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Contemporary Issues in Biology > Excess Mortality > Flashcards

Excess Mortality Flashcards

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1
Q

What is Excess Mortality?

A

Excess mortality is the number of deaths recorded which are greater than the numbers expected in a given year.

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2
Q

What is epidememlogical study?

A

Epidemiological studies measure the risk of illness or death in an exposed population compared to that risk in an identical, unexposed population (for example, a population the same age, sex, race and social status as the exposed population).

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3
Q

Describe Scotland’s life expectancy data throughout history to contempoary times compared to other European countries.

A

Scotland’s life expectancy from the mid 1800s to mid 2000s has steadily increased. They started off with an average life expectancy relative to other european countries but as time progressed, they now have one of the worst life expectancies of Europe.

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4
Q

What is deindustrialisation?

A

Deindustrialisation is the reduction of industrial activity or capacity in a region or economy.

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5
Q

What is the male life expectancy of Scotland and the male life expectancy of the rest of the UK?

A

The life expectancy in Scotland is 77.1 years old and the life expectancy in the rest of the UK is 79.2 years old.

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6
Q

What is the female life expectancy of Scotland compared to the female life expectancy in the rest of the UK?

A

The female life expectancy of Scotland is 81.1 years old and the female life expectancy of the rest of the UK is 82.9 years old.

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7
Q

Within Scotland, what council area has the worst life expectancy in males?

A

Glasgow city has the worst life expectancy in males.

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8
Q

What contributes to Scotland/Glasgow having the poorest health?

A

The reasons for Glasgow’s/Scotland’s poor health are:

  • Cardiovascular disease/Stroke
  • Type 2 Diabetes
  • Obesity
  • Alcohol/Drugs/Suicide

These health issues usually arise from the current socioeconomic deprivation and poverty.

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9
Q

What is the Determinants of Health model by Dahlgren and Whitehead sometimes referred to as?

A

The Determinants of Health model by Dahlgren and Whitehead is sometimes referred to as the ‘onion model’.

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10
Q

Determinants of Health Model by Dahlgren and Whitehead.

A
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11
Q

What was the onion model designed to show?

A

The onion model displays the levels of impact/influence on ones health and is used by people who develop public health policies and strategies.

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12
Q

Give an ordinal scale the biggest killers in today’s scottish men.

A
  1. Ischaemic Heart Disease
  2. External Causes
  3. Cerebovascular Disease
  4. Chronic Liver Disease
  5. Oesophageal Cancer
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13
Q

How do we know if there’s a causal relationship/an associative relationship between certain factors and the associated outcome?

A

You’d go to the avilable evidence to find out if it’s a known causative factor or if it’s an associated factor.

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14
Q

What do we need to keep in mind when investigating if two factors are associated?

A

When investigating if two factors are associated, we need to keep in mind if:

  • X causes Y
  • Y causes X
  • X and Y are caused by Z
    • Z would be known as a cofounder.
  • X and Y are asssociated only by artefact
  • X and Y are associated by chance.
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15
Q

What does the phrase “X and Y are only associated by artefact” mean?

A

The phrase “X and Y are only associated by artefact” means that the association between the two variables are a result of the investigative procedure and does not occur naturally.

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16
Q

What is a Risk Factor?

A

A risk factor is something that increases your likelihood of getting disease?

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17
Q

What is a modifiable risk factor vs non-modifiable risk factor?

A

Risk factors are either modifiable, meaning you can take measures to change them, or non-modifiable, which means they cannot be changed.

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18
Q

What are examples of modifiable risk factors?

A

Examples of modifiable risk factors are:

  • Smoking
  • Diet
  • Physical activity
  • Blood pressure
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19
Q

What are examples of non-modifiable risk factors?

A

Examples of non-modifiable risk factors are:

  • Age
  • Family history
  • Ethnicity
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20
Q

What does research design do?

A

A research design orovides a framework for the collection and analaysis of data. It freflects the aims of the research including:

  • Describing what is going on
  • Expressing causal connections between variables of interest
  • Understanding health risk/outcomes/behaviour over time
  • Generalising beyond participants in the investigation.
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21
Q

What is the Research Design Framework?

A

WHat is the hypothesis you want to investogate?

  • What is the aim/objective?
    • Is it descriptive (what is going on?)
    • Explanatory (why - causation?)
    • Is the aim researchable - can apply and have appropriate research methods to assess the outcomes of interest.
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22
Q

What are the two research methods?

A

The two research methods are:

  • Quantative (e.g. anthropometric measurements, blood tests, objective physical activity, fitness, self-report questionnaires)
  • Qualitative (interviews, focus groups, observations)
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23
Q

What are anthropometric measurements?

A

Anthropometric measurements are a series of quantitative measurements of the muscle, bone, and adipose tissue used to assess the composition of the body.

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24
Q

What are the two main tyoes of research design?

A

The 2 main types of research design are:

  • Causal (explanatory) research
    • Experimental (RCT) design
    • Quasi-experimental design
  • Descriptive research
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25
Q

Whagt is a powered outcome, what’s the powered aim of FFIT programme?

A

A powered outcom is the main aim of the research determined by the number of the participants for reliability and the powered aim of FFIT it is weight loss at 12 months.

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26
Q

What is a non powered outcome?

A

A non powered outcome is one which does not dictate the sample size of the sample population.

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27
Q

How does a One group before-and-after design work?

A

A Longitudinal experiment works as so:

  1. Measure outcome in exposed group (A) before they have recieved intervention x (T1)
  2. Then apply intervention x to Group A
  3. Measure outcome in group A after they have recieved intervention x (T2)
  4. Estimate of the effect of intervention x is the change in outcome (T2 - T1)
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28
Q

What is the most common causal evaluation design?

A

Before-and-after research is the most common as it is easy and inexpensive.

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29
Q

Can the observed change from intervention x in a before and after experiment be explained soley by intervention x, and why?

A

No because there are external factors which may influence the T2 of the group and learning effects.

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30
Q

How is a Two group before and after experiment conducted?

A

Have two groups, one exposed to intevention (A), and control group (B).

Measure outcome in both groups at baseline (T1)

Apply inteverntion x to (A)

Measure outcome in both groups at follow up

Estimate effect of x by comparing change (T2 - T1) between groups.

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31
Q

What is selection bias?

A

Selection bias is the bias introduced by the selection of individuals, groups or data for analysis in such a way that proper randomization is not achieved, thereby ensuring that the sample obtained is not representative of the population intended to be analyzed.

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32
Q

How does selection bias effect two group before and after experiments?

A

Selection bias effects two group before and after experiments as it leads to one group being fundamentally different to the other groups, rendering results effectively unreliable.

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33
Q

How did selection bias effect the Lankarshire milk experiment and what was the problem with the experiment?

A

10k kids had to drink 3/4 pint of milk a day

Another 10k to get none

teachers tended to put weaker, less well nourished kids in interventuion group

study found that control group were taller and heavier than intervention group

milk had not led to smaller children but the two groups were fundamentally disimilar due to the initial selection bias.

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34
Q

How do we reduce selection bias?

A

To reduce selection bias one must use randomisation control trial (RCT) experimental design.

In this exoerimental design randomisation is used to allocate participanrts in group A or B at T1.

Then apply intevention x to group A only.

Measure outcome in both groups at follow up (T2)

Estimate the effect of x by comparing T2 -T1 between groups.

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35
Q

What is Cross sectional design research?

A

In research, a cross-sectional study is a type of observational study that analyzes data from a population, or a representative subset, at a specific point in time—that is, cross-sectional data.

Coined snapshot study as each participant is analysed at one point in time.

Allows researchers to look at many factors at once (age, income, gender as well as health risk factors and outcomes).

Designed to determine current state - prevelance

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36
Q

Give 3 sampling methods.

A
  • Random Sampling
    • Most representative - every member of the population has an equal chance of being picked.
  • Stratified Sampling
    • Separate groups e.g.ethnic minority vs majority, then sample systematically (e.g. every 20th postcode) to ensure you have adequate samples of each group.
  • Convenience Sampling
    • Take those people who are available however the representativeness is questionable.
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37
Q

What is the Longitudinal design?

A

Descriptive research design involves measuring participants at more than one point in time

Observing change in these participants gives a better basis for causal inferences than a cross sectional design.

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38
Q

What is rekiability?

A

Reliability refers to the consistency of an instrument/ measurements

  • Determines if the results are repeatable
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39
Q

What are the three common forms of reliability?

A

The three common forms of reliability are:

  1. Inter-rater reliability - when 2 or more people are taking the measurement or applying the instrument of measurement.
  2. Test-retest reliability - when you repeat the measure on one or more occasions and expect the result to be similar.
  3. Internal consistency reliability - Applies to questionnaires. Looks at the extent to which the items on the scale are all telling you the same thing.
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40
Q

What is validity?

A

Validity refers to the accuracy of an instrument/measurement

The degree to which you’re measuring what you’re claiming to measure.

There are different types:

Construct validity: Does the test measure the concept that it’s intended to measure?

Internal validity: The extent to which the dependent variables can be attributed to changeds in independent vairable.

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41
Q

What studies have the highest internal validity?

A

Studies with control and randomisation like an RCT have the highest internal validity.

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42
Q

What’s an RCT?

A

An RCT is a randomised control trial

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43
Q

What are the different types of validity?

A

The different types are:

Construct validity: Does the test measure the concept that it’s intended to measure?

Internal validity: The extent to which the dependent variables can be attributed to changeds in independent vairable.

External validity: The extent to which the results can be generalised.

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44
Q

Where does tension arise between internal validity and external validity?

A

The problem is, the more srictly controlled the study is, the higher the internal validity will be. However the lower the external validity will be.

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45
Q

What research design did the FFIT (Football Fans in Training) trial use?

A

The FFIT was a RCT (randomised control trial) to design the effectiveness of a weight managent programme delivered through a football regime to help men between 35 and 65 lose weight and retain the weight loss after 12 months.

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46
Q

Describe the two FFIT groups (control vs intervention group).

A

747 men in study, half randomly allocated to intervention group for 12 weeks. While other half were the control and did not participate in the intervention at all.

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47
Q

What happened after the 12 week programme in FFIT and why?

A

Both groups had measurements taken and were followed up after 12 months to find out if they had retained the changes over a longer term.

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48
Q

What were some of the challenges faced by researchers in the FFIT programme?

A

Between group contamination. It’s important that the control groups don’t know anything about the intervention group. They had to keep the groups seperate.

Hard to do amongst football fans. E.g. man in intervention group may be a fan of man in comparison group as they support the same team.

If the control group member found out about intervention may decide to do it as well and the results for the control will be skewered.

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49
Q

What is a solution to the FFIT group-group contamination issue?

A

A solution would be to do a cluster randomised control trial - randomisation of football clubs, not the men. Randomising the collective, not the individuals.

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50
Q

What solution did FFIT use to combat the contamination issue?

A

The groups were measured at different times at 12 weeks but not at baseline or 12 months

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51
Q

What is blinding?

A

Blinding is where researchers and participants do not know what group the participants are in.

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52
Q

Why is blinding important?

A

Blinding is important because researchers and/or participants may influence outcomes of the experiment.

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53
Q

Why did FFIT struggle with blinding initially and how did they overcome it?

A

FFIT struggled with blinding because the participants know if they are in the intervention or not and may of the fieldworkers knew the participants, becoming friendly and participants would tell researchers intentionally or non intentionally about their intervetion.

FFIT managed to overcome this issue by hiring new field workers for primary outcome (weight at 12 months). As they have no recollection of any of the participants groups.

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54
Q

Why was retention a problem for FFIT?

A

Lack of retention in a study makes results less reliable as there is an attrition bias due to the powered nature of the primary aim.

  • This was caused by the fact that only those with good outcomes want to be followed up.

Also if the loss:follow up ratio is higher in one group in an RCT the groups are no longer similar, leading to the same problem found with selection bias.

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55
Q

How did FFIT maximise retention?

A

FFIT offered home visits to maximise retention.

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56
Q

What were some of the challenges of home visits for FFIT?

A

Challenges faced included:

  • Distance
  • SATNAV locating issues
  • Communicare link was down (system they were using)
  • Very costly to get researchers to participants homes depending on where the participant was.
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57
Q

How effective was the home visits solution for retention

A

There was a 92% follow up; very effective

58
Q

What was the aim of FIT for LIFE?

A

The aim of FIT for LIFE

  • adapt FFIT to deliver to prisoners
  • Came about when prison officer saw FFIT on tv and thought it would be good for prisoners due to poor living environments and poor diet.
59
Q

What were the challenges of data collection in prisons?

A
  • Challenges included:
  • Fieldworker safety
  • Equipment clearance
    • Laptops, cameras, anything sharp and syringes proved to be problematic prohibited items as they were useful for measurements
60
Q

What was measured in FFIT and FIT for LIFE?

A

The measurements taken were:

  • Weight
  • Waistline
  • Height
  • Blood pressure
  • Body composition
61
Q

Challenges in prison data collection in FIT for LIFE

A

Literacy rates

Focus/concentration levels

Prisoners becoming agitaed and distressed

Incomplete data due to the lack of attention span and irritation

62
Q

What ws the primary aim of EuroFit?

A

Increase physical activity and decrease sedentary times over 12 months.

63
Q

How many participants in EuroFIT?

A

There were 1000 participants in EuroFIT?

64
Q

What technology based challenges did EuroFIT face?

A

What tech based challenges did EuroFIT face?

  • Lots of blood vials which had to be individually labelled
  • Had to send text reminders to get men to fast and this did not always work.
  • Had to get samples to Scotland from sites in England
65
Q

How is report data collected?

A

The report data was collected using questionnaires.

66
Q

What issues were faced in the questionnaire?

A
  • Data was often messy - needed extensive cleaning
  • Data missing as they may have skipped questions
  • Solutions included getting fieldworkers to complete questionnaire but not always possible. As:
    • Time consuming
    • Participants may have to leave
    • Good training to spot ‘non-sensical’ answers
  • Online questionnaires - can be programmed for sense. However:
    • Time consuming - need to learn software
    • WIFI availability?
  • Imputation could be used to resolve issue. - statistical technique to estimate the missing values
67
Q

What are the types of statistical testing?

A

Standard descriptive stats

  • Mean and standard deviation
  • Median and interquartile range (non-parametric data)
  • Frequencies
  • Mean change and 95% confidence intervals

Inferential stats (looks for significat differences between variables)

  • T - tests (2 measures - e.g. pre/post)
  • ANOVA (three or more measures, including between group differences)
  • Non - parametric equivalents (if data is not normally distributed)
68
Q

Normal vs. Non - Normally distributed data.

A

Normal Distribution is a distribution that has most of the data in the center with decreasing amounts evenly distributed to the left and the right. Non-normal Distributions Skewed Distribution is distribution with data clumped up on one side or the other with decreasing amounts trailing off to the left or the right.

69
Q

Why do we use qualitative data?

A

Qualatitive data is used to understand how things work

  • e.g. as part of a process evaluation in an experimental or quasi-experimental study
70
Q

Name some methods of collecting qualitative data.

A

Some methods include:

  • In depth 1:1 interviews
  • Focus groups
  • Observation
71
Q

What tool is used to conduct 1:1 in depth interviews and focus groups effectively?

A

The tool used to conduct 1:1 in depth interviews and focus groups effectively is called a topic guide. It makes sure the interview does not get off track and that the correct data is collected.

72
Q

What tool is used to conduct an observation effectively?

A

An observation proforma is used to dictate what field notes are about. It’s a list of topics relevant to research question you’re trying tp address wtih the observation.

73
Q

Give a difference between quantative and qualatatitve data.

A
  • Reliability and validity do not apply in qualatative data.
  • Any views count, even deviant views.
  • Sampling frames ensure representativeness of views
74
Q

What are the challenges of data collection in qualitative research?

A

Ensuring the interview venue is in a comfortable, private place as to make the participant feel safe and secure in disclosing information.

It is not always possible to do this. As reality doesn’t always allow for a quiet and comfortable place.

75
Q

What is Nvivo?

A

NVivo is a type of qualitative software which addresses patterns and trends amongst the data and the data patterns are called themes. Thus its thematic analysis.

76
Q

What is the difference between inductive and deductive analysis?

A

Deductive analysis is theory driven whereas Indiuctive analysis is theory generating.

77
Q

What is the formula for BMI?

A

BMI = weight/height2

78
Q

How many base pairs do humans have?

A

Humans have 3 billion base pairs.

79
Q

How many genes do humans have?

A

Humans have 20k-30k genes

80
Q

How genetically similar is a chimp and a cat to a human?

A

A chimp is 96% genetically similar to a human whereas a cat is 90% genetically similar to a cat.

81
Q

What was the first obesity gene discovered?

A

FTO was the first obesity gene discovered in 2007.

82
Q

Describe FTO’s association with bidy weight.

A

The FTO genotype is associated with a higher body weight. Those heterozygous for it are heavier than a person without it. Those homozygous for it are even heavier, at 1.8kg than a normal person on average.

83
Q

What is the potentail role of FTO?

A

People with the obesity-risk FTO variant have higher circulating levels of the hunger hormone, gherlin, in their blood.

This means they get hungry soon after eating food.

People with the obesity risk variant of the FTO gene eat more and prefer higher calorie foods compared with those with the low risk version.

84
Q

Compare the numbers of 65+ aged ppl with kids under 5 in 5 years and why?

A

In 5 years, the number of ppl aged 65+ will outnumber children under 5. This is driven by falling fertility rates and remarkable increases in life expectancy, population ageing will increase, even accelerate,

85
Q

When are you considered to have a family history of CVD?

A

You are considered to have a family history of CVD if:

  • Your dad or bro was under the age of 55 when they had CVD
  • Your mum or sis was under 65.
86
Q

What are examples of some behavioural risk factors?

A

Some examples of behaviorial risk factors are:

  • Physical inactivity
  • Dietary intake
  • Smoking
  • Alcohol intake
  • Sleep
87
Q

How many deaths are caused by physical inactivity and smoking globally, respectivley?

A

5.3 million deaths are caused by physical inactivity annually and 5.1 milliion are caused by smoking.

88
Q

What is the prevelance of smoking and physical inactivity?

A

The prevelance (number of adults who exhibit behaviour) of smoking and inactivity is 26% and 35% respectively.

89
Q

Give UK data for population attributable risk of smoking and inactitvty

A

8.7 and 9.3

90
Q

What is exercise?

A

Planned, structured and repetitive bodily movements done to improve physical health.

91
Q

What is the trend between intensity of vigorous exercise and relative risk of mortality?

A

The more vigorous exercise one does, the lower their risk of mortality.

92
Q

What is physical activity?

A

Any bodily movement produced by skeletal muscles that result in energy expenditure.

93
Q

What are the 2011 guidelines for physical activity?

A

In 2011 the guidelines for PA were:

  • 150 minutes of moderate or 75 mins of vigorous PA per week in bouts of at least 10 mins.
  • Muscle strengthening activities 2x per week
  • Minimise the amount of time spent sedentary.
94
Q

What are the 2019 guidelines for PA?

A

The guidelines for PA in 2019 are:

  • Some is good, more is better
  • Muscles strenghthening activities 2x per week
  • 150 mins of moderate PA and 75 mins of vigorous PA per week
    • Or even shorter durations of extremely vigorous activity
  • Minimise the amount of time sedentary.
95
Q

What are some of the benefits of PA?

A

In kids:

  • Bone health
  • Cognitive function
  • Muscle fitness

In adults:

  • Reduce risk of dementia
  • reduce anxiety
  • sleep

In elderly:

  • Reduces frailty
  • reduces falls
96
Q

What is health according to WHO in 1948?

A

The WHO definition of 1948 defined health as “A state of complete physical, mental and social. well-being and not merely the absence of. disease or infirmity”.

97
Q

Why is the WHO defintion of health criticised?

A

The WHO definition of health is criticised due to:

  • The absolutness of the word, “complete” in relation to wellbeing.
    1. This unintentionally contributes to the medicalisation of society. The requirement for “complete” health would leave most of us unhealthy all of the time. This allows for the tendencies of drug industries to redefine diseases. They’d use tech to scan for anything that isn’t completely healthy and suggest pills to buy from them.
98
Q

What is the second problem with the WHO definition of health?

A

The second problem is that since 1948 the demography of populations and the nature of disease have changed considerably.

  • In 1948 acute diseases presented the main burden of illness
  • Disease patterns have changed, with public health measures such as improved nutrtion, hygiene, and sanitation and more powerful healthcare interventions.
  • Chronic diseases are increasing worldwide.
  • In this context the WHO definition becomes counterproductive as it declares ppl with chronic diseases and disabilities and definitvely ill.
  • It minimises the role of the human capacity to cope with life’s ever-changing physical, emotional and social challenges and to function with fulfilment and a feeling of wellbeing with a chronic disease or disability.
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Q

What is the third problem with the WHO definition of health?

A

the third problem is the operationalisation of the definition. WHO has developed several systems to classify diseases and describe aspects of health, disability, functioning, and quality of life. Yet because of the reference to a complete state, the definition remains impracticable because ‘complete’ is neither operational or measurable.

100
Q

What is the Ottawa Charter definition of health?

A

To reach a state of complete physical mental and social wellbeing, an individual or group must be able to identify and to realize aspirations, to satisfy needs, and to change or cope with the environment. Health is, therefore, seen as a resource fo everyday life, not the objective of living.

101
Q

What is the preferred view on health?

A

“The ability to adapt and to self manage.”

102
Q

Diagram of the three domains of health

A
103
Q

What is physical health?

A

In the physical domain a healthy organism is capable of allostasis. When confronted with physiological stress, a healthy specimen is able to mount a protective response, to reduce the potential for harm, and restore an (adapted) equilibrium. If this physiological coping strategy is not successful, damage or “allostatic load” remains, which may finally result in illness.

104
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What is allostasis?

A

The maintenance of physiological homeostasis through changing circumstances.

105
Q

What is mental health?

A

In the mental domain Antonovsky says it’s the “sense of coherence” as a factor that contributes to a successful capacity to cope, recover from strong psychological stress, and prevent PTSDs.

106
Q

What does the “sense of coherence” include?

A

Subjective faculties enhancing the comprehensibility, manageability and meaningfulness of a difficult situation.

107
Q

What does a strengthened capability to adapt and to manage yourself do?

A

A strengthened capability to adapt and to manage yourself often improves subjective wellbeing and may result in a positive interaction between mind and body.

108
Q

What is social health?

A
  • People’s capacity to fulfil their potentials and obligations
  • Ability to manage their life with some degree of independence despite a medical condition
  • Ability to participate in social activities including work.
109
Q

List 5 cardiovascular diseases.

A
  1. Coronary Heart disease
  2. Angina
  3. Heart attack
  4. Congenital heart disease
  5. Stroke
110
Q

Diagram of Atheroclerosis stages.

A
111
Q

What happens if you have type 2 diabetes?

A

Type 2 diabetes means one’s pancreas cannot produce enough insuliin or the insulin produced does not work properly. Without enough insulin, the blood sugar lvls get too high.

112
Q

Hyperplasia, Dysplasia and Cancer Diagram

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113
Q

What is depression?

A

Depression is a low mood that lasts for a long time.

In mildest form depression can make you have low spirits at most severe, can be more life threatening.

114
Q

What is dementia?

A

Dementia is a broad umbrella term used to describe a range of progressive neurological disorders. There are many different types of dementia and some ppl may present with a combination of different types.

115
Q

What are the different types of dementia?

A

Alzheimer’s

Vascular dementia

frontotemporal

Dementia with Lewy bodies

Young onset dementia

116
Q

What are plaques and tangles in alzheimers?

A

Neurofibrillary tangles are insoluble twisted fibers found inside the brain’s cells. These tangles consist primarily of a protein called tau, which forms part of a structure called a microtubule.

Amyloid plaques are hard, insoluble accumulations of beta amyloid proteins that clump together between the nerve cells (neurons) in the brains of Alzheimer’s disease patients.

117
Q

What causes vascular dementia?

A

Vascular dementia is caused by reduced blood flow to the brain, which damages and eventually kills brain cells. This can happen as a result of: narrowing and blockage of the small blood vessels inside the brain. a single stroke, where the blood supply to part of the brain is suddenly cut off.

118
Q

What are the two causes of the profound changes in progress caused by?

A

Profound changes are in progress due to two major demograohic processes:

  • Population ageing
  • Population migration
119
Q

What was the population number of UK in 2016 and what is it projected to be in 2039?

A
  • In 2016 population of UK was 65.5 million
  • UK population is projected to keep growing reaching 74million + by 2039
  • Births are continuing to outnumber deaths and immigration continues to outnumber emmigration leading to larger population.
120
Q

What are the consequences of the recent population changes in the UK?

A

With lower birth rates and higher life expectancy, the shape of the UK is transforming. The proportion of those at working age is shrinking while those at a pensionable age is increasing. While a larger population can increase the size and productive capacity of the workforce, it also increases pressure and questions the sustainability to provide social services such as education, healthcare and housing.

121
Q

What are some age related conditions?

A

Some age related conditions:

  • Dementia
  • Frailty
  • Sacropenia
  • Chronic conditions (heart, musculoskeletal and circulatory systems)
  • Social isolation
  • Depression
122
Q

What is Frailty?

A

Frailty is the state of increased vulnerability to poor resolution of homeostasis after a stressor event and increases the risk of adverse outcomes, including falls, delirium and disability.

Whilst most older people do not become frail, frailty becomes more prevelant with age, affecting around 10% of those over 65, increasing to around 65% of those 90 and above.

123
Q

What are some of the symptoms of frailty?

A

Some of the symptoms of frailty include:

  • Increased risk of falls
  • Poorer mobility
  • Inability to pereform activities of daily living
  • Disability
  • incident hospitalisation
  • Death
124
Q

What is Sarcopenia?

A

Sarcopenia is a condition characterized by loss of skeletal muscle mass and function. Although it is primarily a disease of the elderly, its development may be associated with conditions that are not exclusively seen in older persons.

125
Q

What is the carstairs index?

A
  • developed in 1981 (census data)
  • 4 indicators
    • male unemployment
    • lack of car ownership
    • overcrowding in households
    • low occupational social class (IV and V)
126
Q

What are the pros and cons of the criteria in the carstairs index?

A

Some of the pros and cons include:

Pros

  • ​​simple
  • doesn’t include health measures (important when analysing health data)

Cons

  • lack of car ownership is not a fair reflection
  • only considers male unemployment which may have been an accurate representation in the 80s but the times have changed
127
Q

For what health outcomes is drinking alcohol a risk factor?

A
  • Alcohol related liver disease
128
Q

What are the stages of alcohol related liver disease?

A

1. Healthy liver

2. Fatty liver

  • Deposits of fat lead to liver enlargement

3. Liver fibrosis

  • Scar tissue forms

4. Cirrhosis

  • Growth of connective tissue destroys liver cells
129
Q

What is alcoholic polyneurothapy ?

A

People who drink too much may start to feel pain and tingling in their limbs. This is known as alcoholic neuropathy. In people with alcoholic neuropathy, the peripheral nerves have been damaged by too much alcohol use.

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Contemporary Issues in Biology (3 decks)

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