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Eye > eye > Flashcards

eye Flashcards

1
Q

Astigmatism

A

Cornea is shaped like a football vs a softball. Have trouble seeing close and far away

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2
Q

Cylinder

A

Ex: -1.00, 0.75 indicates the amount of lens power for astigmatisms. If nothing appears, then you have no astigmatism

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3
Q

Out of Network Plans

A

10% discount on materials (frames and lenses), and contacts. Do not discount Wiley X or Costa products. Always Vision, Davis, UHC Vision, and VSP

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4
Q

Cash patients

A

10% off all lens options (not frame) do not discount wiley X or Costa products

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5
Q

Esotropia

A

tropia test= measuring one eye at a time

eso starts in and moves outward

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6
Q

Hypertropia

A

Tropia= measured one eye at a time (UTC- unilateral cover test)

eye starts down and moves upward

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7
Q

Hypotropia

A

Tropia is measure one eye at a time (UCT= unilateral cover test)

Starts up and moves down

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8
Q

The Family clinic of Crowley

A

Dr. Karrie Kilgore and Dr. Paul string fellow -Odd Fellows

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9
Q

Acadiana Family Medical Associates

A

Rayne, LA Mark Dawson, MD Tom Curtis, MD Neal Duhon, MD Marin Dawson, DO Danielle Duhon, MD

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10
Q

Pred Forte

A

Steroid- inflammation

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11
Q

Lotemax

A

Steroid- Redness, itching and watering from allergies, infection, herpes, and eye surgery

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12
Q

Alrex

A

Steroid- Redness, itching and watering from allergies, infection, herpes, and eye surgery.

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13
Q

Travatan

A

Glaucoma Rx- reduce pressure inside eye; increases the drainage of the fluid

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14
Q

Latanoprost

A

Glaucoma Rx- Reduce pressure inside eye; increases the drainage of the fluid

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15
Q

Simbrinza

A

Glaucoma Rx- decreases production of fluid inside eye

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16
Q

Cosopt

A

Glaucoma Rx- decreases production of fluid inside eye

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17
Q

Tobradex

A

Combination Antibiotic and steroid- used for treatment of inflammatory eye conditions where bacteria eye infection or risks of bacterial eye infection exists.

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18
Q

Moxeza

A

Antibiotic- treat pink eye, etc

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19
Q

Besivance

A

Antibiotic- treat pink eye, etc

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20
Q

Lastacaft

A

Allergy Rx- Prevent itching caused by pink eye

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21
Q

Zaditor

A

Allergy Rc- OTC

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22
Q

Macular degeneration

A

Deterioration of the central retina; causes black or blurry spot in the middle of vision. When the cells of the macula deteriorate, images are not received correctly.

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23
Q

Dry macular degeneration

A

85-95% of all cases. Atrophic type- Waste away, due to degeneration of cells

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24
Q

Wet Macular degeneration

A

10-15% Exudative type. Fluid Emitting through pours or a wound.

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25
Q

Axis

A

-Where the vision is blurred from 1 degree- 180 degrees. -Lens meridian that contains no cylinder power to correct astigmatism. -90 corresponds to vertical meridian of the eye -180 corresponds to horizontal meridian -If there is cylinder power, it myst include axis

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26
Q

Sphere

A

ex: +0.75= amount of lens power measured in diopters (d), prescribed to correct near sighted or farsightedness -, if you are near sighted + if you are farsighted

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27
Q

Keratometry

A

The sphere of the cornea

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28
Q

PO

A

medication taken by mouth

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29
Q

Diabetic retinopathy

A

High Blood sugar levels cause damage to blood vessels in the retina. These blood vessels can swell and leak, or they can close, stopping blood from passing though

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30
Q

Glaucoma

A

Disease that damages your eye’s optic nerve. Happens when fluids build up in the front part of your eye. That extra fluid increases the pressure in your eye, damaging optic nerve.

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31
Q

Retina

A

sensitive to light and trigger nerve impulses that pass via the optic nerve to the brain. The retina absorbs light and transmits vision (like film in a camera)

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32
Q

Cataracts

A

(posterior) clouding of the normally clear lens of the eye. Symptoms: Blurry vision, looking though a frosty or fogged up window.

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33
Q

Autorefraction

A

Approximation of a patients prescription. It also tells us the shape of the cornea, so that we can know what kind of contact lens shape to choose for a patients

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34
Q

BID

A

twice daily

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35
Q

Cylinder

A

-Depends if you have an astigmatism whether you have the #s or not -Astigmatism= football (the cyl#= degree shaped like football) -If you have an astigmatism, you’ll also have an axis

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36
Q

Macula

A

Yellow oval shaped pigmented area near the center of the retina of the eye -Allows a person central vision

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37
Q

Emmetropia

A

No prescription; sees well

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38
Q

PRM

A

take as needed…. dryness, pain, etc.

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39
Q

Comprehensive encounter

A

Full exam, no contaxts

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40
Q

Anti-glare coating

A

applied to front and backsurface of lens to reduce scratches, glare, and make lenses disappear in frame. *applied to inner surface of sunglasses to block glare -A/R coatings

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41
Q

Polarization

A

Built into lens to block horizontal rays off road and water. Great for fishermen, outdoors men, truck driveres; not necessary for sports.

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42
Q

Xtractive transitions.

A

Slight tint inside; very dark outside; works a little behind windhsield

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43
Q

Vantage transitions

A

polarized when it gets dark outside; does not work behind windshield

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44
Q

Gradient tint

A

Color gets lighter ad you move down lenses. Cant be polarized

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45
Q

What blood pressure is considered prehypertension?

A

120-139 / 80-89

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46
Q

What amount of blood pressure is considered hypertension stage 1?

A

Stage 1: 140-159 / 80-99

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47
Q

What amount of blood pressure is considered hypertension stage 2?

A

Stage 2: greater than or equal to 160 / greater than or equal to 100

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48
Q

Convergence

A

Where both eyes point to the same object at the same time when looking up close at an object

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49
Q

Cornea

A

Transparent front surface of the eye that covers the iris, pupil, and anterior chamber. -Contributes to the image- forming process by refracting light entering the eye

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50
Q

Arcus is

A

Ring around the periphery of cornea caused by high cholesterol- lipid buildup that concentrates in limbus area of cornea

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51
Q

SPK (superficial punctate) Kertitis is

A

Surface irriation. Irritation of the cornea caused by a number of things. Most common complaint: dry eye; CL overwear

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52
Q

Iris is the

A

Pigmented muscle that lies between the cornea and the lens of eye; it acts as a disphragm to widen or narrow the opening called the pupil, therby controlling the amount of light that enters the eye

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53
Q

Pupil is the

A

The opening within the iris through which light passes before reaching the lens and brings light into the retina

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54
Q

Bulbar Conjunctiva is

A

Clear membrane covering the outer portion (Sclera) of the eyeball. It protects the eye.- contains blood vessels seen on the white part of eye.

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55
Q

Sclera

A

White part of eye

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56
Q

Hyperemia

A

Red eyes (usually inflammed)

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57
Q

Subconjuntional Hemorrhage

A

Ruptured blood vessel that causes blood to be trapped between sclera and bulbar conjunction

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58
Q

Palpebral Conjuntiva

A

Part of the conjunctiva that forms the underside of the lids

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59
Q

Papillae is

A

Polygonal “Cobblestone” conjuntivial projections with a central network of fine branching vessels (located on the palpebral conjunctive)- Present in patients with allergic conjunctive

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60
Q

Crystalline lens

A

Positioned behind the iris and is transparent and elastic- it refracts light entering the pupil and focuses of the retina.

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61
Q

Posterior capsular opacification

A

Clouding of the normally clear posterior lens capsule after cataract surgery *Patients need YAG capsulotomy to bust open the capsule to remove haze over vision.

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62
Q

Amblyopia

A

When the visual pathway has been damaged and one eye does not see well due to high Rx or (lazy eye) eye turn

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63
Q

Adnexa

A

The adnexa of the eye are a group of appendages in the eye area that primarily protects the organ.

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64
Q

Canalicular stenosis

A

Canalicular stenosis and obstruction related to punctual plugs is associated with accumulation of debris, including inflammatory reactions resulting in scar formation along with injury to canaliculus by the act of probing itself, prior to plug insertion.

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65
Q

Canaliculi

A

The canaliculi are segments of the tear duct system that connect the puncta to the lacrimal sac and remaining nasalacrimal duct.

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66
Q

Constitution

A
  1. the make-up or functional habit of the body, determined by the genetic, biochemical, and physiologic endowment of the individual, and modified in great measure by environmental factors.
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67
Q

ENT

A

Ears, Nose and Throat

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68
Q

Neuro

A

Neurological- affacting or relating to the nervous system.

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69
Q

Psychiatric

A

mental illness, emotional disturbance, and abnormal behavior.

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70
Q

cardiovasc

A

Cardiovascular- heart and blood vessels

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71
Q

Respiratory

A

a system of organs functioning in respiration and consisting especially of the nose, nasal passages, nasopharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs

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72
Q

GI

A

Gastrointestinal

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73
Q

GU

A

Genitourinary- relating to the genital and urinary organs.

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74
Q

Musc/skel

A

Muscolorskeletal

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75
Q

Integ

A

Integumentary- Outler layer of body

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76
Q

Endo

A

Endocrine- deseases associated with hormones

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77
Q

Hem/Lymph

A

Hemotologic/Lymphatic/ Hemotologic= blood. Lymphatic= lymphs

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78
Q

Allergy/Imm

A

Allergic/Immune

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79
Q

Patching

A

Patching is a technique for treating amblyopia (lazy eye). The good eye is covered to encourage the development of the lazy eye. Amblyopia can be caused by unequal refractive errors, crossed eyes, misaligned eyes (strabismus), or other abnormalities

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80
Q

Strabismus

A

Poor eye muscle control

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81
Q

Amblyopia

A

“lazy Eye” Amblyopia is the medical term used when the vision in one of the eyes is reduced because the eye and the brain are not working together properly.

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82
Q

Retinal degeneration/ hole/ detatchment

A
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83
Q

Retinal degeneration

A

deteriation of the retinal cells

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84
Q

Keratoconus

A

Keratoconus is a progressive eye disease in which the normally round cornea thins and begins to bulge into a cone-like shape

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85
Q

Nystagmus

A

Nystagmus is a vision condition in which the eyes make repetitive, uncontrolled movements.

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86
Q

Visual Acuity

A

Test done with TV to get prescription. Aided with glasses. Uncorrected without glasses

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87
Q

EOM

A

“H” test

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88
Q

NPC

A

Near Point Convergence test. test to see how far pt. can see before image gets blurry or splits into two.

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89
Q

Cover test

A

Checking for any abnomral movement. Check near and far.

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90
Q

Pupils test

A

Using light to check pupil response to light. get mm for DIM and BRIGHT.

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91
Q

Confronation/Automated

A

putting numbers to the side. making patient look without moving eyes.

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92
Q

How many centimeters in an Inch?

A

2.54

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93
Q

8 inches = about how many cm?

A

about 20 cm

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94
Q

Adnexa

A

The adnexa of the eye are a group of appendages in the eye area that primarily protects the organ.

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95
Q

Canalicular Stenosis

A

(Adnexa) Punctal stenosis results in a narrowing in the opening of the tear duct system which is referred to as the puncta

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96
Q

Xanthelasma

A

(Adnexa) Xanthelasma is a sharply demarcated yellowish deposit of cholesterol underneath the skin, usually on or around the eyelids.

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97
Q

Blepharochalasis

A

(adnexa) Blepharochalasis is an inflammation of the eyelid that is characterized by exacerbations and remissions of eyelid edema, which results in a stretching and subsequent atrophy of the eyelid tissue, leading to the formation of redundant folds over the lid margins.

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98
Q

Dermatochalasis

A

(Adnexa) Dermatochalasis is a medical condition, defined as an excess of skin in the upper or lower eyelid, also known as “baggy eyes.”

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99
Q

Papilloma

A

(Adnexa) A papilloma is a benign epithelial tumor growing exophytically in nipple-like and often finger-like fronds

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100
Q

Skin Tag

A

(Adnexa)

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101
Q

Blepharitis Ulcerative

A

(adnexa) inflammation of glands and lash follicle on lid.

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102
Q

Ptosis

A

(adnexa) Ptosis is a drooping or falling of the upper eyelid.

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103
Q

Chemosis

A

(adnexa) Chemosis is the swelling of the conjunctiva. It is due to the oozing of exudate from abnormally permeable capillaries. In general, chemosis is a nonspecific sign of eye irritation. T

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104
Q

Ecchymosis

A

(adnexa) Raccoon eye sign or blepharohematoma refers to periorbital ecchymosis which is usually due to trauma on the frontal area of the skull, leading to rupture of the veins of anterior cranial fossa.

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105
Q

Fist Number on Glasses

A

Lens Diameter

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106
Q

Second Number on Glasses

A

DBL= distance between lens

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107
Q

Third number on glasses

A

Temple length

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108
Q

ectropion

A

Adnexa

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109
Q

Punctal Stenosis

A

adnexa

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110
Q

Squamous Blepharitis

A

Adnexa

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111
Q

Trichiasis

A

Adnexa

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112
Q

Poliosis

A

Adnexa

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113
Q

Madarosis

A

adnexa

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114
Q

Scurfs

A

Adnexa

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115
Q

Hordeolum

A

adnexa

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116
Q

Chalazion

A

Andexa

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117
Q

Meibomiantisis

A

Adnexa

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118
Q

Foreign body

A

Adnexa

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119
Q

Tarsorrhaphy

A

Adnexa

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120
Q

Xanthelasma

A

Adnexa

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121
Q

Blepharochalasis

A

Adnexa

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122
Q

Dermatchalasis

A

Adnexa

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123
Q

Ulcerative Blepharitis

A

Adnexa

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124
Q

SVP

A

Spontaneous Venous Pulsations

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125
Q

Conjunctival Cyst

A

Bulbar Conj

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126
Q

Conjunctival Cyst

A

Bulbar Conj

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127
Q

PCIOL

A

Posterior chamber Intraocular lens (lens implanted after cataract sugrery)

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128
Q

ACIOL

A

Anterior chamber intraocular lens (lens implanted after cataract surgery)

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129
Q

Anterior Polar Cataract

A

Small white dots in center of anterior lens capsule

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130
Q

Papillae

A

Palp Conj

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131
Q

Pinguecula Nasal

A

Bulb. Conj

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132
Q

Myopic prescriptions

A

(minus or near sighterd) will be thicker at the EDGES than the center.

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133
Q

Hyperopic prescription

A

farsighted or plus Rx will be thicker in the CENTER. thin or rimless frams may not be suitable for these lenses because the edge is the thinnest portion and cannot always be securely fitted into frame.

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134
Q

what kind of frame would you use for a high Rx?

A

plastic so that the lens stay more secure into frame.

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135
Q

what kind of frame for bifocal?

A

a larger lens depth so that they have more room for readign and distance.

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136
Q

How should eye sit in frame?

A

eyes should sit at the horizontal center of the lens and vertically in the top third.

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137
Q

How should eyes NOT sit in frame?

A

too nasally or too temportal

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138
Q

why do glasses need to fit right?

A

1) so that they are not always sliding and falling off your face.
2) eyes need to be centered according to you prescription. lens is either thicker or slimmer in the middle.

to stay in place, your frame needs something to hold onto. too wide, and there will be no grip on your temple; the frame will sit heavy on your nose and leave a mark. If the frame is too wide and you have a lower nose bridge, the frame will constantly slop out of place. Too narrow and the temples will pinch the side of your face and leave painful red marks.

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139
Q

Anti glare coatings

A

coating is applied to back and front of lenses. AR coating makes your lenses nearly invisible so people can focus on your eyes, not distrcting reflections from your eyeglasses.

Clear vision and longer lens live.

fingerprint resistant, increases clarity, scratch resistance and glare resistant.

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140
Q

polycarbonate material

A

thinner and lighter, UV protection, 10x more impact resistant than plastic or glass lenses.

10% thinner than trivex.

great for childeren because they are flexible and durable.

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141
Q

Trivex material

A

10% lighter than poly. thinner and lighter, UV protection, 10x more impact resistance than platic or glass.

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142
Q

Follicles

A

Palp. Conj

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143
Q

Papillae

A

Palp. Conj

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144
Q

GPC (Giant papillary conjunctivitis)

A

Palp. Conj.

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145
Q

CLPC (contact lens papillary conjunctivitis)

A

palp. conj

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146
Q

Injection

A

Palp. Conj injection

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147
Q

Foreign Body

A

Palp. Conj

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148
Q

Chemosis

A

Palp. Conj

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149
Q

concretions

A
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150
Q

Trichiasis

A
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151
Q

Scleritis

A
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152
Q

scleral atrophy

A

sclera

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153
Q

Episcleritis (simple or nodular)

A

Episclera

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154
Q

injection bulb conj

A
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155
Q

Foreign Body- superficial (on the surface or shallow. As opposed to deep.)

A
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156
Q

Chemosis

A

bulbar conj

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157
Q

Conjuntival redundancy

A
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158
Q

conjunctival cysts

A

bulbar conj

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159
Q

phlyctenule

A

bulbar conj

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160
Q

subconjunctival hemorrhage

A

bulb conj

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161
Q

Petechial Hemorrage

A

bulbar conj

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162
Q

Laceration

A

bulb conj

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163
Q

ptergium

A

cornea

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164
Q

Epithelial Abrasion

A

Cornea

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165
Q

Epithelial Ulceration

A

Cornea

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166
Q

Epithelial Laceration

A

Cornea

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167
Q

SPK (Super Punctate Keratitis)

A
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168
Q

Epithelial Basement Membrane Dystrophy

A

cornea

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169
Q

LASIK

A

Cornea

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170
Q

DLK (Diffuse lamellar keratitis)

A

Cornea

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171
Q

LASIK debris or Lasik epithelial ingrowth

A

Cornea

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172
Q

LASIK Haze

A

Cornea

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173
Q

PRK (photorefractive keratectomy) (another laser sugery) clear

A

Cornea

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174
Q

PRK Haze

A

cornea

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175
Q

RK (Radial Keratotomy) cut

A

Cornea

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176
Q

Ak (Astigmatic Keratotomy) (eye surgery)

A

Cornea

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177
Q

suberpithelial infitrate

A

Cornea

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178
Q

Neovascularization

A

Cornea

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179
Q

Anterior Stormal Scar

A

Cornea

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180
Q

Arcus Senilis

A

Cornea

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181
Q

Stromal Haze

A

Cornea

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182
Q

Lattice Stormal Dystrophy

A

Cornea

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183
Q

Granular Stormal Dystrophy

A
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184
Q

Macular Stormal Dystrophy

A

Cornea

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185
Q

Band Keratopathy

A

Cornea

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186
Q

Stormal Infiltrate

A

Cornea

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187
Q

Descemets’ folds

A

Cornea

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188
Q

Endothelial Guttata

A

Cornea

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189
Q

Endothelial pigmentation

A

Cornea

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190
Q

Endothelial KP

A

Cornea

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191
Q

Bullous Keratopathy

A

Cornea

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192
Q

Keratoconus

A

Cornea

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193
Q

Foreign body

A

Cornea

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194
Q

Scar

A

cornea

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195
Q

Limbal epithelial Hypertrophy

A

cornea

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196
Q

neovascularization

A

Cornea

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197
Q

Cells

A

a/c (anterior chamber)

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198
Q

Flare

A

A/C (anterior chamber)

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199
Q

Hypopyon

A

Cornea

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200
Q

Hyphema

A

Cornea

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201
Q

Anterior Synechiae

A

A/C anterior chamber

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202
Q

Nevus (freckle)

A

Iris

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203
Q

neovascularization

A

IRis

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204
Q

Iridoplegia

A

Iris

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205
Q

Posterior Synechia

A

Iris

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206
Q

Nodules

A

Iris

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207
Q

Plateau

A

iris

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208
Q

Retoillumination

A

Iris

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209
Q

Peripheral Iridetomy

A

Iris

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210
Q

Rubeosis

A

Iris

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211
Q

PCIOL (Posterior Chamber Intraocular Lens)

A

Lens

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212
Q

ACIOL (Anterior chamber intraocular lens)

A

Lens

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213
Q

iris suspended iOl(intra ocular lens)

A

Lens

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214
Q

Posterior Capsule

A

Lens

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215
Q

S/P capsulotomy

A

lens

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216
Q

Anterior Capsule Opacification

A

Lens

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217
Q

cataract- Anterior vacuole, cortical, polar, subcspaular, Sclerosis,

A

lens

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218
Q

posterior synechiae

A

lens

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219
Q

Subluxation

A

Lens

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220
Q

Aphakia

A

Lens

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221
Q

Mittendorf Dot

A

Lens

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222
Q

RPE (retinap pigment epithelium) Dispersion

A

Macula

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223
Q

Drusen

A

Macula

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224
Q

SRNV (subertinal neovascularization)

A

Macula

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225
Q

DME (diabetic macular Edema)

A

Macula

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226
Q

CME (Cystoid macular edema)

A

Macula

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227
Q

Epiretinal Membrane

A

Macula

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228
Q

Macular Gliosis

A

Macula

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229
Q

Macular hole- Pseudo, Partial, or full

A

Macula

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230
Q

Macular Scar

A

Macula

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231
Q

Choroidal Nevus (freckle)

A

Post-pole

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232
Q

Intraretinal Hemorrage

A

post-pole

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233
Q

Preretinal Hemorrage

A

Post-pole

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234
Q

Exudate

A

Post-pole

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235
Q

Cotton Wool Spot

A

Post-Pole

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236
Q

IRMA (Intraretinal Microvascular Abnormality)

A

Post-Pole

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237
Q

BRAO (Branch retinal artery occlusion)

A

post-pole

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238
Q

CRAO (Central retinal artery occlusio)

A

Post-Pole

239
Q

BRVO ( branch retinal vein occlusion)

A

Post-pole

240
Q

(CRVO) Central retinal vein occlusion

A

Post-Pole

241
Q

laser scars

A

Post-pole

242
Q

POHS (Presumed ocular histoplasmosis syndrome)

A

Post-Pole

243
Q

Hole/Break

A

Periphery

244
Q

Tear

A

Periphery

245
Q

Detachment

A

Periphery

246
Q

Retinoblastorna (cancer of the eye)

A

periphery

247
Q

Choroidal Nevus

A

Periphery (or Post-pole)

248
Q

Scleral Buckle

A

Periphery

249
Q

Cryo Scars

A

Periphery

250
Q

Laser Scar

A

Periphery (or Post-pole)

251
Q

Retinoschisis

A

Periphery

252
Q

Congenital Hypertrophy of the Retinal Pigment Epithelium

A

Periphery

253
Q

Reticular RPE ( Retinal Pigment Epithelium) Hyperplasia

A

Periphery

254
Q

Pave-Stone-Peripheral

A

Periphery

255
Q

Lattice Degeneration- Peripheral

A

Periphery

256
Q

White without pressure

A

Periphery

257
Q

vitreoretinal tuft

A

Periphery

258
Q

Operculated Retinal Hole

A

Periphery

259
Q

Floaters

A

Vitreous

260
Q

Asteroid Hyalosis

A

Vitreous

261
Q

Syneresis

A

Vitreous

262
Q

PVD (posterior vitreous detatchment)

A

Vitreous

263
Q

Persistent Hyaloid Artery

A

Vitreous

264
Q

Vitritis

A

Vitrous

265
Q

Pigment dusting

A

Vitrous

266
Q

Vitreous Hemorrage

A

Vitreous

267
Q

Mild non-proliferative

Moderate non-proliferative

Severe non-proliferative

Non-proliferative

Pre-prolierative

Preliferative

A

Diabetic Ret Grid

268
Q

Steriod

A

Pred Forte

Lotemax

Alrex

269
Q

Glaucoma Rx

A

Travatan

latanaprost (la-tana-prost)

simbrinza

cospot

270
Q

Antibiotics

A

Moxeza (moxifloxacin)

Besivance

271
Q

Allergy Rx

A

Lastacaft

Zaditor

272
Q

antibiotic and steroid

A

Tobradex (to=two)

273
Q

A mydriatic drop is used to

A

dilate the pupil

274
Q

Each eye has how many muscles to assist in ocular excursions

A

six

275
Q

contact lenses with a high water content contain

A

55% or greater water content

276
Q

Inflammation of the eyelids is called

A

conjunctivitis

277
Q

The ability of the eye to focus objects at varying distances is known as

A

accommodation

278
Q

What is the point of the pinhole test?

A

the pinhole eliminates the peripheral light rays, so if the decreased vision is due to refractive error, the patient will have improved vision.

279
Q

What is the point of the Amsler Grid?

A

to document and detect vision changes that affect the central vision field, such as macular degeneration.

280
Q

EOM (Ocular Motality)

A

this test evaluates the muscles that move the eye in the various directions of gaze. any limitation should be documented for the doctor.

  • Horizontally Left
  • up and left
  • up and right
  • Horizontally right
  • Down and right
  • down
  • down and left
281
Q

Confrontation Visual Field

A

Look at my nose and try to tell me how many fingers I am holding up.

-Test all four quadrants and any restrictions should be listed in the chart.

282
Q

Pupils test

A

a normal test has both eyes contricting normally when the light is swung from one eye to the other. An abnormal test will show one eye constricting when the light is introduced, and when the light is swung to the other eye, the pupil dilates. This phenomemnon is known as an afferent pupillary defect and should be documented in the patients chart.

283
Q

Who does online referrals instead of faxing

A

Dr. Swan and Aertker

284
Q

When taking photos, Macula is

A

Central

285
Q

When taking photoes, Nerve is

A

Optic disk

286
Q

How to save Photos on Rev

A
  • Create medical order
  • 659003 flash
  • save
  • go back into order and upload
287
Q

Temp sloping

A

NR Rim

(neuroretinal rim)

288
Q

glaucomatous undercutting

A

NR Rim (Neuroretinal Rim)

289
Q

Optic Disk Drusen

A

NR Rim (Neuroretinal Rim)

290
Q

Optic Atrophy

A

RN Rim

  • a condition that affects the optic nerve, which carries impulses from the eye to the brain
291
Q

Papilledema

A

RN Rim

-a condition in which increased pressure in or around the brain causes pat of the optic nerve inside the eye to swell

292
Q

Pseudopapilledema

A

NR Rim

-Disc edema secondary to increased intracranial pressure

293
Q

Distinct 360

A

Margins

294
Q

Inferior Indistinct

A

Margins

295
Q

Superior Indistinct

A

Margins

296
Q

Nasal Indistinct

A

Margins

297
Q

Tempeoral Indistinct

A

Margins

298
Q

Peripapillary Atrophy

A

Margins

299
Q

Choroidal Cresent

A

Margins

gap in RPE revealing underlying choroid because of oblique insertion of optic nerve and tilting of disk

300
Q

Less than 1/2

A

A/V ratio

(Arteriolar-to-venous Ratio)

301
Q

1/2

A

A/V Ratio

302
Q

2/3

A

A/V Ratio

303
Q

Greater than 2/3

A

A/V Ratio

304
Q

For cataract Post Op Exams, you should ask patient

A
  • about drops that they are on
  • About the patches
305
Q

For cataract Post Op exams, put in chart:

A
  • look at transition of care and the type
  • OD or OS
  • Put in operative procedure code
  • diagnosis
  • Procedure
  • Modifier
  • Surgery date
  • Put referring provider (Ex. Dr. Swan)
306
Q

Full exam, New patient

A

92004

307
Q

Full exam/ existing patient

A

92014

308
Q

Exam mainly used with VF (only talking)/ new patient

A

99202

309
Q

Exam mainly used with VF (only talking)/ existing patient or spec check

A

99212

310
Q

exam mainly used w/ VF (only talking)/ existing patient

or spec check EXTENSIVE

A

99213

311
Q

Anterior eval/ new patient

A

99203

312
Q

Anterior eval existing patient

A

99213

313
Q

Extensive exam such as dilation/new patient

A

99204

314
Q

Extensive exam such as dilation/ existing patient

A

99214

315
Q

VF medicar screener

A

92081

316
Q

VF extensive

A

92083

317
Q

Fundus Photos

A

92250

318
Q

Diabetic Exam if they dont have diabetic retinopathy

A

3072F

319
Q

Refraction

A

92015

320
Q

Contact eval

A

92310

321
Q

self pay

A

s0620

322
Q

Dispensing glasses (Spec check)

A

99211

323
Q

Teaching patients to remove contacts:

A

have them close their eyes and pinch eyelids

have them take out their contacts just like they were pinching their eyelids.

324
Q

Contact lenses covers

A

tear film (not cornea; it covers cornea and bulbar conj)

325
Q

What area is the bulbar conj?

A
326
Q

Artificial eyelashes create complications with contact lense. the glue for the eyelashes contain

A

formaldehyde

Formaldehyde is a colorless, flammable gas at room temperature and has a strong odor. Exposure to formaldehyde may cause adverse health effects.

found in: Resins (sticky) used in the manufacture of composite (compex) wood products (i.e., hardwood plywood, particleboard and medium-density fiberboard)

Building materials and insulation

Household products such as glues, permanent press fabrics, paints and coatings, lacquers and finishes, and paper products

Preservatives used in some medicines, cosmetics and other consumer products such as dishwashing liquids and fabric softeners

Fertilizers and pesticides

It is a byproduct of combustion and certain other natural processes, and so is also found in:

Emissions from un-vented, fuel burning appliances, like gas stoves or kerosene space heaters.

Cigarette smoke.

327
Q

Demodex is thought to be caused by

A

ped dander. it is a type of mite that lives in the oil glands of human hair follicles

328
Q

You should change mascara every

A

3 months

329
Q

retinopathy is

A

bleeding that occurs in the retina

330
Q

What is Yag capsulotomy?

A

a special laser treatment used to improve your vision after cataract surgery. During cataract operations, the natural lens inside your eye that had become cloudy was removed. A new plastic lens was put inside the lens membrane in your eye. in a small number of patients, the capsule thickens after surgery and become cloudy. This interferes with the ligth reaching the back of your eye. WHen this happens, your sight becomes misty, and you may get glare in bright light or from lights at home

331
Q

When does capsule thickening happen after your cataract operations?

A

it may happen months after but more comonly two years after surgery. Yag laser capsulotomy is the only ways to treat this. Apart from affecting your vision, the thickening does not damage the eye in any way.

332
Q

How does the Yag procedure go?

A

you will have some drops put in your eye to dilate and an anaesthetic eye drop to numb the surface of the eye. The Dr. will put a special mirrored lens on your eye before applying the laser beam. This lens allows the doctors to view the membrane clearly so that they can apply the laser and make a small hold in it to clear the vision. The procedure takes about 20 minutes.

333
Q

What doe SLT stand for?

A

Selective Laser Trabeculoplasty

334
Q

What is the purpose of an SLT?

A

SLT is used when eye drop medications are not lowering the eye pressure enough or are causing other side effects.

335
Q

How does an SLT work?

A

laser energy is applied to the drainage tissue in the eye. This starts a chemical and biological change in the tissue that results in better drainage of fluid through the drain and out of the eye. This will eventually lower IOP. It may take 1-3 months for results to appear.

336
Q

How often does an SLT wear off?

A

SLT is effective at lowering IOP but it wears off after several years.

337
Q

Systemic

A

relating to a system such as the body.

338
Q

Hemorrhage

A

an escape of blood from a ruptured blood vessel, especially when profuse (abundant).

339
Q

Ischemic

A

is a restriction in blood supply to tissues, causing a shortage of oxygen that is needed for cellular metabolism (to keep tissue alive).

340
Q

Carotid

A

relating to or denoting the two main arteries that carry blood to the head and neck, and their two main branches.

341
Q

a presciption with negative numbers means

A
  • = nearsighted. Meaning you can see near and not far. (Myopia)
342
Q

a prescription with positive numbers means

A

+ = you are far sighted. You may need reading glasses. (hyperopia)

343
Q

Diplopia means

A

double vision

344
Q

Intermittent means

A

occurring at irregular interbals; not continusous/steady

345
Q

Tortuosity means

A

curved/twisted

346
Q

Presbyopia means

A

you can’t focus upclose

347
Q

gonio means

A

gonioscope

348
Q

Lattice is a

A

retina condition in which retinal tissue is abnormally thin and blood vessels have “lattice-like” appearance due to fibrosis

349
Q

Fibrosis

A

thickening and scaring of connective tissue due to an injury

350
Q

Paving stone

A

(periphery)

351
Q

Seidel

A

anterior chamber leakage in cornea

352
Q

Edema

A

occurs when there is abnormal leakage and accumulation of fluid in the macula from damaged blood vessels in the nearby retina. Macular edema can also occur after eye surgery, in association with age-related macular degeneration, or as a consequence of inflammatory diseases that affect the eye.

353
Q

Hordeolum is

A

a stye (adnexa)

354
Q

Xiidra

A

drug indicated for the treatment of signs and symptoms of dry eye, a syndrome called keratoconjunctivitis sicca.

355
Q

Lamina is

A

nerve fibers that cover the optic nerve

356
Q
A
357
Q

High myopia (nearsighted) (greater than -6.00), is at risk for

A

retinal detachment due to enlongated eyes.

358
Q

sugar subsititues like aspartame, stevia, etc. are used to

A

fatten cattle and works the same for humans; articial sweeterns make beings more hungryand will cause you to crave more sweet foods.

359
Q

An A1c measures

A

the average blood glucose over the past 2-3 months.

360
Q

Intraocular lens is

A

lens implanted in the eye to treat cataracts or myopia

361
Q

What is amlodipine medication used for

A

am-low-di-pine/ used to treat high blood pressure

362
Q

metoclopramide

A

meh-toe-clow-pra-mide/ can treat gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). It can also treat gastroparesis in patients with diabetes.

363
Q

pioglitazone

A

pio-glit-ta-zone/ treats diabetes

364
Q

pentoxifylline

A

pent-oh-siph-o-line/ improves blood flow

365
Q

metformin

A

treats diabetes

366
Q

warfarin

A

war-for-in/ prevents blood clots

367
Q

HCTZ

A

diuretic that helps your body to prevent absorbing salt

368
Q

What is this tool called?

A

forceps

369
Q

What is this tool called?

A

Alger brush. used to remove rust

370
Q

What is this tool called?

A

Curette

371
Q

What is this called?

A

Cotton tip applicator

372
Q

What is this called?

A

Surgical Spud

373
Q

What is this called?

A

Eye Spear

374
Q

paresis

A

a condition of muscular weakness caused by nerve damage or disease; partial paralysis.

inflammation of the brain in the later stages of syphilis, causing progressive dementia and paralysis.

375
Q

What is normal FBS?

A

less than 100 mg/dL is nomral.

376
Q

What FBS is considered prediabeties?

A

100-125 mg/dL

377
Q

What FBS is considered diabetic?

A

126 mg/dL or higher is considered diabetic.

378
Q

What is a normal A1c?

A

less than 5.7% is normal

379
Q

What is a prediabetic A1C?

A

5.7-6.4% means prediabetic

380
Q

what A1C is considered diabetic?

A

6.5% or greater

381
Q

Alphagon drops treat

A

glaucoma/ocular hypertension

382
Q

Timolol drops

A

time-a-lol/ treats glaucoma

383
Q

Restasis drops

A

treats inflammation

384
Q

Ring Scotoma

A

visual field defects/ area of blindness

385
Q

What is this/ what is its use?

A

Retinoscope. Used to observe reflex in pupil to get Rx.

386
Q

medrol drops

A

med-drol/ used to treat inflammation

387
Q

FML drops

A

fluorometholone= steriod used to treat swelling

388
Q

Cataract post op drops:

A

ofloxacin, pred, and prolenza 1st week.

Pred and Prolenza 2nd week.

389
Q

Prolenza drops

A

anti-inflammatory drops; used to treat swelling after Sx.

390
Q

Prednisolone

A

steroid used to prevent inflammation.

391
Q

Ofloxacin

A

treats and prevents pink eye

392
Q

What to ask after cataract post op exams

A

ask about any new floaters, flashes, or eye pain. Ask about eye drops.

393
Q

For c-40’s (medicare screener), whenever starting, press

A

results OU so that results print on the same page.

394
Q

Hemoglobin electrophoresis is

A

a blood test that measures different types of proteins called hemoglobin red blood cells

395
Q

RPR test

A

rapid plasma reagin test- looks for nonspecific antibodies in blood that may indicate syphilis infection

396
Q

VDRL

A

venereal disease laboratory test. Checks for syphilis

397
Q

FTA-ABS test

A

blood test that checks for the presence of antibodies to treponema pallidum bacterium

398
Q

ANA test

A

antinuclear antibody test that helps evaluate a person for autoimmune disorders

399
Q

cryoglobulin test

A

checks for Lyme disease, mono, hepatitis, HIV

400
Q

ASA is abbreviated for

A

Aspririn

401
Q

Lacrimal Gland

A
402
Q

Vitreous Opacities

A

or vitrius floaters. Sudden appearance of multiple floaters.

403
Q

Limbus

A

Border of the cornea and sclera

404
Q

Sclera

A

the white part of the eye

405
Q

filaments

A

means string-like.

406
Q

mucopurulent

A

discharge

407
Q

ITP (idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura)

A

extreme bleading and easy brusing.

408
Q

tourettes

A

unvolutary twitching

409
Q

ADD vs ADHD

A

ADD- hyper

ADHD- inability to focus

410
Q

ODD=oppositional defiant disorder

A

A disorder in a child marked by defiant and disobedient behavior to authority figures.

411
Q

coloboma

A

A hole in one of the structures of the eye like the iris, retina, choroid, or optic drisk.

412
Q

Abscess

A

pockets of puss

413
Q

tetravisc drops

A

eye numbing drops

414
Q

Epilate

A

to remove hair (lashes) from root

415
Q

filamentary keratitis

A

multiple filaments on the cornea caused by bacteria and dust particles

416
Q

hollenhorst plaque

A

cholesterol thats seen in a blood vessel of the retina.

417
Q

Sicca

A

eye dryness due to poor quality/ reduced tears

418
Q

If patient declines to be dilated, then

A

put decline in DPA and have them sign form. If they are coming back for DFE, you don’t have to.

419
Q

Synechiae

A

Iris sticking to the cornea

420
Q

Uveitis

A

inflammation of the middle layer of the eye (uvea)

421
Q

Drusen is

A

early signs of macular degeneration. yellow/white accumulation

422
Q

Areds Vitamins help with

A

age related macular degeneration

423
Q

chrpe

A

retinal pigmentation

424
Q

Benign means

A

not harmful

425
Q

Ciliary body

A

the part of the eye that connects the iris to the choroid. It consists of the ciliary muscle

426
Q

neoplasm=

A

tumor;escessive growth of tissue

427
Q
A
428
Q

What is the machine that reads glasses?

A

Lensometer. Measures the back vertex which includes sphere and cyl power.

429
Q

Examination of the inside of the eye is called

A

opthamoscopy

430
Q

What is the distance from the back surface of the lens to the front?

A

vertex distance

431
Q

What is the inner portion of the eye that can be see with ophthalmoscopy?

A

fundus

432
Q

Muscle that turns the eye downward

A
433
Q

subconjunctival hemorrhage

A

broken blood vessel between the sclera and conjuctiva

434
Q

Proparicaine is

A

an anesthetic (prevents pain)

435
Q

The aqueous humor provides

A

nutrients to lens and posterior cornea

436
Q

What is the light-sensitive part of the eye?

A

Retina

437
Q

PHI stands for

A

Protective Health Information

438
Q

Keratotconus is caused when

A

the cornea thins and bulges forward

439
Q

OD is abbreviated for

A

oculus dexter (right eye)

440
Q

OS is abbreviated for

A

oculus sinister (left eye)

441
Q

OU is abbreviated for

A

oculus uterque (both eyes)

442
Q

Drops used to dilate eyes is called

A

Cycloplegic drops

443
Q

What provides the major refrective power of the eye?

A

Cornea

444
Q

PD is abbreviated for

A

Interpupillary Distance

445
Q

What is between the eyelid and the front of eye?

A

conjunctiva

446
Q

Retina is

A

the nerve center of the eye where light is converted into an electrical signal that travels along optic nerve to the brain.

447
Q

Eye anaesthetic drops(pain killer)

A

Proparicaine, Tetracaine, and Cocaine

448
Q

Eye dilator drops

A

Tropicamide, Atropine, Scopolomine, Phenylephrine

449
Q

Cycloplegia is

A

paralysis of the ciliary muscle so accommodation can’t occur.

450
Q

Measurement of the curvature of the cornea is called

A

keratometry

451
Q

the method used to determine a refrection by illuminating the retina with a mirror and observing the direction of movement of retinal illumination and adjacent shadow when mirror is turned

A

Retinoscopy

452
Q

computer assisted method of mapping the surface curvature of the cornea

A

Topography

453
Q

OMP stands for

A

Opthalmic medical personnel

454
Q

HIPAA Stands for

A

Health Information portability and accountability act

455
Q

Pallor means

A

unhealthy pale appearance

456
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia is

A

a chronic pain condition that affects the trigeminal nerve, which carries sensation from your face to your brain. If you have trigeminal neuralgia, even mild stimulation of your face — such as from brushing your teeth or putting on makeup — may trigger a jolt of excruciating pain.

457
Q

Proptosis is

A

abnormal bulging of the eye

458
Q

Periocular means

A

Surrounding the eyeball within the normal orbit.

459
Q

Refering to the father’s side of the family

A

paternal (papa)

460
Q

Refering to the mother’s side of the family

A

Maternal

ex: Maternal aunt, Maternal cousin ect.

461
Q
A
462
Q

Bromsite drops

A

Nonsteroidal anti-Inflammatory drug

It can treat eye pain and swelling after cataract surgery.

463
Q

Eyeturn when misalignment is always there, evern when both eyes are trying to work together. found with cover-uncover test

A

Tropia

464
Q

Misaligment that only occurs some times (not always present), such as when you are using the cross-cover test

A

Phoria

465
Q

Eye appears to be outward. Eye starts out and then moves in

A

Exotropia (EX: appears exterior)

466
Q

When eye appears in ward and then moves out

A

esotropia (found using cross-cover test)

467
Q

Restasis is used for

A

chronic dry eye

468
Q

Meibomianitis

A

(adnexa) slow growing, inflammatory lump in tear gland of eyelid

469
Q

heme=

A

hemorrhage

470
Q

Neoplasm

A

new and abnormal growth of tissue in some parts of the body

471
Q

Cryo

A

Freezing/ creates a scar that seals the retina against the wall of the eye by placing a cold metal probe against the wall of the eye. Cryotherapy is like glue where as lazer surgery is more like a stapler.

472
Q

POAG

A

Primary Open Angle Glaucoma

473
Q

WNL

A

within normal limits

474
Q

Conjunctivitis

A

Swelling or infection of the membrane lining the eyelids or conjunctiva

475
Q

What are the eye drops used to dilate/ what is their purpose?

A

1st proparacaine, used to numb the eye

2nd tropicamide, to dilate the pupils

476
Q

Eye anaesthetics (numbers)

A

Proparicaine, tetracoaine, cocaine

477
Q

Eye dilators

A

Tropicamide, atropine, and scapolamine

478
Q

mydriatics

A

drops used to dilate

479
Q

Miotics

A

constrictors

480
Q

Retinoscopy

A

How doctors get prescription without paitent speaking

481
Q

Allows the Doctor to see inside the back of the eye

A

opthalmoscopy

482
Q

binocular vision

A

vision using two eyes with overlapping fields of view, allowing good perception of depth.

483
Q

entropion eyelid

A

eyelid is turned inward

484
Q

ingrowth of eyelashes

A

trichiasis

485
Q

Atopic

A

denoting (a sign of)a form of allergy

486
Q

denoting means

A

be a sign of; indicate.

487
Q

Subside definition

A

become less intense, violent, or severe

488
Q

Begnign neoplasm

A

abnormal, concancerous growth

489
Q

Pigment layer of eyeball between retina and sclera

A

choroid

490
Q
A

conjunctival scissors

491
Q

put (a substance) into something in the form of liquid drops.

A

instilled

492
Q

Acuvue Oasys (sphere, MF, astig)

A

2 week CL

1 box= 3 months

2 box= 6 month

3 box = 9 months

4 box= 1 year

493
Q

Avaria Vitality (sphere and Toric)

A

2 week CL

1 box= 3 months

2 box= 6 month

3 box = 9 months

4 box= 1 year

494
Q

soflens 38

A

2 week CL

1 box= 3 month

2 box= 6 month

3 box= 9 month

4 box= 12 month

495
Q

Soflens 66 MF

A

2 week CL

1 box= 3 month

2 box= 6 month

3 box= 9 month

4 box= 12 month

496
Q

Soflens 66 Toric

A

2 week CL

1 box= 3 month

2 box= 6 month

3 box= 9 month

4 box= 12 month

497
Q

When someone tells you that they have flashes of light, ask

A

if its flickering flashes or lighting bolts

498
Q

Procedure for comprehensive encounter with CL

A

Dr. B: likes to see patients with contacts in before having them take them out

Dr. S: only likes to see patients with contacts in if they are Toric CL.

499
Q

Avuvue Vita (sphere, toric)

A

Montly CL

1 box (6 pack)= 6 month supply

2 Boxes (6 pack)= 1 year supply

500
Q

Air optix asig

A

Monthly CL

1 box (6 pack)= 6 month supply

2 boxes (6 pack)= 1 year supply

501
Q

Air Optix colors (sphere)

A

(colors only come in sphere, not toirc)

Monthly CL

1 box (6 pack)= 6 month supply

2 boxes (6 pack)= 1 year supply

502
Q

Air optix hydraglyde (sphere)

A

Monthly CL

1 box (6 pack)= 6 month supply

2 boxes (6 pack)= 1 year supply

503
Q

Air Optix night and day (sphere)

A

Monthly CL

1 box (6 pack)= 6 month supply

2 boxes (6 pack)= 1 year supply

504
Q

Air Optix (multifocal)

A

Monthly CL

1 box (6 pack)= 6 month supply

2 boxes (6 pack)= 1 year supply

505
Q

Biofinity (sphere, toric, MF)

A

Monthly CL

1 box (6 pack)= 6 month supply

2 boxes (6 pack)= 1 year supply

506
Q

Biofinity energys

A

used for individuals who are on the computer a lot

Monthly CL

1 box (6 pack)= 6 month supply

2 boxes (6 pack)= 1 year supply

507
Q

Biofinity (Toric, shere) XR

A

(used for high scripts)

Monthly CL

1 box (6 pack)= 6 month supply

2 boxes (6 pack)= 1 year supply

508
Q

Proclear (sphere, Toric, MF,)/ Proclear XR

A

Monthly CL

1 box (6 pack)= 6 month supply

2 boxes (6 pack)= 1 year supply

509
Q

Ultra CL/ Ultra for Presbyopia

A

Monthly CL

1 box (6 pack)= 6 month supply

2 boxes (6 pack)= 1 year supply

510
Q

Acuvue 1-day Moist (sphere, astig, MF)

A

Daily CL

90 Pack:

1 box = 3 month

2 box= 6 month

3 box = 9 month

4 box = 1 year

30 Pack:

a box per month per eye

511
Q

Acuvue Oasys 1 day (sphere, toric)

A

Daily CL

90 Pack:

1 box = 3 month

2 box= 6 month

3 box = 9 month

4 box = 1 year

30 Pack:

a box per month per eye

512
Q

Acuvue Oasys True eue (sphere)

A

Daily CL

90 Pack:

1 box = 3 month

2 box= 6 month

3 box = 9 month

4 box = 1 year

30 Pack:

a box per month per eye

513
Q

Biotrue (sphere)

A

Daily CL

90 Pack:

1 box = 3 month

2 box= 6 month

3 box = 9 month

4 box = 1 year

30 Pack:

a box per month per eye

514
Q

Clariti (sphere, toric, mf)

A

Daily CL

90 Pack:

1 box = 3 month

2 box= 6 month

3 box = 9 month

4 box = 1 year

30 Pack:

a box per month per eye

515
Q

Dailies aqua comfort

A

Daily CL

90 Pack:

1 box = 3 month

2 box= 6 month

3 box = 9 month

4 box = 1 year

30 Pack:

a box per month per eye

516
Q

Dailies todal 1

A

Daily CL

90 Pack:

1 box = 3 month

2 box= 6 month

3 box = 9 month

4 box = 1 year

30 Pack:

a box per month per eye

517
Q

Proclear

A

Daily CL

90 Pack:

1 box = 3 month

2 box= 6 month

3 box = 9 month

4 box = 1 year

30 Pack:

a box per month per eye

518
Q

Soflens daily

A

Daily CL

90 Pack:

1 box = 3 month

2 box= 6 month

3 box = 9 month

4 box = 1 year

30 Pack:

a box per month per eye

519
Q

BDR is abbreviated for

A

Background diabetic retinopathy

520
Q

UNG

A

unguentine (ointment) antiseptic(disinfectant)

521
Q

antiseptic means

A

disinfectant

522
Q

migraine aura

A

migraines with dots or flashing lights, wavy or jagged lines, blind spots, or tunnel vision

523
Q

NFL means

A

Nerve fiber layer

524
Q

intractable means

A

hard to control/ deal with

525
Q

vascular means

A

affecting blood vessels

526
Q

PPM means

A

persistent pupillary membrane

527
Q

lisinopril

A

high blood pressure medication

528
Q

escitalopram (lexipro) medication

A

es-sit-tal-o-pram/ treats depression

529
Q

RNFL

A

retinal nerve fiber layer

530
Q

Monotheramy

A

combonation therapy using different drugs

531
Q

Antihistamines are used to treat

A

allergies

532
Q

doxycycline

A

doxy-cy-klin/ Antibiotic: kills certain bacteria or stops growth

pill by mouth

533
Q

antibiotics are used for

A

fighting bacterial infections. inhibits the growth of or destroys microorganisms.

534
Q

Cellulitis

A

serious bacterial skin infection

535
Q

Pazeo

A

Pay-zeo- Anthistamine (treats allergies). Can treat pink eye

536
Q

sertraline medication

A

sir-tra-lean/ treats depression and OCD

537
Q

dicyclomine medcation

A

die-cy-cla-mean/ treats IBS

538
Q

Omeprazole

A

ohm-ep-pra-zole/ It can treat heartburn, a damaged esophagus, stomach ulcers, and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).

539
Q

simvastatin

A

sim-va-stat-in/ treats high cholesterol

540
Q

ciprofloxacin medication

A

cip-ro-flox-a-sin/ Antibiotic (kills bacteria/ treats infections)

541
Q

ferrous fumarate

A

fair-ei-ous- fume-ar-ate/ iron supplement

542
Q

panretinal photocoagulation

A

therapy for retinal ischemic disease. The procedure involves creating thermal burns in the peripheral retina leading to tissue coagulation, the overall consequence of which is improved retinal oxygenation.

543
Q

fluticasone nasal spray

A

flu-tick-a-zone/ steriod treat pain, itching, and swelling caused by many skin diseases when applied topically. It can also prevent asthma attacks when inhaled.

544
Q

Steriod use

A

Steroids work by decreasing inflammation and reducing the activity of the immune system. They are used to treat a variety of inflammatory diseases and conditions.

545
Q

glipizide medication

A

glip-i-zide/ treats diabetes

546
Q

desmopressin

A

des-moe-pra-sin/ treats diabetes

547
Q

quetiapine

A

coo-tie-a-pean/ treat schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and depression.

548
Q

mycophenolate medication

A

my-koe-fin-a-late/ prevents organ rejection

549
Q

rosuvastatin medications

A

roe-suv-a-statin/ treats high cholestoral

550
Q

duloxetine

A

due-locks-a-tine/ treats depression and anxiety

551
Q

doxazosin

A

dox-a-zoe-sin/ treats urinary problems

552
Q

furosemide

A

fure-o-si-mide/ treats fluid retention

553
Q

tacrolimus

A

tack-roe-lim-us/ prevents organ rejections

554
Q

the way the Dr. gets eye pressures without machine

A

Tactile (touch)

555
Q

Two blood pressure names

A

systolic

diastolic

556
Q

Medrol use

A

steriod- treats inflammation

557
Q

maxitrol drops

A

steriod(prevents inflammation) and antibiotic (kills bacteria to treat infection)

558
Q

Azelastine drops

A

as-a-last-tine/ antihistamine (treats allergies)

559
Q

Tobramycin

A

Antibiotic (kills bacteria/treats infection)

560
Q

triamcinolone

A

tri-am-sin-a-lone/ cream that treats skin conditions

561
Q

hydroxyzine

A

hi-droxy-zean/ antihistamine (prevents allergy) that treats anziety and depression

562
Q

hydroxyurea

A

hi-drox-e-your-e-ah/ treats sickle cell anemia/ cancer

563
Q

microgestin medication

A

birth control

564
Q

clopidogrel

A

clow-pid-oh-grel/ prevents stroke

565
Q

omeprazole

A

ohm-ep-pra-zole/ treats heartburn

566
Q

ventolin

A

ven-tol-lin/ It can treat or prevent bronchospasm

567
Q

when two images are not focused on one point but rather two

A

astigmatism

568
Q

emmetropia

A

when accomodation is relaxed and images are focused directly on retina. These patients will not need glasses

569
Q

Ametropia

A

when a refractive error is present

570
Q

what is the point of a prism?

A

changes the direction of light (for patients seeing double)

571
Q

What are the different prism bases?

A
  • Base up
  • Base down
  • Base in
  • Base out
572
Q

Psoriasis

A

A condition in which skin cells build up and form scales and itchy, dry patches.

573
Q

Dermatitis

A

AKA eczema/ itching skin

574
Q

Chemosis is

A

swelling of the conjunctiva. its a sign of eye irritation

575
Q

Fovea centralis

A

area of the macula thats the sharpest and used for day time color

576
Q

Apex

A

the point of a prism

577
Q

What is this tool called?

A

Binocular Indirect Opthalmoscope

instrument worm on examiners head to view the back of eye

578
Q

When patient was seen by a doctor.

A

Patient was examined by Dr.

579
Q

crestor

A

rosuvastatin- for high cholesteral

580
Q

deferred

A

to put off until later

581
Q

contraindicated

A

(of a condition or circumstance) suggest or indicate that (a particular technique or drug) should not be used in the case in question.

contraindicated dilated

582
Q

myelinated

A

process of forming a myelin sheath around a nerve to allow nerve impulses to move more quickly

583
Q

arcade

A

structures of blood vessels taking the form of arches

584
Q

when doctor says pigmentation, it will be

A

RPE dispersion

585
Q

drusen is

A

macular degeneration

586
Q

can not do flat top with transitions and poly, material has to be

A

plastic

587
Q

Olopatadine drops

A

Antihistamine

It can treat eye itching caused by pink eye (allergic conjunctivitis)

oh-low-pat-a-dean

588
Q

prolenza drops

A

nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug

589
Q

gemfibrozil

A

gem-fib-ra-zeal

for cholesteral

590
Q

paroxetine

A

per-ox-a-tean- treats depression

591
Q

renvela

A

for kidneys

592
Q

Hydralazine

A

hi-dry-la-zean treats hight blood pressure

593
Q
A

Eye (2 decks)

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