EXW Flashcards

1
Q

DD Form 448

A

Military Interdepartmental Purchase Requests

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2
Q

SF 44

A

multi-purpose form that can be used as a program officer, recieving report, invoice and public voucher.

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3
Q

DDForm 1155

A

Unpriced Orders

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4
Q

SF 1449

A

Solicitation/Contract/Order for Commercial Items

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5
Q

SF 30

A

Contract modificatoin

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6
Q

DD Form 200

A

damaged property, lost, or destroyed.

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7
Q

Purpose of TOA

A

Table of Allowances which ensures commands have what they need.

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8
Q

Defense property accountability system

A

Maintain inventory and accountability of equipment

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9
Q

What is a DLR

A

Depot Level Repairable

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10
Q

Joint Aquisition Review Board

A

Reviews and makes recommendations for the use of critical common-user logistics supplies

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11
Q

Joint facilities utilization board

A

evaluates and reconciles component requests for real estate, use of existing facilities, inter-service support, and construction to comply with joint civil-military engineering board priorities.

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12
Q

Procedures for hardening vehicles

A

Factory hardened vehicles may require additional protection. Field service reps or approved maintenance activities can harden vehicles.

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13
Q

Convoy commander

A

Leader who is charged with the responsibility for planning, prep, execution, and tactical employment of a convoy.

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14
Q

Vehicle Commander

A

responsible for standard equipment requirements (ammo, food, water, fuel) as well as drill training, maintains comms with cc and other vc’s, serves as alt navigator, designates CSW sectors of fire.

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15
Q

Driver/A-driver

A

Primary duty is to drive, scans assigned sector of observation, is prepared to return fire and fueling

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16
Q

CSW Operator

A

responsible for primary and alternate sectors of fire

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17
Q

Designated Marksman

A

precision, proportionate fire. helps prevent collateral damage and unecessary civilian casualties.

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18
Q

Combat life savers

A

should be assigned throughout the convoy in order to speed medical attention. if limited should be stationed in the rear

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19
Q

Litter team

A

2 ea. and provide buddy aid

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20
Q

Landing zone team

A

min. 2 personnel responsible for establishing and marking the landing zone LZ for any sort of air support. should have an alternate and keep inventory of required items.

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21
Q

Assult team

A

designated by the CC usually in the event that there is heavy enemy action and the convoy has to stop. should have it’s own comms and be throughout the convoy

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22
Q

Recovery team

A

designated to assist with maintenance and recovery of convoy assets along the route.

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23
Q

security personnel

A

there are no passenger. therefore anyone not assigned will be designated security.

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24
Q

Basic convoy formations

A

File/column, staggered column, Inverted T, offset, diamond.

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25
Q

Downed Driver

A

VC gains control of the wheel a third person pulls driver out and vc moves into the seat.

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26
Q

Bailout

A

crew on the cold side dismounts, hastily assumes position to the rear of the vehicle, and returns fire. Hot side returns fire.

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27
Q

Hasty vehicle recovery

A

obtain fire superiority, recovery vehicle moves forward, driver stays but the VC gets in to disabled vehicle to steer and manipulate the break.

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28
Q

In-stride hasty vehicle recovery

A

recovering vehicle gets behind downed vehicle and pushes downed vehicle to a more suitable location

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29
Q

Dismount/remount

A

occupants dismount then seek and use hard cover. clear blind spots and cover adjacent alleys and streets. keep many them crew served weapons.

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30
Q

Blow-Through

A

Speed up and maintain movement past contact

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31
Q

Recovery (no obstacle)

A

convoy stops. achieve fire superiority by manuvering element into support-by-fire positions. establish 360 degree security. maintain sector of fire and look for indications of enemy presence.

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32
Q

Recovery (Obstacle)

A

VC’s and other personnel on vehicles dismount as required. Drivers and gunners remain on the vehicle and remain ready to react. 360 degree security. maintain sector of fire and look for indication of enemy presence. achieve fire superiorty by moving into support-by-fire positions. dismounts recover casualties from cold side.

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33
Q

Hasty attack

A

The security element and assult force suppress the identified threat with accurate fires. security element manuvers to a suitable position, under cover of suppresion fires, and assults through the ambush.

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34
Q

What are the sectors of observation and fields of fire in a convoy?

A

it’s the area that can be covered with direct fire or observation by a specific individual or a CSW. Sectors should interlock to ensure complete coverage.

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35
Q

What types of communication are used during convoys

A

Internal, vehicle to vehicle, external

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36
Q

Identify charateristics and considerations of a roadside IED of VBIED

A

may be fashioned from numerous items including military munitions and/or homemade products. Can be CBR or nuclear. can be disguised.

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37
Q

What is the purpose of first aid

A

Saves lives, prevents further injury, and preserves resistance and vitality.

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38
Q

Causes and treatment for asphyixiation

A

drowning, choking, fumes. Remove patients from the source, open airway and perform CPR (30:2) if necessary

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39
Q

causes and treatment for Hemorrhage

A

Causes include blunt trauma, aneurism, bleeding disorder, treat for shock and call 911

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40
Q

causes and treatment for cardiac arrest

A

genetics, tobacco use. Perform CPR call for help and get an AED

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41
Q

causes and treatment for Fractures

A

falls etc. immobilize the extremity and splint if trained.

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42
Q

Causes and treat for burns

A

4 types of burns: Thermal, Electrical, Chemical, and laser. Wash the effected area and apply a sterile bandage/dressing. Remove excess powder if chemical

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43
Q

Causes and treatment for shock

A

Lie the person down, elevate the feet 12 inches unless you suspect an upper body injury, check for circulation, begin CPR, keep person warm and comfortable, and turn on their side if vomiting to prevent choking.

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44
Q

2 Types of fractures

A

closed or simple and open or compound

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45
Q

Discuss the different types of bleeding

A

Arterial is bright red, spurts out, and is harder to control
Venous is dark red and flows in a steady stream
Capillary is oozing with only slight blood loss

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46
Q

When is Direct pressure necessary

A

If bleeding continues after applying a sterile field dressing, direct manual pressure may be used to help control bleeding

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47
Q

When is a pressure dressing necessary

A

if bleeding continues after the application of a field dressing manual pressure, and elevation, then a pressure dressing must be applied. Place a wad of padding on top of the field dressing, directly over the wound, place an improvised dressing over the wad and wrap the ends tightly around the injured limb

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48
Q

When is indirect pressure necessary

A

Uses pressure from the fingers, thumbs or hands, to press at the site or point where a main artery supplying the wounded area lies near the skin surface or over bone.

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49
Q

When is a tourniquet necessary

A

A tourniquet is only used on an arm or leg where there is a danger of the casualty losing his life

50
Q

What are the symptoms and treatment for shock

A

weak pulse, possible nausea, disorientation. Elevate the legs, maintains ABC’s, keep patient calm

51
Q

What is the rule of nines

A

Give a rough estimate of the surface area affected. An adult who has been burned is 1 percent for the hands and 9 percent for the extremeties.

52
Q

What are thermal burns

A

from heat. monitor wound, keep clean and prevent from drying out and manage secondary infection

53
Q

Electrical Burns

A

may appear minor but the damage can extend deep into the the tissues. ensure the scene is safe and secure the source of power.

54
Q

Chemical Burns

A

Remove the cause by brushing and rinsing for 10 to 20 min under cool water. Remove jewelry or clothing that has been effected by the chemical and wrap the burned area loosely with a dry, sterile dressing or a clean cloth. Rewash if necessary and take an OTC pain reliever.

55
Q

First degree burns

A

only effect the epidermis. It’s red, painful, dry and has no blisters. an example would be a sunburn.

56
Q

Second degree burns

A

involve the epidermis and part of the dermis. the burn site appears red, blistered, and may be swollen and painful.

57
Q

Third degree burns

A

also called full thickness burns. Destroys the dermis and the layer beneth

58
Q

Discuss treatment for chest wounds

A

for an open chest wound immediately seal it, secure material in place with adhesive tape with one corner open for draining, lay casualty on the effected side, and treat for shock. for a closed chest wound establish and maintain ABC’s feel for edges of the flail area, stabilize with a pad of dressings or a pillow, treat for shock.

59
Q

Discuss treatment for abdominal wounds

A

Establish and maintain ABC’s, place casualty in comfortable position, Get a clear idea of injury by removing clothing, treat for shock, and give nothing by mouth.

60
Q

Discuss the procedure for head wounds

A

if the wound is closed transfer to medical facility

61
Q

Discuss the treatment for eye injuries

A

Wash out the wound thoroughly and do let the casualty rub the wound. Furthermore do not remove foreign object.

62
Q

Discuss the treatment for facial wounds

A

Treat like other wounds, but in addition ensure there is no blockage of the airway and position so that gravity removes blood from mouth and nose.

63
Q

What is the most effective treatment for hypothermia?

64
Q

What is the treatment for frostbite?

A

Ice crystals form in skin or deeper tissues. Skin is red with uncomfortable coldness. numb white, yellow, or blue. Requires rapid rewarming and unnecessary manipulations should be avoided.

65
Q

Discuss Stokes Stretcher

A

a wire basket supported by iron rods, and is valuable for transfer to and from boats.

66
Q

Discuss Blanket drag

A

used to move a person who should not be lifted or carried by one person alone.

67
Q

Discuss Arm carry

A

used to move a consious or unconsious person and for short distances

68
Q

Discuss conventional stretchers

A

the service litter is the most common

69
Q

Discuss the pack strap carry

A

don’t use if the casualty has a broken arm

70
Q

Define heat stroke

A

life and death emergency. casualty has an extremely high body temperature and a lack of sweating. douse with cold water and move to the coolest place available. maintain an open airway. Place on their back with the head and shoulders slightly raised.

71
Q

Define heat exhaustion

A

victim appears gray with cool, moist and clammy skin and dialated pupils. Move to a cool place and treat for shock

72
Q

Define heat cramps

A

Excessive sweating that results in painful cramps. Move the victim to a cool place, give them cool water, and add 1 tsp of salt per liter.

73
Q

Discuss the nine line medivac

A

Location of the pickup site, Radio frequency call sign and suffix, number of patients by precedence which are urgent, urgent surgical, priority, routine, and convenience, special equipment required which are none, hoist, extraction equipment, and ventilator, Number and type (litter or ambulatory) of patients, security of the pickup site, how the pickup site will be marked, patient nationality and status which are US Military, US Civilian, Non-US Military, Non-US Civilian E-EPW, and terrain description or NBC Contamination

74
Q

What are the tactical combat casualty care triage categories

A

treat, prevent additional, and complete the mission

75
Q

what are the steps for care under fire

A

return effective fire, tactical movement of the casualty to an area of concealment and cover, rapid assessment of the injury to include tourniquet.

76
Q

What are the steps for tactical field care

A

only rendered when casualty is no longer under hostile fire. evac time may range from minutes to hours.

77
Q

What is tactial evacuation

A

Rendered while the casualty is evacuated to a higher echelon of care. Any additional personnel and medical equipment pre-staged in these assets will be available during this phase.

78
Q

What is Quickclot combat gauze

A

Z-fold (military only) works as a pro-coagulant (i.e. forms a clot)

79
Q

What is Chitogauze

A

Used to control external bleeding by acting as a tissue adherent.

80
Q

What does MIST stand for and why is it used

A

Mechanism of injury, Injuries or illness sustained, symptoms and vital signs, Treatment given

81
Q

Discuss phonetic alphabet

A

a way to speak letters and numbers that can be easily heard and understood

82
Q

Discuss pro words

A

pronounceable words or phrases that have been assigned particular meanings to expedite message handling on R/T circuits.

83
Q

3 methods of comms in areas where oral comms are not reliable

A

Arm and hand signals, whistle signals, and special signals

84
Q

Discuss the comms plan

A

the COMMPLAN is an in-depth version of OPTASK COMMS detailing which frequencies are assigned to specific units and for which transmitter they are assigned to.

85
Q

Discuss OPLAN

A

operation plan for the conduct of joint operations that can be used as the basis for development of an OPORD

86
Q

Discuss OPORD

A

operation order is a directive issued by a commander to subordinate commanders for the purpose of effecting the coordinated execution of an operation

87
Q

Discuss WARNORD

A

a warning order is a preliminary notice of an order or action that is to follow at a future date

88
Q

Discuss FARGO

A

a fragmentary order usually issued in the form of a brief

and contains changes of existing orders to subordinate commanders or higher ups

89
Q

Discuss EXORD

A

an execute order is an order issued by a competent authority to initiate military operations as directed

90
Q

Discuss DEPORD

A

a deployment order is a planning directive of the Secretary of Defense, issued by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff that authorizes and directs the transfer of forces between combatant commands by reassignment or attachment.

91
Q

Discuss CONOPS

A

A concept of operations is a verbal or graphic statement and a broad outline of a commanders

92
Q

Discuss routine message

A

transmission time is 6 hours and does not justify higher precedence

93
Q

Discuss priority message

A

reserved for messages pertaining to the conduct of operations in progress. 3 hour transmission time

94
Q

Discuss intermediate messages

A

Relate to situations that gravely affect the national forces or populace . 30 min transmission time

95
Q

Discuss Flash messages

A

extreme urgency ASAP

96
Q

What is meant by 2 person integrity

A

TPI prevents single person access to COMSEC keying material and cryptographic maintenance manuals. can’t have sole possession of material that requires COMSEC

97
Q

Define HF

A

3MHz to 30 Mhz

98
Q

Define VHF

A

30 Mhz to 300 Mhz

99
Q

Define UHF

A

300 Mhz-3Ghz also known as line of sight transmission bands. Well suited for tactical voice transmissions between ships traveling or manuevering together

100
Q

Define SATCOM

A

Utilizes super high frequency at 3 to 30 Ghz

101
Q

Development of an intelligence cycle

A

production, processing, collection, planning and direction, dissemination.

102
Q

Contents of the CEOI

A

Communication Electronic Operating Instruction to assist with determining frequency nets required. It’s in the command and signal portion of the 5 paragraph order

103
Q

Describe the watchstations within the TOC

A

Admin/personnel officer, Intel officer, operations officer, watch officer, radio/telephone operators

104
Q

List and describe basic TOC Equipment and resources

A

Charts and maps, Blue force tracker, global command and control systems maritime, communications equipment.

105
Q

Discuss the admin circuit

A

used for harbor comms

106
Q

Discuss the directed circuit

A

to use you must obtain permission from the Net Control Station (NECOS)

107
Q

Discuss the free circuit

A

not required to obtain permission to use

108
Q

Discuss the purpose of the DTG on a Naval message

A

For identification, trackng, and filing

109
Q

discuss the purpose of the unexploded hazardous report

A

to report a UXO hazard to the chain of command and other supporting or operating units.

110
Q

Discuss OPCON

A

in charge of organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission

111
Q

Discuss TACON

A

command authority that is limited to the detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the op area necessary to accomlish mission tasks

112
Q

What is the purpose of OPREP 3 Navy Blue

A

used by any unit to provide the CNO or other commanders with immediate notification of incidents of military, political, or media interests that are of high Navy vice national level interest

113
Q

Discuss Oprep 3 Unit SITREP

A

used by a US Navy CO to provide the ISIC and appropriate Navy operational commanders and higher authority with timely notification of any incident not meeting OPREP-3 PINNACLE or OPREP-3 NAVY BLUE special incident reporting criteria.

114
Q

Explain the use of the Naval Message

A

Official Message communications via message traffic

115
Q

Discuss factors that affect radio comms

A

weather, terrain, antenna, power, and location, bridges, buildings, power lines, electrical generators, and enemy jamming.

116
Q

Discuss survivability operations as it relates to dug-in emplacements

A

has two aspects which are avoiding and withstanding. Avoiding seeks to prevent an attack where increased susceptibilty would be caused by tactics or lack of countermeasures. Withstanding seeks to prevent degredation by being the subject of an attack.

117
Q

Discuss fighting positions as it relates to individual fighting positions.

A

designed to support direct and indirect fire. Categorized as hasty or deliberate.

118
Q

Discuss CSW fighting positions as it relates to dug-in emplacements

A

hasty and deliberate

119
Q

explain the general rules of camoflage

A

regulate light, heat, noise, spoil, trash, and movment. depends largely on actions of individuals.

120
Q

Discuss BAMCIS

A

Begin planning, arrange the recon, make the recon, complete the plan, issue the order, supervise.