Extra Cases Flashcards

1
Q

2 types of seizures, ____ is complete loss of consciousness and ___ is altered consciousness but wakefulness is retained

____ and ____ LOWER the seizure threshold so it’s a higher risk for seizure

Toxoplasmosis presents as AMS, fever, HA, seizures and a ring enhancing lesion on MRI with + serology (IgG anti-toxoplasma) and CD4 less than ____

^** Toxo is an obligate INTRACELLULAR parasite

For both treat with ____ for prophylaxis

Since TMP-SMX interact with ____ substrate, if you also have a patient on ____ it complicates the problem since they interact and increase QTc interval causing a greater risk for ____ or syncope or cardiac death

A

Generalized, Partial

Tramadol and Bupriprion

100

TMP-SMX

CyP3A4, Methadone, Torsade de pointes

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2
Q

To treat Cerebral edema (Increased ICP) you can use a diuretic, IV ____, HyPERventilation, and invasive methods include decompressive craniotomy or ventriculostomy

If WBC count is greater than 1000mm and PMN is greater than 80% with + gram stain, think ____ infection

If WBC count is less than 1000mm and glucose is more than 40mg and protein is less than 200mg than think ____ infection

A

Mannitol

Bacterial

Viral

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3
Q

Assymetrical tremor that is often present at REST with Bradykinesia, Rigidity, gait problems, etc is a ____ tremor

Symmetrical, Postural, and involves Head (voice and neck) leading to deafness, dystonia (Twisting movements), etc… Is ____ tremor

A

Parkinson Disease

Essential

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4
Q

PD is due to loss of ___ neurons in the ____ and diagnosis is made via Triad of symptoms + Response to ____ replacement therapy

Along with L-dopa (Levodopa) you can give a dopamine agonist in young or advanced patients

A

Dopaminergic, Substantia nigra, L-dopa

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5
Q

___ can be used for A-fib, DVT/PE, Prosthetic valve or Mechanical valve and for all of them you want an INR of ___-___

Most common cause of supratherapeutic INR is interactions with ____ and its metabolism

Elevated INR is a major risk for ____

If INR is high, administer ____ and if extremely high you can supplement with 4-factor PCC or fresh frozen plasma

A

Warfarin, 2-3

Warfarin

Bleeding

Vitamin K

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6
Q

For the MMSE, normal is ___-___ and sever dementia is 10 or less

Also if a patient has a head injury, use CT with NO contrast

A

24-30

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7
Q

An elevated white count with a LEFT SHIFT indicates an ____ and a left shift simply means immature neutrophils aka ___ are pushed out of the marrow to fight something

A

Infection, bands

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8
Q

Headache, fever, nausea and vomiting, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia think ____

^** + Kernigs and Brudzinskis sign

Name the bacterial infection that causes meningitis

1) Less than 2 months
2) 2-12 months
3) Adolescents to young adults
4) 60+

Which antibiotics would you prescribe?

A

Meningitis

1) B-strep
2) Strep pneumonia, N meningitis, H influenza
3) N meningitis
4) S pneumonia

Vancomycin + Ceftriaxone

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9
Q

Reactive thrombocytosis is associated with an increased platelet count

Acute renal failure can be

Pre-renal = ___ BUN:Cr

Intrinsic

Post-renal

A

High

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10
Q

KDIGO is criteria of when serum Cr increases ____ mg/dl in 48 hours OR serum Cr becomes greater than ____ percent in 7 days

Stages are

1) Risk - Stage 1 (Represented by the above statement^)
2) Injury - Stage 2 (____% or more serum Cr increase)
3) Failure - Stage 3 (_____% or more serum Cr increase)

Urine output criteria is a urine output of LESS than ____ ml/kg/hr for more than ___ hours

1) Risk - As above ^**
2) Injury - ____ ml/kg/hr for more than ____ hours
3) Failure - ___ ml/kg/hr for more than ____ hours OR anuria for more than ___ hours

A
  1. 3, 50
    2) 100%
    3) 200%
  2. 5, 6
    2) 0.5, 12
    3) 0.3, 24, 12
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11
Q

Peaked T waves, Prolonged QRS and PR intervals, and small P waves indicate ____

^** Causes include hypoaldosteronism or renal failure (not enough K+ excretion from urine) or hyperglycemia or rhabdomylosis (to much release from cells)

Can treat with ____ and ____ or NaHCO3 (to shift K+ into cells) or Na polystyrene sulfonate or a diuretic or hemodyalasis to remove the K+

A

Hyperkalemia

Insulin and glucose

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12
Q

Always get _____ in sepsis patients before antibiotics

Most common cause of UTI or pyelonephritis is ____

Anion gap = Na - (Cl+HCO3)

Kidney viscero-somatic reflexes = ____-____

A

Blood cultures

E.coli

T10-T11

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13
Q

_____ is when Abs initiate inflammation that destroy the GBM and BM in the Pulmonary alveoli

^** This causes RBC casts in the urine (Hematuria) AND coughing up blood (Hemoptysis)

For goopastures, order regular labs + Anti-GBM + ___ and ____-____

If ONLY the kidney’s GBM is destroyed, it’s called ____

Lung viscerosomatic reflexes = ____

RBC casts = _____ and if microscopic eval shows NO RBCs and + blood, think _____ or ____

A

Goodpastures syndrome

P and C-ANCA

Anti-GBM disease

T2-T7 (although we learned heart and lungs as T1-T6)

Glomerulonephritis, myoglobinuria or rhabdomylosis

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14
Q

Name the catheter

1) Indwelling (left in place)
2) Intermittent (brief in duration)

A

1) Foley

2) Straight

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15
Q

In a patient with goodpastures syndrome make sure you order to NOT give aspirin, NSAIDs or Cox-2 since it can cause bleeding or toxicity

If you decide you want to do a blood transfusion, ____ and ___ means you determined the blood group compatibility but you have NOT taken any blood out of the bank yet

___ and ____ final step to make sure comparability is correct aka you HAVE taken blood out of the bank and it is ready for a transfusion

A

Type and Screen

Type and Cross match

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16
Q

Like we said RBC casts = GN and the most common cause in kids is ____ infection and symptomatic patients have edema, HTN, and hematuria with peri orbital edema that is ALWAYS ___

^** 50% of cases are ASYMPTOMATIC

Coca-cola urine might suggest _____ problems

Glucose and Galactose are REDUCING substances to check for inborn errors of ____ metabolism

A

Post strep, non-pitting

Bladder

Carbohydrate

17
Q

The holliday segar method is 4cc first 10kg + 2cc second 10kg + 1 cc for each 1kg

Example: 23kg

4cc for first 10 = 10
2 cc for second 10 = 6cc for 20kg
1 cc for each 1kg = 6 + 3 = 9cc

Oliguria is less than 500ml per day and anuria less than 50ml per day

A
18
Q

PND (Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea) = ____ failure

5 classes for heart disease and A-D stages for heart failure

Low CO, elevated pulmonary venous pressure, congestion, and dyspnea = ____

A

Left sided heart

LHF

19
Q

LVEF less than 40 = ____ dysfunction

LVEF preserved aka more than 40 = _____ dysfunction

Diastolic dysfunction = ____

A

Systolic

Diastolic

HTN

20
Q

Dry cough, angioedema, hyperkalemia can all be due to ____

Hypercalcemia and Hyperuricemia can be due to ____

Severe alcohol withdrawal = ____

A

ACEI

HCTZ

DT (Delirium Tremens)

21
Q

Migratory polyarthritis, nodules in skin, erythema marginatum, sydenham chorea, ASO titers, and Aschoof bodies = _____ due to ____

^** Think JONES criteria

A

RF, group A beta hemolytic strep

22
Q

Viagra (aka Sildenafil) + Nitroglycerin can have systemic vasodilation actions that can cause severe ____

A

Hypotension

23
Q

If a patient comes in with sharp pain, aggravated by inspiration, relieved by sitting UP and leaning FORWARD, FRICTION RUB, widespread ST elevation and PR depression = ____

Treatment is monitored via ____

Treat with ASA and Colchicine

Do NOT perform anticoagulation since one can develop cardiac tamponade

A

Acute pericarditis

CRP