

A

AGM-84H

712
Q

what is a AGM-88

A

High-Speed Anti-Radiation Missile (HARM)

713
Q

What is the nomenclature for a High-Speed Anti-Radiation Missile (HARM)

A

AGM-88

714
Q

what is the gun system

A

F/A-18A-D: M61A1

F/A-18E/F: M61A2

715
Q

what are the modes of operation for the M61A1/2 gun

A

air-to-ground (A/G)
air-to-air (A/A)
air combat maneuver (ACM encounter)

716
Q

what is a M61A1

A

gun on F/A-18A-D

717
Q

what is a M61A2

A

gun on F/A-18E/F

718
Q

what are the two attack modes for the M61A1/2 gun

A

computer pilot attack

manual attack

719
Q

what is computer pilot attack mode for the M61A1/2 gun

A

computer assisted firing

720
Q

what is the manual attack mode for the M61A1/2 gun

A

backup

manual sighting

721
Q

what is the rate of fire for the M61A1/2 gun

A

High: 6,000 rounds per minute
Low: 4,000 rounds per minute

722
Q

define SMS

A

Stores Management System

723
Q

define ACP

A

Armament Control Processor

724
Q

define SMP

A

Stores Management Processor

725
Q

define SDCC

A

Signal Data Converter- Controls

726
Q

what does the Stores Management System (SMS) / Stores Management Processor (SMP) do

A

interface between weapons stations and acft

727
Q

define CLC

A

Command Launch Computer

728
Q

what weapon is the Command Launch Computer (CLC) used with

A

AGM-88 High-Speed Anti-Radiation Missile (HARM)

729
Q

where is the Command Launch Computer (CLC) located

A

door 13R

730
Q

what are the six programs QA manages

A

MANSAC

M Maint & Safety
A Audits
N Naval Aviation Maint Reporting Pgm (NAMDRP)
S SE Misuse & Abuse
A Aircraft Confined Space Program (ACSP)
C CTPL

731
Q

define WUC

A

Work Unit Code

732
Q

define NAMDRP

A

Naval Aviation Maint Reporting Pgm

733
Q

what is the nomenclature for the countermeasures dispensing system

A

F/A-18A-D: ALE-39

F/A-18E/F: ALE-47

734
Q

what is an ALE-39

A

countermeasures dispensing system for F/A-18A-D

735
Q

what is an ALE-47

A

countermeasures dispensing system for F/A-18E/F

736
Q

what goes in the countermeasures dispensing system

A

chaff
flares
RF expendables

737
Q

what is an ALE-50

A

Towed Active RF Decoy

738
Q

what is the nomenclature for the Towed Active RF Decoy

A

ALE-50

739
Q

what are pyrotechnics used for

A

signaling
marking
SAR

740
Q

what is the objective of the Egress System Checkout Certification Program

A

thoroughly familiarize personnel working in and around the cockpit with ejection seats and the special hazards associated with those system

741
Q

how often does a new Egress System Checkout need to be done

A

every 6 months

after more than 90 days TAD

742
Q

what is hypoxia

A

decrease in amount of oxygen in bloodstream

causing eyes, body and muscles to fail

743
Q

what is a decrease in oxygen in the blood stream causing muscles to fail

A

hypoxia

744
Q

what is anoxia

A

death from lack of oxygen

745
Q

what is a death from lack of oxygen

A

anoxia

746
Q

precautions prior to entering cockpit

A

ensure ejection seat safety pins are installed and handle is in safe position
ensure the Canopy Jettison safety pin is installed

747
Q

define ABO

A

Aviator’s Breathing Oxygen

748
Q

what are the two types of Aviator’s Breathing Oxygen (ABO) in the navy

A

Type I: Gaseous Oxygen

Type II: Liquid Oxygen

749
Q

how many types of Aviator’s Breathing Oxygen (ABO) are there in the navy

A

two

750
Q

how pure is Liquid Oxygen (LOX)

A

99.5%

751
Q

define LOX

A

Liquid Oxygen

752
Q

what is the expansion rate of Liquid Oxygen (LOX)

A

862 to 1

753
Q

what PSI can Liquid Oxygen (LOX) generate if not vented

A

12,000 PSI

754
Q

safe smoking distance from Liquid Oxygen (LOX)

A

50 feet

755
Q

what are the minimum aircrew PPE

A 
flight suit
aviator boots
anti-g garment
helmet
survival radio/beacon
gloves
anti-exposure suit
ID tags
knife
personal survival kit
signal device
flashlight
life preserver
laser eye protection
756
Q

how deep is the oxygen mask rated for

A

16 feet

757
Q

what is a CRU-103/P

A

oxygen regulator

758
Q

what is the nomenclature of the oxygen regulator

A

CRU-103/P

759
Q

characteristics of the CRU-103/P Oxygen Regulator

A

Chest mounted
positive pressure
g-mounted regulator
provides on demand oxygen

760
Q

what is a LPU-36/P

A

Life Preserver

761
Q

what is the nomenclature of the Life Preserver

A

LPU-36/P

762
Q

characteristics of the LPU-36/P Life Preserver

A

low profile floatation collar
FlU-8B/P automatic/manual inflation assembly
only for acft with ejection seats

763
Q

what is the Anti-G suit

A

bladder system encased in a fire-resistant cloth

764
Q

define PHSRU

A

Parachute Harness Sensing Release Unit

765
Q

what activates the Parachute Harness Sensing Release Unit (PHSRU)

A

sea water

766
Q

define HDU

A

Helmet Mounted Display Unit

767
Q

what does the Helmet Mounted Display Unit (HDU) do

A

projects onto the visor and superimposed in the operators view
recording pilot view by routing info to Cockpit Video Recording System (CVRS)

768
Q

define CVRS

A

Cockpit Video Recording System

769
Q

what is the SJU-17A(V)2/A

A

ejection seat

770
Q

what is the designator of the ejection seat

A

SJU-17A(V)2/A

771
Q

define NACES

A

Navy Common Ejection Seat

772
Q

characteristics of the SJU-17A(V)2/A Ejection Seat

A

automatic
cartridge operated
rocket assisted

773
Q

how many cartridges does each SJU-17A(V)2/A Ejection Seat initiator have

A

two

left & right

774
Q

what does right SJU-17A(V)2/A Ejection Seat cartridge do

A

start canopy jettison sequence
activates seat electronic sequencer
activates seat restraints & fires seat catapult after delay

775
Q

what does left SJU-17A(V)2/A Ejection Seat cartridge do

A

redundantly activate seat electronic sequencer

provides backup source to seat catapult

776
Q

how big is the emergency oxygen cylinder

A

100 cubic inches

777
Q

how is emergency oxygen system activated during ejection

A

automatically by a lanyard connected to the cockpit floor

778
Q

what does the CANOPY JETT lever in the cockpit do

A

manually initiates canopy jettison without initiating seat ejection

779
Q

define ECS

A

Environmental Control System

780
Q

where is air supplied to the Environmental Control System (ECS) from

A

“bled”
compressor stage of turbine engines
upstream of the combustor

781
Q

name the 12 subsystems of the Environmental Control System (ECS)

A

3A 2B 3C O R 2W

Air cycle conditioning
Avionics cooling
Anti-G/vent suit
Bleed air control
Bleed air leak detection
Cabin cooling & defog
Cabin pressurization
Canopy seal
OBOGS
Radar liquid cooling
Windshield anti-ice & rain removal
Wave guide pressurization
782
Q

define OBOGS

A

On-board Oxygen Generation System

783
Q

what does the fire detection system monitor

A

Airframe Mounted Auxiliary Drive (AMAD)
Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)
Engine Bays

784
Q

how many shots does the fire extinguishing system get

A

one shot, one bay

785
Q

define DBFSS

A

Dry Bay Fire Suppression System

786
Q

what does the Dry Bay Fire Suppression System (DBFSS) do

A

suppresses fire events associated with ballistic damage

787
Q

how many optical fire detectors doe the Dry Bay Fire Suppression System (DBFSS) have

A

14

788
Q

how many dry bay extinguishers does that Dry Bay Fire Suppression System (DBFSS) have

A

6

789
Q

what program ensures safety with ordnance

A

Ordnance Certification and Qualification Program

790
Q

define SEAD

A

Suppression of Enemy Air Defenses

791
Q

what is the Suppression of Enemy Air Defenses (SEAD) mission

A

neutralize, destroy, or temporarily degrade the enemy air defenses

792
Q

what mission is to neutralize, destroy, or temporarily degrade the enemy air defenses

A

Suppression of Enemy Air Defenses (SEAD)

793
Q

define WAS

A

War at Sea

794
Q

what is the War at Sea (WAS) mission

A

destroy the enemy’s naval vessels and amphibious forces

795
Q

what mission is to destroy the enemy’s naval vessels and amphibious forces

A

War at Sea (WAS)

796
Q

define CAS

A

Close Air Support

797
Q

what is the Close Air Support (CAS) mission

A

precisely deliver various munitions at a set time in support of ground troops

798
Q

what mission is to precisely deliver various munitions at a set time in support of ground troops

A

Close Air Support (CAS)

799
Q

define MAS

A

Maritime Air Superiority

800
Q

what is the Maritime Air Superiority (MAS) mission

A

maintain the airspace around the battle group

801
Q

what mission is to maintain the airspace around the battle group

A

Maritime Air Superiority (MAS)

802
Q

define ACM

A

Air Combat Maneuvering

803
Q

what is Air Combat Maneuvering (ACM) mission

A

art of maneuvering a combat aircraft in order to attain a position from which an attack can be made on another aircraft

804
Q

define BFM

A

Basic Fighter Maneuvering

805
Q

what is the art of maneuvering a combat aircraft in order to attain a position from which an attack can be made on another aircraft

A

Air Combat Maneuvering (ACM)

806
Q

define CAP

A

Combat Air Patrol

807
Q

what is the mission of Combat Air Patrol (CAP)

A

aircraft patrol for the purpose of intercepting and destroying hostile aircraft before they reach their target

808
Q

what is mission is aircraft patrol for the purpose of intercepting and destroying hostile aircraft before they reach their target

A

Combat Air Patrol (CAP)

809
Q

define FCF

A

Functional Check Flight

810
Q

what is the purpose of a Functional Check Flight (FCF)

A

determines whether an aircraft airframe, engine, accessories, or equipment is functioning according to established standards

811
Q

what determines whether an aircraft airframe, engine, accessories, or equipment is functioning according to established standards

A

Functional Check Flight (FCF)

812
Q

how many types of Functional Check Flight (FCF) are there

A

four

813
Q

what are the types of a Functional Check Flight (FCF)

A

A
B
C
D

814
Q

define FCLP

A

Field Carrier Landing Practice

815
Q

what is a Field Carrier Landing Practice (FCLP)

A

familiarize pilots with procedures and techniques required for a successful carrier or field carrier landing

816
Q

what familiarize pilots with procedures and techniques required for a successful carrier or field carrier landing

A

Field Carrier Landing Practice (FCLP)

817
Q

how many operations are there in the Field Carrier Landing Practice (FCLP)

A

two

818
Q

what are the two operations in the Field Carrier Landing Practice (FCLP)

A

Takeoff

Landing

819
Q

define VMC

A

Visual Meteorological Conditions

820
Q

define VFR

A

Visual Flight Rules

821
Q

what is Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC)

A

conditions in which pilots have sufficient visibility to fly the aircraft maintaining visual separation from terrain and other aircraft

822
Q

what are conditions in which pilots have sufficient visibility to fly the aircraft maintaining visual separation from terrain and other aircraft

A

Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC)

823
Q

define IMC

A

Instrument Meteorological Conditions

824
Q

what are Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC)

A

weather conditions that normally require pilots to fly primarily by reference to instruments

825
Q

what else is Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) called

A

Blind Flying

826
Q

what are weather conditions that normally require pilots to fly primarily by reference to instruments

A

Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC)

827
Q

what is the difference between Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) and Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)

A

IMC explains the weather

IFR describes the rules for flying acft

828
Q

define VFR

A

Visual Flight Rules

829
Q

what are Visual Flight Rules (VFR)

A

rules that govern the procedures for conducting flights under visual conditions

830
Q

define IFR

A

Instrument Flight Rules

831
Q

what are Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)

A

rules for governing the procedures for conducting instrument flight

832
Q

define CATCC

A

Carrier Air Traffic Control Center

833
Q

mission of Carrier Air Traffic Control Center (CATCC)

A

maintains primary control of airborne aircraft operating from carrier

responsible for the status and upkeep of all carrier air operations

834
Q

define FLOLS

A

Fresnel Lens Optical Landing System

835
Q

what does the Fresnel Lens Optical Landing System (FLOLS)

A

provides the pilot with a visual indication of his/her relative position with respect to a prescribed glide slope

836
Q

what is the glide-scope

A

designed to bring the aircraft down to the deck

within the cross-deck pendant pattern

with a sage arresting hook clearance above the stern ramp of the carrier

837
Q

define MOVLAS

A

Manually Operated Visual Landing Aid System

838
Q

what is the Manually Operated Visual Landing Aid System (MOVLAS)

A

emergency signaling system
used when Fresnel Lens Optical Landing System (FLOLS) is down

same as Fresnel Lens Optical Landing System (FLOLS) but smaller

vertical orange lamps controlled by LSO

839
Q

where can Manually Operated Visual Landing Aid System (MOVLAS) be installed

A

Station 1: immediately in front of Fresnel Lens Optical Landing System (FLOLS)
Station 2 & 3: port & stbd deck

840
Q

what is the primary purpose of the ejection seat

A

place for pilot to sit

841
Q

define AAW

A

Anti-Air Warfare

842
Q

what is Anti-Air Warfare (AAW)

A

destruction of enemy airborne assets (planes, missiles)

843
Q

define AMW

A

Amphibious Warfare

844
Q

what is Amphibious Warfare (AMW)

A

attacks launched from the sea by naval forces and by landing forces embarked in ships or craft designed to achieve a shore presence in a littoral zone

845
Q

what is a Work Unit Code

A

describes exact system being worked on

846
Q

how many Sailors needed to move acft

A

6 with brakes

7 without brakes

847
Q

what is the temp of LOX

A
  • 297
848
Q

What is the founding date of VFA-146

A

February 1st 1956

849
Q

What was 146 called before Blue Diamonds

A

Blacktails

850
Q

what four previous acft did 146 fly

A

F9F Cougar
FJ-4B Fury
A4 Skyhawk
A7 Corsair

851
Q

name four previous CVNs 146 has been with

A 
RONALD REAGAN
NIMITZ
KITTY HAWK
JOHN C STENNIS
CARL VINSON
HORNET
RANGER
ORISKANY
LEXINGTON
CONSTELLATION
ENTERPRISE
AMERICA
CARL VINSON
852
Q

what 146 acft model was most accident free in history

A

A7 Corsair

853
Q

what was 146 first squadron to use in Vietnam War

A

`Laser Guided Bombs

854
Q

three combat engagements 146 has been in

A

Vietnam War
Operation Desert Storm
Operation Enduring Freedom

Iranian Hostage Crisis
Operation Southern Watch

855
Q

“Trucidemus Omnes Et Devastemus Impedimenta Eorum” translates into what?

A

Directly “Kill everyone and destroy their baggage.”

Indirectly meaning, “Break things and kill people.”

856
Q

What is the purpose of firefighting

A

Save lives

Save equipment

EAWS (1 decks)

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