Extension Science Flashcards

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1
Q

What in the human brain regulates things over 24 hours?

A

Biological clock

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2
Q

The biological clock relies on what?

A

Light exposure

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3
Q

What is photoperiodism?

A

Plants response to changing day length

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4
Q

Name 2 things which photoperiodism affects in plants

A

Germination and flowering

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5
Q

What do young lupine produce that are poisonous?

A

Alkaloids

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6
Q

What are alkaloids poisonous to?

A

Insects or pests

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7
Q

Where is digoxin found and what is it used for?

A

Foxgloves, to treat heart disorders

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8
Q

Where is quinine found and what is it used for?

A

Cinchona trees, to treat malaria

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9
Q

Where is aspirin found and what it is it used for?

A

Willow trees, to treat pain and fever

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10
Q

What did Louis Pasteur do?

A

He showed that microorganism a were responsible for food going off

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11
Q

What is an antiseptic technique?

A

A method of keeping microbes away from people and food

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12
Q

What is pasteurisation?

A

When food is heated before stored to kill microbes

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13
Q

How did Edward Jenner develop smallpox vaccines?

A

He rubbed the pus from a cowpox blister onto a boy and after he was infected and healed, he did the same with the smallpox blister and the boy was unaffected

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14
Q

How do vaccines work?

A

1) weakened antibody is injected into the body
2) lymphocyte with matching antibody for the antigen is released
3) lymphocyte undergoes division
4) lymphocytes release antibody to destroy pathogen and memory lymphocytes remain

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15
Q

Name the disadvantages of vaccines

A

Swelling and redness around the vaccination
Children can get a mild disease
Some get allergic reactions

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16
Q

Name advantages of vaccines

A

Immunity without being infected
Chances of long lasting harm is small
If enough people get vaccinated it becomes rare so that even unvaccinated individuals aren’t likely to get it

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17
Q

What is a primary response?

A

The way in which our immune system responds on first occasion that a particular pathogen enters the body

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18
Q

What is a secondary response?

A

The way in which our body responds to the second occasion that a pathogen enters the body

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19
Q

What are monoclonal antibodies

A

Many identical antibodies

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20
Q

What is a b lymphocyte?

A

A lymphocyte that can no longer divide due to production of antibodies

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21
Q

What is a hybridoma cell?

A

A fusion of b lymphocytes and cancer cells so that they can divide

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22
Q

How are monoclonal antibodies used in pregnancy tests?

A

They are used to detect HGH which sticks to dipstick and causes colour change

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23
Q

How are monoclonal antibodies used to detect cancer

A

They are stuck to cancer drugs as they target the cancerous cells only

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24
Q

What is a metabolic reaction?

A

A reaction in the body

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25
Q

What are the waste products of metabolic reactions?

A

Co2 and urea

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26
Q

What’s the difference between the renal vein and the renal artery?

A

Renal vein carries blood to the body

Renal artery carries blood to kidneys for filtration

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27
Q

What do the kidneys do?

A

The remove waste from the blood to form urine

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28
Q

What is the function of the ureters

A

They carry urine to the bladder

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29
Q

What does the bladder do

A

Stores urine

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30
Q

What does the urethra do

A

It releases urine from bladder to outside the body

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31
Q

What causes rejection of transplanted organs?

A

The body recognises the antigens on the tissue as foreign and then tries to destroy it

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32
Q

How do dialysis machines work?

A

They remove waste products from the blood. They need to be connected to the patient for server all hours, several times a week

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33
Q

What is a nephron?

A

The place where filtration occurs in the kidneys

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34
Q

What is the glomerus?

A

The network of blood capillaries in the nephrons

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35
Q

What happens in the first phase of filtration?

A

The blood flows through the glomerus and to the bowman’s capsule where it allows water, glucose and urea into the nephron

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36
Q

Describe the process of selective reabsorption

A

Useful substances such as glucose are absorbed back into the blood at the convoluted tubes

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37
Q

Describe the last process of reabsorption (in the nephrons)

A

Depending on how much ADH is present the pituitary gland will cause the nephron to absorb more/less water

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38
Q

What does more ADH cause

A

More concentrated urine

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39
Q

What is ovulation

A

When the egg is released from the ovary

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40
Q

Ovulation causes what?

A

Thickening of the uterus lining

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41
Q

What is it called when the lining breaks down and the egg lost?

A

Menstruation

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42
Q

What does the initial low level of progesterone cause?

A

FSH release

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43
Q

What does FSH do?

A

It triggers maturation of follicles

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44
Q

What does the maturing of follicles cause?

A

Release of oestrogen

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45
Q

What does the oestrogen cause?

A

Thickening of uterus lining and LH release

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46
Q

What does LH cause

A

Ovulation

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47
Q

When ovulation occurs, what happens to the follicle?

A

It becomes a corpus luteum

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48
Q

What does the corpus luteum cause?

A

An increase in progesterone

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49
Q

What does increase in progesterone cause?

A

It inhibits FSH and LH

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50
Q

Falling levels of progesterone and oestrogen lead to what?

A

Menstruation

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51
Q

What is the name of a rhythm that occurs over a period of 24 hours?

A

Circadian rhythm

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52
Q

What does the cytoplasm of an egg cell contain?

A

Lipid droplets (yellow spots)

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53
Q

What does the acrosome of a sperm cell contain?

A

Enzymes for digesting a way into the egg

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54
Q

What does the middle section of a sperm cell contain?

A

Mitochondria

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55
Q

What happens regarding the egg cell once a sperm has entered to ensure no other sperm gets in?

A

The membrane quickly changes

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56
Q

How does IVF work?

A

Some of the women’s egg cells are taken from her ovaries and fertilised in a Petri dish before being implanted back into the uterus

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57
Q

What are some problems with IVF?

A

The babies tend to be born premature which may cause problems in birth or later development

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58
Q

How does egg donation work?

A

Hormones are given to the donor to release eggs and then IVF is carried out

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59
Q

What is a problem with egg donation?

A

Some women react badly to the high levels of hormones given to them

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60
Q

When is surrogacy an option for a couple?

A

If the women is unable to grow an embryo in her uterus

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61
Q

How does surrogacy work?

A

The egg and sperm are fertilised through IVF and then implanted into the surrogate mother’s uterus

62
Q

What is the problem with surrogacy?

A

Sometimes the surrogate grows a strong bond with the baby and doesn’t want to give it up

63
Q

How does hormone treatment work to conceive a child?

A

Hormones are given to the woman to help her produce more eggs

64
Q

What is the problem with hormone treatment?

A

Increases the chance of multiple births and the babies tend to be born premature

65
Q

What is haemophilia and example of?

A

A sex-linked genetic disorder

66
Q

Why are sex-linked genetic disorders mainly found in boys?

A

Because some genes are only found on the X chromosome so the boy only has one copy

67
Q

Is the gene for red-green colour blindness on the X or Y chromosome?

A

X

68
Q

Define the term behaviour

A

The ways in which animals respond to a stimuli

69
Q

A mate that is healthy and well adapted is of what quality?

A

Good reproductive quality

70
Q

What helps with finding a mate?

A

Elaborate courtship behaviour such as when a male displays to a female to show that he is high quality

71
Q

Describe the 3 kinds of mate

A

Mate for life
Mate for season
Multiple mates a season

72
Q

Describe how mating tends to work in dear, lions and apes

A

Groups of females will all breed with one ‘dominant’ male which will remain for years

73
Q

Describe a parental instinct over their young

A

That they will risk their own life in order to ensure the survival of their young

74
Q

What is innate behaviour?

A

Behaviour that is ‘hardwired’ into our brain and is with us from when we are born

75
Q

Animals who use innate behaviour are more likely to what?

A

Survive

76
Q

What innate behaviour did Tinbergen show in herring gulls?

A

That the young would peck at the spot on their parents beak when they wanted food

77
Q

What is imprinting?

A

It is a kind of simple learning where an animal believes the first thing it sees to be its mother

78
Q

Why is imprinting important for animals?

A

As it ensures the young are protected and can learn from their mother how to find food

79
Q

What is habituation?

A

A process in which an animal learns not to respond to a repeated stimulus

80
Q

What is classical conditioning?

A

A process in which learning causes a reflex action to happen in response to a new stimulus (such as a dog salivating at the sound of a bell as they associate it with food)

81
Q

What is operant conditioning?

A

A process in which an animal changes its behaviours as a result of experiencing rewards or unpleasant consequences

82
Q

Give two examples in which police use operant conditioning and habituation

A

Sniffer dogs

Horses that learn not to be afraid of smoke

83
Q

How are dolphins trained to be useful?

A

They are trained to locate mines so that they can be cleared

84
Q

Name the three methods that organisms use to communicate

A

Visual signals, sound and chemical substances

85
Q

In what way do organisms use visual signals to communicate their mood?

A

Mammals often use gestures, facial expressions and body language

86
Q

Describe how sound is used to communicate

A

Many birds use singing to keep others out of their territory and male grasshoppers rub their legs against their wing cases to attract females

87
Q

What chemical substances do many animals produce to influence the behaviour of others?

A

Pheromones

88
Q

What is social behaviour?

A

Behaviour between members of the same species

89
Q

Describe the role of Fossey in understanding gorillas

A

She studied them through imitating their behaviour and therefore became accepted into the group and could study the family relationships which she discovered weren’t violent. She also learnt the meaning of their calls

90
Q

Describe the role of Goodall in understanding chimpanzees

A

She worked closely with the chimpanzees and discovered that they use tools to help them obtain food

91
Q

How do plants attract animals for pollination?

A

Through brightly coloured fruits and flowers

92
Q

How does the Labrador tea plant prevent insects from landing on its leaves?

A

By producing poisonous chemicals in its leaves which then diffuses into the air

93
Q

Describe the role of ethene in acacia trees

A

When an acacia tree is eaten it produces distasteful chemicals as well as ethene which causes the other acacia trees to produce the distasteful chemicals

94
Q

What is co-evolution?

A

When two species change together over time

95
Q

What do orchids do to attract wasps?

A

They smell like a female wasp so when the wasp tries to mate with it the wasp receives a pack of pollen which is then carried to the next flower for pollination

96
Q

What are grey kangaroos able to do?

A

Eat the leaves of bushes which contain a poison called fluoroacetate

97
Q

Describe the features of ardi who was estimated to have lived 4.4 million years ago

A

120cm, 50kg, Walked upright, Long arms, brain size - 350cm^3

98
Q

Describe the features of Lucy and when she lived?

A

3.2 million years ago, 1.07m tall, long arms, didn’t walk completely upright, brain - 400cm^3

99
Q

Describe the features of homo habilis

A

2.4 - 1.4 million years ago, walked upright, quite short with long arms, brain size 500-600cm^3

100
Q

Describe the features of homo erectus

A

1.8 - 0.5 million years ago, 1.79m, brain - 850cm^3

101
Q

How can stone tools be used to support evolution?

A

Because over time the tools have become more sophisticated

102
Q

How are stone tools dated?

A

By dating the layers of sediment that they were found in

103
Q

Around 60,000 years ago there was a glacial period, what did this allow for people living at the time to do?

A

Cross from Africa to Yemen due to the sea level being much lower

104
Q

Why did these people 60,000 years ago migrate?

A

To hunt and gather food

105
Q

About 25,000 years ago, another land bridge was formed, where was it and what did it allow?

A

It was between Siberia and North America and allowed people to spread from Asia into North America

106
Q

What do mitochondria have of their own?

A

DNA

107
Q

What is the difference between where nuclear and mitochondrial DNA comes from?

A

Nuclear DNA comes from both mother and father whereas mitochondrial DNA comes only from the mother

108
Q

How much faster than nuclear DNA does mitochondrial DNA mutate?

A

100-1000 times

109
Q

Why is mitochondrial DNA more likely to be found?

A

Because it is in a greater abundance than nuclear DNA

110
Q

Who is African eve?

A

A woman who lived between 130000 and 200000 years ago who has an unbroken female-female chain of mitochondrial DNA

111
Q

What does the evidence from African eve mean?

A

That humans spread out of Africa and populated the rest of the world

112
Q

What is biotechnology?

A

The alteration of natural biomolecules using science and engineering to provide goods and services

113
Q

What is a biomolecule?

A

A substance made by living organisms

114
Q

What is a fermenter?

A

A vessel used to cultivate microorganism a for the production of biomolecules on a large scales

115
Q

How are fermenters sterilised?

A

By using high pressure steam

116
Q

What does the term aseptic precaution mean?

A

Any method to ensure that living organisms do not come into contact with something

117
Q

What do the microorganisms in a fermenter need to be provided with?

A

Nutrients such as sugar and ammonium as sources of carbohydrates and nitrogen

118
Q

Why is an optimum temperature required in a fermenter?

A

To ensure the microorganisms work at a fast rate but don’t get denatured

119
Q

What is an optimum pH required for in a fermenter?

A

To ensure the enzymes work efficiently

120
Q

Why is oxygen provided to the microorganisms in a fermenter?

A

So they can respire aerobically

121
Q

Why is agitation applied to the microorganisms in the fermenter?

A

To mix all of the oxygen and nutrients into the liquid

122
Q

What fungus is mycoprotein made from?

A

Fusarium

123
Q

Why is there no stirrer in the fermenter for mycoprotein?

A

Because fusarium is made up of tiny fibres called hyphae which would tangle and break

124
Q

Name 4 things provided to the fusarium in the fermenter

A

Ammonia, air, glucose syrup and minerals

125
Q

What happens to the hyphae once it is collected from the fermenter?

A

They are heat treated and then dried and pressed to form a fibrous substance which is similar to the texture of meat

126
Q

What are the 4 advantages of food from microorganisms over growing crops and keeping animals

A

Populations can double extremely quickly
Microbes are easy to handle and manipulate
Doesn’t rely on climate
Can be grown from waste products

127
Q

What does mycoprotein not contain that makes it healthier than meat?

A

Saturated fats

128
Q

Why is the high fibre content in mycoprotein beneficial in terms of insulin secretion?

A

Because it slows the rate of glucose absorption which means insulin isn’t secreted in such large amounts

129
Q

How is invertase produced?

A

By cultivating a yeast called saccharomyces cerevisae in fermenters

130
Q

What does invertase do which is beneficial for making sweets?

A

Breaks down sucrose to glucose and fructose which is sweeter than sucrose so less is needed

131
Q

Why are proteases and lipases used in washing powders?

A

To help remove stains that the detergent cannot remove by itself

132
Q

What is chymosin used for?

A

To form curds in milk to produce cheese

133
Q

Why did scientists begin to genetically modify bacteria to produce chymosin?

A

Because it typically comes from calves stomachs so it is therefore easier and cheaper and also suitable for vegetarians

134
Q

What does making genetically modified organisms use?

A

Recombinant DNA technology

135
Q

What kind of enzymes ‘cut’ the DNA, leaving sticky ends?

A

Restriction enzymes

136
Q

What are restriction enzymes used to cut from the bacteria?

A

The plasmid DNA

137
Q

What happens when the DNA strand and the plasmids are mixed?

A

The sticky end base pairs link up

138
Q

What does ligase do after the sticky ends have paired?

A

Links e DNA back into a continuous circle

139
Q

What happens to the recombinant plasmids after they have been joined up?

A

They are now inserted back into the bacteria

140
Q

What is the ‘global food security crisis’?

A

That as the population begins to grow, people in certain places don’t get enough food

141
Q

Describe what conventional breeding is

A

Producing offspring using the natural technique of cross breeding to produce a high quality and high yielding product

142
Q

What is integrated pest management?

A

Reducing the populations of insects and pests by a co-ordinated treatment of different pest control strategies

143
Q

How is crop rotation a form of pest control?

A

Because it helps to prevent a build up of soil pests for each of the different crops

144
Q

How has conventional breeding helped to manage raspberry pests?

A

Because it has developed raspberry varieties that are resistant to aphids

145
Q

How are raspberry beetles lured into traps where they drown?

A

Chemicals produced by raspberry plants are places in the traps

146
Q

When are pesticides used on raspberries?

A

Only when the traps show that a large number of beetles are present

147
Q

What is a biofuel?

A

A fuel made by/from living organisms such as maize or oil palms

148
Q

Why are biofuels better than petrol or diesel?

A

Because they are renewable

149
Q

What are biofuels said to be?

A

Carbon neutral

150
Q

What is a disadvantage of biofuels?

A

The plants take up land which could be used for growing food