Eye Exam Flashcards
1
Q
- Inspection of the eye
A
- Position and alignment of the eyes
- Eyebrows for hair and scaliness
- Conjunctiva
- Sclera
- Cornea
- Iris
- Pupil
- Ask patient to look upward as lower lids are pulled inferior and vice versa
2
Q
- Techniques for opthalmoscopy
A
- Lights off
- Right eye with opthalmoscope in right hand to examine patient’s right eye and vice versa
- Patient should focus on distant point in front of them
- Start 10-15 inches laterally from eye and move in 1-3 inches from the eye
- Patient should briefly look at light
3
Q
- Abbreviated eye exam findings
A
- PERRLA EOMI
Pupils equal, round and reactive to light, and accomodation. extraocular muscles intact
4
Q
- Complete eye exam findings
A
- Eyes:
- Orbits
- Eyelids
- Conjunctivae
- Sclera normal
- PERRLA, EOMI
- Vision grossly intact and fundoscopic exam is unremarkable
5
Q
- How to use Snellen Eye Chart
A
- Hold 14 inches from patient at eye level
- Ask them to read smallest line that they can
- Have them close one eye and test
6
Q
- Things to look for during pupillary exam
A
- Should remain same side regardless to light exposure
- Monitor both eyes for response to light (direct and consensual)
- Convergence: pupil constriction when objects become close to eyes
- Avg pupil size: 4 mm
7
Q
Anisocoria
A
Unequal size of pupils
8
Q
- How do you test for red reflex?
A
- Have patient look directly at light at arm length away
- Should be equal red color reflection d/l

9
Q
- In what patients can there be a lighter red reflex that appears yellow, orange or pink?
A
- Patients with a lighter colored eyes
- African American
10
Q
- Leukocoria
A
- “White reflex”
- Indicates serious pathology, usually congenital cataract
- May be
- Retinoblastoma
- Retinal detachment

11
Q
- Fundoscopic exam
- Structures of posterior chamber to identify
A
- Optic disc: nasal and inferior
- Arterioles: 2 laterally, 2 nasally
- Macula: Temporal

12
Q
- Retinoblastoma
A
- Neuroectoderm malignancy from embryonic retinal cells
- Most common presenting sign is leukocoria
- 90% diagnosed before age 5

13
Q
- How do you test the cardinal signs of gaze?
- Which muscles are responsible for each?
A
- H Test
- SO4-LR6-AR3

14
Q
- Strabismus
- What is it?
- What can it lead to?
- What symptoms are included?
A
- Misalignment of eyes
- Can lead to ambylopia (lazy eye)
- Includes
- Extropia (lateral)
- Esotropia (medial)
- Hypotropia (caudal)
- Hypertropia (cephalad)

15
Q
- Cover uncover test
A
- Used to identify weakness of EOM
- Eyes should remain synchronous regardless of being covered
- Watch for drift as eye is uncovered
16
Q
- Nystagmus
- When is it seen in children
- When is it seen in adults
A
- Children
- Functional or anatomic sensory defect
- Adults
- Dysfunctional labyrinth
- Vestibular system while turning head
- Intoxication
- Neurological dysfunction
17
Q
- Caloric reflex
A
- Eyes deviated towards ear when being tested with cold water
- Eyes deviated to opposite ear when being tested with warm water
18
Q
- How to test visual field confrontation
A
- Static finger wiggle test
- Kinetic red target test
- *sensitivity and specificity is best when both are performed together*
19
Q
- Fluorescein Stain
A
- Used to identify epithelial defect (EX: Corneal abrasion)
- Perform after complete screening exam

20
Q
- Hordeolum (Stye)
A
- Painful inflammation of eyelid margins or meibomian glands
- Commonly caused by S.aureus
- Internal-caused by gland actually plugged
- External-caused by eyelash follicle or lid margin tear gland
- More common on lower eyelid
- Along eyelash line

21
Q
- Chalazion
A
- Painless
- Caused when Meibomian tear gland becomes obstructed
- Granulomatous process
- If persists, may need I+D
- Often associated with blepharitis and roasacea
- More common on upper eyelid
- In the eyelid

22
Q
- Xanthelasma
A
- Benign soft yellow plaques filled with cholesterol
- Most often on medial aspects of eyelids
- Dyslipidemia in 50% of patients but also classic for primary biliary cholangitis associated with hypercholesterolemia

23
Q
- Bacterial conjunctivitis
A
- Spread by direct contact
- Commonly unilateral
- Can become matted shut during sleep
- Purulent discharge throughout day
- Adults-S aureus
- Children-S pneumonia, H influenzae, m. catarrhallis (most common)

24
Q
- Viral conjunctivitis
A
- Spreads by direct contact
- Gritty or sandy feeling of eyes
- Initially unilateral but becomes b/l
- Clear discharge and may have follicular appearance on tarsal conjunctiva
- Adenovirus=most common cause

25
Q
- Pterygium
A
- Benign growth d/t chronic UV exposure
- In fibroblastic tissue of eye
- Usually on medial side
- More likely if patient has dry eyes

26
Q
- Hyphema
A
- Blood in anterior chamber of eye
- Commonly from trauma
- Other causes
- Vascular abnormalities
- Clotting problems
- Mass effects from neoplasms

27
Q
- Orbital compartment syndrome
A
- Opthalamic emergency
- Blood collection within bony confines of orbit leads to increased intraocular pressure
- Presentation
- Progressive pain
- Diplopia
- Diffuse subconjunctival hemorrhage and chemosis
28
Q
- Associated symptoms with eye complaints
A
- Pain
- Drainage
- Itching/burning
- Vision change
- Blurry vision
- Flashing lights
29
Q
- Relevant ROS for Eye complaints
A
- General
- Fever
- Weight change
- Neuro
- Headache
- Motor weakness
- Dizziness
- Poor balance
- Cardiovasc
- Dysrhythmias
- Chest pain
- Endocrine
- Excessive thirst
- Frequent urination
- Symptoms with hypoglycemia
- MSK
- Joint pain
- Back pain
- Skin
- Frequent infections
- Dry skin
- GI
- Changes in bowel functions
30
Q
- Relevant PMH
A
- Glaucoma
- DM
- Thyroid disease
- ASCD (atherosclerotic coronary disease)
- Collagen Vascular disease
- HIV
- IBD
31
Q
- Relevant medications
A
- Steroids
- Plaquenil
- Antihistamines
- Antidepressants
- Antipsychotics
- Antiarryhtmics
- Beta Blockers
32
Q
- Causes of periorbital edema
A
- Change in elasticity
- Lipoatrophy or lipohypertrophy from topical meds
- Bruising
- Trauma
- Allergic shiners (Basically bruising/bloated looking eyes)
- Xanthelasma
- Check cholesterol levels
- Proptosis/Exopthalmos
- Hyperthyroid
- Dacrocystitis-infection in tear duct common in infants
- Rash
- To hairline (herpes zoster-shingles)
- Pustules-acne, insect bites, other
33
Q
- What can cause the following

A
- Staph and strep infections
34
Q
- What conditions can affect the lacrimal apparatus
A
- Skin lesions
- Cancer
- Auto immune diseases
35
Q
- When looking at conjunctiva, what is normal and what is abnormal
A
- Normal-clear
- Abnormal
- Erythema-subconjunctival hemorrhage
- Purulence (Pink eye), conjunctivitis
- Ptergium
36
Q
- What nerve is responsible for the sensory portion of the corneal reflex
- What nerve is responsible for the motor portion of the corneal reflex
A
- Sensory-Trigeminal
- Motor-Facial
37
Q
- Arcus senilis
A
- Lipid deposition encircling iris
- Common in people over 60
- If < 40 years, check cholesterol

38
Q
- What is icterus and what causes it
A
- Yellow sclera
- Causes
- Neonatal liver disease
- Pancreatic cancer
- GB disease
39
Q
- Blue sclera increased risk of _
- Don’t confuse with _ which is a birthmark blue sclera and periorbital tissues
A
- Bone disease
- Nevus of Ota
40
Q
- What’s worse, horizontal or vertical nystagmus?
A
- Vertical
41
Q
- One thing to do before dilating pupils (mydriasis)
A
- Make sure patient does not have shallow anterior chamber (acute angle glaucoma)

42
Q
- Arterioles and venules of the eye
A
- Arterioles are smaller and brighter
43
Q
- Papilledema
A
- Indicative of increased intracranial pressure

44
Q
- Cotton wool spots are commonly seen in
A
- patients w/ HTN or DM

45
Q
- Glaucomatous cupping
A

46
Q
- Retinal proliferation is commonly seen (along with cotton wool spots) in patients with _ and _
A
- HTN and DM

47
Q
- _ are precursors to macular degeneration
A
- Drusen bodies
