Eye/ear/neuro Flashcards

1
Q

What is astigmatism?

A

irregular or unequal corneal curvature causing the parallel light rays to be bent unequally
Tx is getting the corneal curvature back to normal

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2
Q

what is presbyopia?

A

a form of hyperopia that occurs as a normal process of again usually around age 40 +, not being able to focus on close objects secondary to decreases elasticity. they will try to accommodate by holding written objects further away. tx with bifocals or trifocals because myopia and/or astigmatism can occur at the same time.

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3
Q

What is myopia?

A

nearsightedness. Cant see things far away, an image is formed before it hits the retina.
Causes: excessive light refraction by cornea and lens, abnormally long eye, lens swelling with hyperglycemia, this can increase rapidly during developmental years in growth spurts

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4
Q

what is hyperopia?

A

farsightedness. image is formed before the retina.
Causes: inadequate focusing power, eyeball is too short

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5
Q

what is hordeolum?

A

a sty, infection of the sebaceous gland in the lid margin, usually due to staph areus.

TX: warm moist compress, dont use makeup around the area, lid scrubs (1t baby shampoo + 1 pint warm water) and ABX

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6
Q

What is the difference between LASIK and PRK eye treatments?

A

LASIK: 1 day recovery time, less pain, laser used to remove layer but layer is put back

PRK: 5-7 day recovery time, better for severe myopic problems, more pain, laser is used to completely remove layer

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7
Q

Bacterial conjunctivitis

A

highly contagious
tx: ABX drops, strict hand washing, careful of handling drainage, warm compresses for crustiness

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8
Q

Viral conjunctivitis

A

the sensation of foreign body, self-limiting, usually patients should wait it out but will tx with steroid drops if it persists. If this does not resolve withing 72 hours, go to PCP

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9
Q

Allergic conjunctivitis

A

IGE response, tx by removing cause along with antihistamines, corticosteroids and artificial tears.

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10
Q

bacterial keratitis

A

infection/inflammation of the cornea. mechanical or chemical corneal epithelial damage, usually happens to those who wear contacts. tx with topical ABX, usually 2, if not effective move to a PO/IV abx

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11
Q

viral keratitis

A

viral infection/inflammation of the cornea.

Herpes Simplex:
patients form dendrite ulcers
tx with antiviral eye drops and corneal debridement but NEVER CORTICOSTEROIDS

Varicella Zoster:
Chicken pox
tx with analgesics, topical corticosteroids, mydriatic agents, and topical abx

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12
Q

Cataracts

A

opacity within the lens, age-related, pt complains about glare.
diagnose: with an eye exam with slit lamp microscopy and glare testing
tx:
nonsurgical- increased lens prescription, increased lighting, lifestyle adjustment, and other conservative measures.
surgical- removal/lens replacement

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13
Q

IOP

A

10-21 mmHg

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14
Q

Retinal detachment

A

separation of the sensory retina and the underlying epithelial layer with fluid accumulating between the two, will no longer reflect light in a normal pattern
*Presentation
-While detaching:
Flashes of light
Floaters
Ring in field of vision
-Once Detached:
Painless loss of vision in the area of detachment
-Diagnose with a slit-lamp microscopy and ultrasound of the eye

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15
Q

Tx for increased IOP

A

Beta Adrenergic Blockers: decrease Aqueous humor production

Alpha Adrenergic Agonists: decrease aqueous humor production and improve outflow

Miotics: facilitate aqueous outflow, open trabecular meshwork

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors: decrease aqueous humor production

Make sure to space out drops 5-10 minutes apart to that the drops have time to work before the next one

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16
Q

Age-related macular degeneration

A

retinal degeneration process involving the macula and resulting in degrees of central vision loss.
Dry MD: slow progression and painless vision loss
Wet MD: more severe rapid vision loss with abnormal blood vessels forming around the macula
TX- lasers, injected drugs, and vitamin therapy such as green leafy veggies, vit. C, E, beta-carotene, and Zinc

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17
Q

Glaucoma

A

a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure which results in optic nerve atrophy and peripheral visual field loss

one of the types is acute angle-closure glaucoma which is an emergency

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18
Q

Acute Angle-closure glaucoma

A

this is an ophthalmic emergency, present with colored halos around lights
tx: laser iridectomy, surgical iridectomy
meds: topical cholinergic agents (miotics)
hyperosmotic agents (mannitol)

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19
Q

external otitis

A

outer ear inflammation/infection. may be bacterial or fungal. symptoms include muffled hearing and discharge.
tx: abx drops, corticosteroid drops, warm moist external compress.
Prevention is key with ear drying drops and ear plugs

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20
Q

otitis media

A

infection/inflammation of the middle ear. complications can be perforated ear drum or meningitis.
tx: PO abx for 10 days

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21
Q

otosclerosis

A

an autosomal dominant disease where the footplate of the stapes is immobilized from spongy bone being developed.
fixed stapes bone=conductive hearing loss
test with Rinne test, bone vs air conduction
tx: hearing aids, vit. D and calcium carbonate, stapedotomy.
Significant hearing improvement right after then it decreases but improves over time.
Nursing care: cotton ball in ear canal, manage n/v, temporary dizziness, avoid bending, lifting, sneezing, coughing, and straining

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22
Q

Meniere’s Disease

A

accumulation of fluid in the inner ear. presents with vertigo attacks, n/v, sweating and pallor, tinnitus, fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss, aural fullness.
ongoing care: diuretics, sedatives, antihistamines, calcium channel blockers. avoid nicotine, caffeine, ETOH, MSG, and have a low sodium diet. Avoid flickering lights and TV during attacks.

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23
Q

hearing loss

A

Conductive: occurs in outer and middle ear and impairs the sound reaching to the ear
Causes:
Impacted cerumen
Foreign body
Perforation of tympanic membrane
Ts: hearing aid
Sensorineural: hearing loss due to impairment of the inner ear or CN VIII-Acoustic nerve
Caused by:
Aging
Ototoxic disease
Immune disease
DM
Cannot be treated with hearing aids
Tx: cochlear implants

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24
Q

Hearing Aids

A

Used for mild to moderate or mild to severe hearing loss
Goal: improved healing through consistent use
Considerations:
Motivation
How much does hearing loss impact lifestyle?
Ability to manipulate small objects
Gradually introduce hearing aid
1: restrict to quiet areas
2: use outside
3: incorporate into other environments
2 Things must be present:
Must be motivated
Must have dexterity

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25
The clinic nurse notes that following several eye examinations, the physician has documented a diagnosis of legal blindness in the client’s chart. The nurse reviews the results of the Snellen’s chart test expecting to note which of the following? A. 20/20 vision B. 20/40 vision C. 20/60 vision D. 20/200 vision
D
26
The client’s vision is tested with a Snellen chart. The results of the tests are documented as 20/60. The nurse interprets this as: A. The client can read at a distance of 60 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. B. The client is legally blind. C. The client’s vision is normal. D. The client can read only at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 60 feet.
D
27
Tonometry is performed on the client with a suspected diagnosis of glaucoma. The nurse analyzes the test results as documented in the client’s chart and understands that normal intraocular pressure is: A. 2-7 mmHg B. 10-21 mmHg C. 22-30 mmHg D. 31-35 mmHg
B
28
The nurse is performing an assessment on a client with a suspected diagnosis of cataract. The chief clinical manifestation that the nurse would expect to note in the early stages of cataract formation is: A. Eye pain B. Floating spots C. Blurred vision D. Diplopia
C
29
Cataract surgery results in aphakia. Which of the following statements best describes this term? A. Absence of the lens. B. A “keyhole” pupil. C. Loss of accommodation. D. Retinal detachment.
A
30
When developing a teaching session on glaucoma for the community, which of the following statements would the nurse stress? A. Glaucoma is easily corrected with eyeglasses. B. White and Asian individuals are at the highest risk for glaucoma. C. Yearly screening for people ages 20-40 years is recommended. D. Glaucoma can be painless and vision may be lost before the person is aware of a problem.
D
31
For a client having an episode of acute narrow-angle glaucoma, a nurse expects to give which of the following medications? A. Timolol B. Atropine C. Furosemide (Lasix) D. Urokinase (Abbokinase)
A Betal blockers Alpha blockers Miotics Carbinc anhydrase inhibitors
32
Which of the following symptoms would occur in a client with a detached retina? A. Flashing lights and floaters B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Loss of central vision D. Ptosis
A
33
The nurse is caring for a client that is hearing impaired. Which of the following approaches will facilitate communication? A. Speak frequently. B. Speak loudly. C. Speak directly into the impaired ear. D. Speak in a normal tone.
D. You want to speak directly facing the client, in a clear concise voice, do not yell
34
The nurse has conducted discharge teaching for a client who had a fenestration procedure for the treatment of otosclerosis. Which of the following, if stated by the client, would indicate that teaching was effective? A. “I should drink liquids through a straw for the next 2-3 weeks.” B. “It’s ok to take a shower and wash my hair.” C. “I will take stool softeners as prescribed by my doctor.” D. “I can resume my tennis lessons starting next week.”
C
35
Your patient has been diagnosed with Macular Degeneration. What foods would you expect her to incorporate into her diet? Kale Apples Nuts OrangAes Carrots Red meat Kiwi
A, C, D, E A.green leafy veggie C. Source of zinc D. vitamin C E. beta carotene
36
A client with Meniere’s disease is experiencing severe vertigo. Which instruction would the nurse give to the client to assist in controlling vertigo? A. Increase fluid intake to 3000 ml a day. B. Avoid sudden head movements. C. Lie still and watch the television. D. Increase sodium in the diet.
B
37
The nurse is reviewing the physician’s orders for a client with Meniere’s disease. Which diet will most likely be prescribed? A. Low-cholesterol diet B. Low-sodium diet C. Low-carbohydrate diet D. Low-fat diet
B
38
A client is diagnosed with a disorder involving the inner ear. Which of the following is the most common client complaint associated with a disorder in this part of the ear? A. Hearing loss B. Pruritus C. Tinnitus D. Burning of the ear
C
39
frontal lobe
judgement, personality, inhibition Dysfunction: no filter, expressive aphasia (broca), poor judgement, etc
40
Temporal Lobe
memory and sound, understanding of language Dysfunction: receptive aphasia (wernicke), memory and speech issues
41
Parietal Lobe
sensory, space analytics, spatial awareness Dysfunction: decreased/loss of sensations
42
Occipital Lobe
visual perception Dysfunction: irregular vision
43
Multiple Sclerosis: Signs/Symptoms
Motor:  Weakness to paralysis Muscle spasticity  Sensory:  numbness/tingling Partial blindness/blurred vision Decreased hearing Cerebellar: Nystagmus Dysphagia Ataxia Others: Fatigue bowel/bladder changes Sexual disturbances + Lhermitte's Sign Flex neck to chest, will have shocking sensation down spinal cord Symptoms decrease during pregnancy but during postpartum women are at greater risk for disease exacerbation.
44
Multiple Sclerosis: Diagnosis
No Definitive Diagnostic test History & Physical Clinical manifestations CSF analysis: Increased IgG Decreased evoked potential response CT & MRI: sclerotic plaque- vital 
45
Multiple Sclerosis: Treatment
NO CURE Decrease Inflammation: Prednisone and ACTH Decrease Autoimmune Attack: immunosuppressants, immunomodulators, monoclonal antibodies Symptom Management: muscle relaxants Surgery Avoid Triggers
46
Multiple Sclerosis: Nursing Care
Promote Independence Manage symptoms Optimal nutrition Prevent complications Help identify and avoid triggers Provide resources for mental health
47
Parkinson’s
Definition: chronic, progressive neurodegenerative disorder characterized by slowness in the initiation and execution of movement (bradykinesia/akinesia), increased muscle tone (rigidity), tremor at rest, and gait changes TRAP T: Tremor R: Rigidity A: Akinesia Postural Instability Cause: decrease in dopamine producing neurons in the substantia nigra
48
Parkinson’s: Signs/ Symptoms
EARLY:  Slight limp Slight tremor Decrease in arm swing LATE: Pill rolling Aggravated by stress Worse at rest Rigidity: resistance to passive movement through ROM Bradykinesia Stooped shoulders Masked expression Shuffling gait Drooling- aspiration Slow, monotonous, slurred speech Little, if any arm swing
49
Parkinson’s: Treatment
MEDS Levodopa/Carbidopa (Sinemet) Levodopa: chemical precursor of DA Carbidopa: prevents breakdown of levodopa before it reaches brain Dopamine Receptor Agonists (Requip, Mirapex): directly stimulate DA receptors Dopamine Agonists (Amantadine): Blocks NMDA-type glutamate receptors, increases dopamine release, and blocks dopamine reuptake SURGERY Deep brain stimulator 
50
Parkinson’s: Nursing Care 
Promote exercise Promote Self care Promote optimal speech Bowel regimen Nutrition Aspiration risk HOB elevated, sit upright Maintain body weight Fall risk Drooling Give atropine 1% solution -If they are in a soft recliner, they will have a harder time getting out. Protein at night and meds in the morning
51
Myasthenia Gravis
Definition: autoimmune disease of the neuromuscular junction marked by fluctuating weakness of certain skeletal muscle groups Antibodies attack ach receptors decreases the number of Ach receptors available Weakness increases with muscle use Thought to be started by viral infection
52
Myasthenia Gravis: Signs/Symptoms
Early muscle fatigue that gets better with rest Muscles affected: eyes, eyelids, chewing, swallowing, speaking, and breathing Muscle weakness is worse by the end if day Complications Aspiration Respiratory insufficiency Respiratory infection Hallmark: muscle weakness becomes worse with activity and better with rest
53
Myasthenia Gravis: Diagnosis
Eyelid droop  Tensilon test:  Electrically stimulate hand EMG shows muscle fatigue Tensilon is injected If muscle improves the patient is positive for MG
54
Myasthenia Gravis: Treatment
Medications Anticholinesterase (Pyridostigmine):  prolongs the action of ACh and improves impulse transmission at the neuromuscular junction Peaks 1 hour after give, schedule nutrition/activity accordingly Corticosteroids: suppress immune response Immunosuppressants: suppress immune  Plasmapheresis Removes plasma from blood to remove anti-ach receptor antibodies Short term benefits Used before surgery Used for crisis Surgery Removal of thymus gland Can also give IgG as well
55
Myasthenia Gravis: Nursing Care
Respiration precaution: educate about choking risk Optimal nutrition Small meals, easy to chew Thicken liquids Schedule meals with peak times of meds Optimal communication Self esteem
56
Dementia
An overarching name for a variety of disorders Alzheimer's is the most common form of dementia Other forms Vascular: infarcts from fatty plaques Mixed types Systemic Etc Symptoms Memory impairment Aphasia Lose short term memory, later lose long term memory
57
Alzheimer's
Multifactorial causes believed to be genetics and other factors (cardiovascular health, diabetes, head trauma, environment, abnormal brain proteins, etc) Characteristics High concentration of beta-amyloid plaques Neurofibrillary tangles seen on postmortem exam Cannot diagnose alzheimer's until postmortem exam
58
Alzheimer's: Diagnosis/Treatments/Nursing
Diagnosis by exclusion until time of autopsy Meds Cholinesterase inhibitors (memory) Serotonin reuptake inhibitors (depression) Antipsychotics (behavioral) Sleeping aids Nursing  Risk of injury Coping for patient and family Self esteem Self care Caregiver burden
59
ICP: the hydrostatic force measured in the brain CSF compartment The 3 components balance each other out to maintain ICP The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the 3 components must stay at a relatively constant volume within the closed skull structure. If the volume of any 1 of the 3 components increases within the cranial vault and the volume from another component is displaced, the total intracranial volume will not change. One thing has to be displaced ICP: 5-15
Intracranial Pressure
60
Increased ICP: Signs/Symptoms
Change in LOC Change in VS Watch for Cushing's Triad Bradycardia with bounding pulse Systolic HTN with widening pulse pressure Irregular respiratory pattern  Occular signs (doll eyes) Ipsilateral: same side as injury Contralateral: opposite side of injury Acidotic Decreased motor function Headache Vomiting  greater than 30 is herniation of brain stem
61
Increased ICP: Diagnosis & Treatment
CT & MRI NO lumbar puncture, because it would add to the pressure Treatment: tx underlying cause Meds: Osmotic diuretics (mannitol) redistributes the volume Corticosteroids (decadron)
62
Increased ICP: Nursing
HOB 30 degrees Maintain airway and oxygenation Avoid anything that would increase ICP (stimulation) Nutrition Monitor skin integrity Monitor for infection Dark environment, no tv, no music Do not cluster care, could be too much for patient, so monitor ICP while caring for patient Prevent increase intraabdominal pressure (laxatives, cough suppressants if needed)
63
Your patient has Parkinson’s Disease. What precautions should this patient be put on? Contact Isolation Falls Seizure Aspiration
C+E
64
Myasthenia gravis occurs when antibodies attack the __________ receptors at the neuromuscular junction leading to ____________. A. metabotropic; muscle weakness B. acetylcholine; muscle weakness C. dopaminergic adrenergic; muscle contraction D. nicotinic adrenergic; muscle contraction
B
65
A patient with myasthenia gravis will be eating lunch at 1200. It is now 1000 and the patient is scheduled to take Pyridostigmine. At what time should you administer this medication so the patient will have the maximum benefit of this medication? A. As soon as possible B. 1 hour after the patient has eaten (at 1300) C. 1 hour before the patient eats (at 1100) D. at 1200 right before the patient eats
C. pyridostigmine peaks one hour after given
66
The exact cause of Alzheimer’s disease is not fully understood. However, what two changes in the brain are found in a patient with this disease? Select all that apply: A. Destruction of the myelin sheath on the neuron B. Development of beta-amyloid plaques in between neurons C. Destruction of dopaminergic neurons D. Creation of neurofibrillary tangles within the neuron
B,D
67
The neurologist is conducting a Tensilon test at the bedside of a patient who is experiencing unexplained muscle weakness, double vision, difficulty breathing, and ptosis. Which findings after the administration of Tensilon would represent the patient has myasthenia gravis? The patient experiences worsening of the muscle weakness. The patient experiences wheezing along with facial flushing. The patient reports a tingling sensation in the eyelids and sudden ringing in the ears. The patient experiences improved muscle strength.
D
68
Which meal option would be the most appropriate for a patient with myasthenia gravis? A. Roasted potatoes and cubed steak B. Hamburger with baked fries C. Clam chowder with mashed potatoes D. Fresh veggie tray with sliced cheese cubes
C. Small meal easy to chew for fatigued muscles
69
During the evening hours you notice your patient with Moderate Alzheimer’s Disease (Middle Stage) begins to experience an increase in confusion, agitations, and hallucinations. What intervention below could the nurse implement to help decrease this occurrence? A. Provide the patient with coffee at bedtime B. Provide a relaxing and low noise environment in the evening C. Use stimulating distractions at night D. Limit patient’s contact with sunlight during the day
B
70
You’re a home health nurse providing care to a patient with myasthenia gravis. Today you plan on helping the patient with bathing and exercising. When would be the best time to visit the patient to help these tasks? A. Mid-afternoon B. Morning C. Evening D. Before bedtime
B they have the most energy in the morning
71
While cooking, your client couldn’t feel the temperature of a hot oven. Which lobe could be dysfunctional?  A. Frontal B. Occipital  C. Parietal D. Temporal
c
72
To encourage adequate nutritional intake for a female client with Alzheimer’s disease, the nurse should: A. Stay with the client and encourage him to eat. B. Help the client fill out his menu. C. Give the client privacy during meals. D. Fill out the menu for the client.
A
73
The nurse is assessing a 37-year-old client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to find?  A. Vision changes  B. Absent deep tendon reflexes  C. Tremors at rest  D. Flaccid muscles
Diplopia is a neurological symptom that can occur from ms
74
A male patient is having tonic-clonic seizures. What should the nurse do first?  A. Elevate the head of the bed.  B. Restrain the client’s arms and legs.  C. Place a tongue blade in the client’s mouth.  D. Take measures to prevent injury.
D
75
The nurse is caring for a client who begins to experience seizure activity while in bed. Which actions would the nurse take? Select all that apply.  A. Loosening restrictive clothing.  B. Restraining the client’s limbs.  C. Removing the pillow and raising padded side rails.  D. Positioning the client to the side, if possible, with the head flexed forward.  E. Keeping the curtain around the client and the room door open so that when help arrives, they can quickly enter to assist.
A,C,D
76
The nurse is teaching a client with myasthenia gravis about the prevention of myasthenic and cholinergic crises. Which client activity suggests that teaching is most effective? A. Taking medications as scheduled B. Eating large, well-balanced meals C. Doing muscle-strengthening exercises D. Doing all chores early in the day while less fatigued
A Patients with myasthenia gravis are taught to space out activities over the day to conserve energy and restore muscle strength. Taking medications correctly to maintain blood levels that are not too low or too high is important. Muscle-strengthening exercises are not helpful and can fatigue the client. Overeating is a cause of exacerbation of symptoms, as is exposure to heat, crowds, erratic sleep habits, and emotional stress.
77
The nurse is instructing a client with Parkinson’s disease about preventing falls. Which client statement reflects a need for further teaching? A. “I can sit down to put on my pants and shoes.” B. “I try to exercise every day and rest when I’m tired.” C. “My son removed all loose rugs from my bedroom.” D. “I don’t need to use my walker to get to the bathroom.”
D The patient with Parkinson’s disease would be instructed regarding safety measures in the home. The patient needs to use a walker as support to get to the bathroom because of bradykinesia. The patient would sit down to put on pants and shoes to prevent falling. The patient needs to exercise every day in the morning when energy levels are highest. The client needs to have all loose rugs in the home removed to prevent falling.
78
A patient with intracranial pressure monitoring has a pressure of 12 mm Hg. The nurse understands that this pressure reflects a. a severe decrease in cerebral perfusion pressure. b. an alteration in the production of cerebrospinal fluid. c. the loss of autoregulatory control of intracranial pressure. d. a normal balance among brain tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid.
D. Normal ICP is 5-15
79
A 5-year-old child arrives at the emergency department, and the child’s parents state that the child fell off a bunk bed. A head injury is suspected. The nurse checks the child’s airway status and assesses the child for early and late signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which is a late sign of increased ICP? a. Nausea b. Irritability c. Headache d. Bradycardia
D (CUSHINGS)
80
A nurse plans care for the patient with increased intracranial pressure with the knowledge that the best way to position the patient is to a. keep the head of the bed flat. b. elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees. c. maintain patient on the left side with the head supported on a pillow. d. use a continuous-rotation bed to continuously change patient position.
B
81
ICP & CPP
Intracranial Pressure (ICP): the hydrostatic force measured in the brain CSF compartment  Normal: 5-15 Cerebral Perfusion Pressure (CPP): the pressure needed to ensure blood flow to the brain Normal : 60-100 Calculation: MAP-ICP <30 is incompatible with life: risk for herniation 50 is a critical value CPP is vital to the brain because the brain does not store oxygen or glucose.. it requires a constant supply
82
Head Trauma: Basal Skull Fracture*
Signs/Symptoms Battle sign: postauricular ecchymosis Raccoon eyes: periorbital ecchymosis Fracture is associated with a tear in the dura, this leads to CSF leak (rhinorrhea, otorrhea) Assessment Evidence of break of fall Obtain VS, cross and match blood Halo sign: clear nasal drainage or drainage from ear: on a gauze, blood will pull to center with yellow surrounding it (evidence of CSF) Presence of glucose on Tes-tape reading Ask about antiplatelets meds (aspirin, warfarin, clopidogrel) Nursing Care If you see if happen: quickly apply direct pressure or ice to stop bleed Avoid NG tube** Fluids/blood
83
Head Trauma: Concussion
Definition: a sudden transient mechanical head injury with disruption of neural activity and a change in the LOC Sudden change in LOC with or without loss of consciousness Signs/Symptoms HA  Amnesia to the event Disruption in level of consciousness Post Concussion Syndrome Can develop 2 weeks to 2 months after injury S/S Personality changes Behavioral changes Decreased attention span Decreased ability to recall short term memory  Change in intellectual ability Assessment: Ask about headache Ask them to remember 3 words Count backwards from 100 to 75 Ask about the number of concussions the patient has had Patient has to be one week headache free to be cleared!
84
Head Trauma: Contusion/Lacerations
Contusion: bruising of the brain Can have a fracture, edema, necrosis at site Coup-contrecoup: After the head strikes the wall, a coup injury occurs as the brain strikes the skull (primary impact). The contrecoup injury (the second impact) occurs when the brain strikes the skull surface opposite the site of the original impact. Can have seizure post injury Lacerations: tearing of brain tissue  Causes bleeding which is very damaging to brain due to the pH of blood ask ABOUT ANTICOAGULANTS USE
85
Complications of Head Trauma
Epidural Hematoma: bleeding between dura and inner surface of the skull ARTERIAL BLEED—> Neuro Emergency: will need a craniotomy Hallmark sign: patient loses consciousness, wakes up, rapidly declines! Subdural Hematoma: bleeding between the dura mater and the arachnoid layer covering the brain Venous bleed: presents 24-48 hours after the injury is present. Sometimes can reabsorb itself Intracerebral bleeding: bleeding within the parenchyma
86
Head Trauma: Nursing Care
Get patient to CT to find out what is going on! Pain management No narcotics bc it can change the neuro exam Observe for fever Neuro Checks GCS  Pupil Response Monitor for sensory function Keep ICP down 
87
Ischemic Strokes
Thrombotic Stroke: clot forms because of vessel wall injury Embolic: embolus travels to cerebral artery d/t secondary issue such as afib (cardiac) Treatment: Aspirin TPA/Fibrinolytic therapy must be given within 3 to 4 hours of the onset of signs of ischemic stroke Cerebral angiography (funds tumor) Merci Retriever (removes clot) Most important thing we need to know is when symptoms start occuring What are some questions we need to ask before giving TPA?
88
Hemorrhagic Strokes
Intracerebral: bleeding within the brain caused by a rupture of a vessel HTN is most common cause Sudden onset of symptoms Subarachnoid hemorrhage: occurs when there is intracranial bleeding into the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)–filled space between the arachnoid and pia mater membranes on the surface of the brain Rupture of cerebral aneurysm “Worst HA of my life”  Risk for vasospasm Treatment:  Evacuate bleed Clip or coil aneurysm Ligate bleed Permissive HTN
89
Subarachnoid
After a subarachnoid repair, we allow HTN in order to prevent a vasospasm to occur This allows increased blood flow to cerebral tissue  HHH Therapy to prevent Vasospasm Hypertension Hypervolemia Hemodilution CCB IV (vasodilates)
90
Strokes: Symptoms
Sudden confusion Sudden difficulty understanding or speaking Sudden loss of vision out of one eye Sudden severe headache Sudden weakness of the face, arm, or leg, especially affecting one side of the body Warning Signs use: FAST Face drooping Arm weakness Speech difficulties Time Communication Broca’s: expressive aphasia Wernicke's: receptive aphasia Global: expressive and receptive aphasia
91
Stroke Care
Time is MONEY ABC’s! CT Stat If ischemic: tpa within 3-4.5 hours Meds: antiplatelet and anticoagulant if ischemic OT/PT/Speech Respiratory and cardiac monitoring Skin care BP control Nutrition Bowel/Bladder care  Appropriate environment temp and safety
92
Meningitis
Acute inflammation of the lining of the brain and spinal cord Manifestations Fever Severe headache Nuchal rigidity Photophobia  N/V if bacterial  Viral=Victory Clear CSF Bacterial=Bad → Medical Emergency!! Cloudy CSF
93
Meningitis: Diagnosis
Is suspected: Get blood culture and CT scan Diagnosis is verified by a Lumbar Puncture Lateral recumbent position  Seated forward AVOID if ICP is increased Make sure patient voids before
94
Trigeminal Neuralgia
Cranial Nerve 5: Trigeminal Symptoms: Sudden pain- knifelike often in lips, cheek, forehead Twitching, blinking Precipitates by cold/hot sensation, chewing, brushing teeth Can be unpredictable pain Treatment:  Mediation Tegretol: decreases during of nerve Surgery Nursing Stress management Total Nutritional Intake** Self image changes Monitor for med side effects
95
Bell’s Palsy
Definition: Acute, usually temporary, facial paresis (or palsy) resulting from damage or trauma of the facial nerve (CN VII) Usually affects one side but can affect both Etiology: unclear, maybe from herpes simplex virus Diagnostic: by exclusion Symptoms: Flaccid face on affected side with drooping mouth and drooling Unable to close eyelids with an upward movement of eyeball Flattening of nasolabial folds Unilateral loss of taste Decreased ability to chew Very painful
96
Bell’s Palsy: Nursing Management/Tx
Nursing: Gentle massages, moist heat Pain management Aspiration Precaution Corneal Abrasion risk Check in with patient for depression/body image Treatment Corticosteroids immediately Acyclovir if HSV is the cause
97
Guillain Barre Syndrome
Neurological illness characterized by ascending symmetrical paralysis Unknown etiology Characteristics: 1-3 weeks following a URI or GI infection Distal muscles begin to become weak and spreads up toward the diaphragm Paresthesia usually followed by paralysis Complications Respiratory infection or UTI Respiratory insufficiency DVT, paralytic ileus, PE malnutrition
98
Spinal Cord Injury: Degree
Complete: Total loss of motor and sensory below level of injury Incomplete Cord Lesion: some tracts are spread, so there is partial function restored Brown Sequard Syndrome**: damage to half of cord.   Contralateral (opposite side of injury): Loss of pain and temperature sensation below level of injury Ipsilateral (same side as injury): Loss of motor function, light touch, pressure, position, and vibratory sense
99
Spinal Cord Injury: Nursing Care
Pain management  Prevent UTI Prevent respiratory infection  Prevent contractures Nutrition! OT/PT Temperature and safety Family counseling Body Image/Self esteem Autonomic Dysreflexia: A massive, uncompensated cardiovascular reaction mediated by the SNS Elevate HOB 45 degrees and determine cause Most common cause is bladder irritation→immediate catherization
100
Tetanus
Severe infection of the nervous system affecting spinal and cranial nerves Usually from skin wound contaminated with Clostridium tetani (found in soil) Produces neurotoxin in body that causes tonic muscle spasms Fever, stiffness in jaw and neck that progresses throughout body Adults should receive a tetanus q 10 years
101
The nurse is assigned to care for an 8-year-old child with a diagnosis of a basilar skull fracture. The nurse reviews the pediatrician’s prescriptions and would contact the pediatrician to question which prescription? A. Obtain daily weight. B. Provide clear liquid intake. C. Nasotracheal suction as needed. D. Maintain a patent intravenous line.
C- no NG tube for basilar skull fracture!!
102
The nurse is reviewing the record of a child with increased intracranial pressure from a head injury and notes that the child has exhibited signs of decerebrate posturing. On assessment of the child, the nurse expects to note which characteristic of this type of posturing? A. Flaccid paralysis of all extremities B. Adduction of the arms at the shoulders C. Rigid extension and pronation of the arms and legs D. Abnormal flexion of the upper extremities and extension and adduction of the lower extremities
C Decerabate posturing is characterized by the rigid extension and pronation of the arms and leg
103
You have a patient who has recently fell off his skateboard at a skatepark. He has suffered a head laceration. Which of the following will tell you about the neuro status of the patient? Select all that apply a. Temperature b. Respirations c. GCS d. Pupil reaction  e. HR f. Heart rhythm
c,d
104
Which patient would be a priority patient? Patient that got hit in the head during a basketball game. Pt complains of HA, brief loss of consciousness Patient fell while running. Patient has profuse bleeding of the scalp Patient got in car accident. Loss consciousness at the scene, regained consciousness in EMS ride, is now unresponsive Patient with a GCS of 13 who came in with shortness of breath
C. hallmark of epidural hematoma. MEdical Emergency What does this patient need? Craniotomy
105
A 78-year-old client is admitted to the emergency department with numbness and weakness of the left arm and slurred speech. Which nursing intervention is a priority? A. Prepare to administer recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (rt-PA).  B. Discuss the precipitating factors that caused the symptoms. C. Schedule for A STAT computer tomography (CT) scan of the head. D. Notify the speech pathologist for an emergency consultation.
C. A CT scan will determine if the client is having a stroke or has a brain tumor or another neurological disorder
106
A patient arrives in the emergency department with an ischemic stroke and receives tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) administration. Which is the priority nursing assessment?  A. Time of onset of current stroke B. Complete physical and history C. Current medications D. Upcoming surgical procedures
A
107
What is the expected outcome of thrombolytic drug therapy? A. Increased vascular permeability B. Vasoconstriction C. Dissolved emboli D. Prevention of hemorrhage
C
108
A pt admitted to the hospital with a subarachnoid hemorrhage has complaints of severe headache, nuchal rigidity, and projectile vomiting. The nurse knows lumbar puncture (LP) would be contraindicated in this client in which of the following circumstances?  A. Vomiting continues.  B. Intracranial pressure (ICP) is increased.  C. The client needs mechanical ventilation.  D. Blood is anticipated in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
B
109
Which of the following values is considered normal for ICP? A. 5 to 15 mm Hg B. 25 mm Hg C. 35 to 45 mm Hg D. 120/80 mm Hg
A
110
Which of the following signs and symptoms of increased ICP after head trauma would appear first? A. Bradycardia B. Large amounts of very dilute urine C. Restlessness and confusion D. Widened pulse pressure
C
111
The client is having a lumbar puncture performed. The nurse would plan to place the client in which position for the procedure?  A. Side-lying, with legs pulled up and head bent down onto the chest.  B. Side-lying, with a pillow under the hip.  C. Prone, in a slight Trendelenburg’s position.  D. Prone, with a pillow under the abdomen.
A
112
During the acute stage of meningitis, a 3-year-old child is restless and irritable. Which of the following would be most appropriate to institute?  A. Limiting conversation with the child.  B. Allowing the child to play in the bathtub.  C. Keeping extraneous noise to a minimum.  D. Performing treatments quickly.
C
113
After striking his head on a tree while falling from a ladder, a young man age 18 is admitted to the emergency department. He’s unconscious and his pupils are nonreactive. Which intervention would be the most dangerous for the client?  A. Give him a barbiturate.  B. Place him on mechanical ventilation.  C. Perform a lumbar puncture.  D. Elevate the head of his bed.
C. Pt most likely has increased ICP
114
A female client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. The nurse inquires during the nursing admission interview if the client has a history of:  A. Seizures or trauma to the brain.  B. Meningitis during the last five (5 years).  C. Back injury or trauma to the spinal cord.  D. Respiratory or gastrointestinal infection during the previous month.
D
115
A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome has ascending paralysis and is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation. Which strategy would the nurse incorporate in the plan of care to help the client cope with this illness? A. Giving client full control over care decisions and restricting visitors B. Providing positive feedback and encouraging active range of motion C. Providing information, giving positive feedback, and encouraging relaxation D. Providing intravenously administered sedatives, reducing distractions, and limiting visitors
C The client with Guillain-Barré syndrome experiences fear and anxiety from the ascending paralysis and sudden onset of the disorder. The nurse can alleviate these fears by providing accurate information about the client’s condition, giving expert care and positive feedback to the client, and encouraging relaxation and distraction. The family can become involved with selected care activities and provide diversion for the client as well.
116
A client has clear fluid leaking from the nose following a basilar skull fracture. Which finding would alert the nurse that cerebrospinal fluid is present? A. Fluid is clear and tests negative for glucose. B Fluid is grossly bloody in appearance and has a pH of 6. C Fluid clumps together on the dressing and has a pH of 7. D Fluid separates into concentric rings and tests positive for glucose.
D
117
The nurse has given suggestions to a client with trigeminal neuralgia about strategies to minimize episodes of pain. The nurse determines that the client needs further teaching if the client makes which statement? A. “I will wash my face with cotton pads.” B. “I’ll have to start chewing on my unaffected side.” C. “I should rinse my mouth if toothbrushing is painful.” D. “I’ll try to eat my food either very warm or very cold.”
D
118
The nurse is assigned to care for a client with complete right-sided hemiparesis from a stroke (brain attack). Which characteristics are associated with this condition? Select all that apply.  A. The client is aphasic.  B. The client has weakness on the right side of the body.  C. The client has complete bilateral paralysis of the arms and legs.  D. The client has weakness on the right side of the face and tongue.  E. The client has lost the ability to move the right arm but is able to walk independently.  F. The client has lost the ability to ambulate independently but is able to feed and bathe self without assistance.
ABD Hemiparesis is a weakness of one side of the body that may occur after a stroke. It involves weakness of the face and tongue, arm, and leg on one side. These clients are also aphasic, unable to discriminate words and letters. They are generally very cautious and get anxious when attempting a new task. Complete bilateral paralysis does not occur in hemiparesis. The client with right-sided hemiparesis has weakness of the right arm and leg and needs assistance with feeding, bathing, and ambulating.
119
The nurse is admitting a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome to the nursing unit. The client has complaints of inability to move both legs and reports a tingling sensation above the waistline. Knowing the complications of the disorder, the nurse would bring which most essential items into the client’s room? A. Nebulizer and pulse oximeter B. Blood pressure cuff and flashlight C. Nasal cannula and incentive spirometer D. Electrocardiographic monitoring electrodes and intubation tray
D
120
Which rationale supports the nursing intervention to turn the patient with paraplegia every 1-2 hours a. To maintain patient comfort b. To prevent development of pressure injuries c. To prevent flexion contractures of the extremeties d. To improve venous circulation in the lower extremeties 
B
121
Normal Physical Assessment- SATA
Visual Acuity 20/20. No diplopia (double vision) External eye structures symmetric and without lesions or deformities Lacrimal apparatus non-tender without lesions or deformities Conjunctiva clear; sclera white PERRLA Lens Clear Optic disc margins sharp Retinal vessels without AV nicking, with no hemorrhages or spots Extraocular muscles Intact