Exams Flashcards
1
Q
T/F: The choice of coil for any examination is one of the most important factors that determines the resultant SNR of the image.
A
True
2
Q
Which of the following are true when using any type of coil?
Check that the cables are intact (i.e. not damaged)
Check that the coil is plugged in properly
Place the coil as close as possible to the area under examination
Place the coil on bare skin, wires crossed
A
Check that the cables are intact (i.e. not damaged)
Check that the coil is plugged in properly
Place the coil as close as possible to the area under examination
3
Q
Image quality is dependent on which of the following factors?
SNR
CNR
Spatial resolution
Scan time
A
SNR
CNR
Spatial resolution
Scan time
4
Q
Which of the following best defines CNR?
The ratio of the amplitude of signal received by the coil to the amplitude of the noise
The difference in the SNR between two adjacent areas
The ability to distinguish between two points as separate and distinct
The time required to complete the acquisition of data
A
The difference in the SNR between two adjacent areas
5
Q
Spatial resolution may be increased by selecting which of the following?
Thick slices
Coarse matrices
Thin Slices
A large FOV
A
Thin Slices
6
Q
Which of the following best represents a coarse matrix?
512 X 512
256 X 128
256 X 256
A
256 X 128
7
Q
Which of the following best defines spatial resolution?
The difference in the SNR between two adjacent areas
The ratio of the amplitude of signal received by the coil to the amplitude of the noise
The ability to distinguish two between two points as separate and distinct
The time required to complete the acquisition of data
A
The ability to distinguish two between two points as separate and distinct
8
Q
Scan time can be decreased by using which of the following?
The most NEX allowable
A fine matrix
A short TR
A long TR
A
A short TR
9
Q
CNR between pathology and other structures can best be demonstrated by which of the following?
Utilizing T1 sequences
Non-contrast studies
Lower field strength magnets
Suppression of normal tissues via sequences that null signal from certain tissues (i.e. FLAIR, STIR)
A
Suppression of normal tissues via sequences that null signal from certain tissues (i.e. FLAIR, STIR)
10
Q
SNR may be increased by using which of the following?
A small FOV
A coarse matrix
A fine matrix
Gradient echo sequences
A
A coarse matrix
11
Q
T/F: If a technologist increases the matrix on a sequence (assuming the FOV remains the same), the spatial resolution will increase, but the SNR will decrease
A
True
12
Q
T/F: Increasing the TR results in increased SNR and increased scan time.
A
True
13
Q
T/F: Inversion recovery sequences begin with a 180 degree pulse.
A
True
14
Q
Which of the following sequences uses a 90 degree flip angle followed by several 180 degree rephasing pulses?
SE
FSE
IR
GRE
A
FSE
15
Q
Which of the following sequences fills all of K space in one repetition by using very long echo trains?
EPI
GRE
STIR
SE
A
EPI
16
Q
Which of the following occurs because nuclei that move through the slice may receive only one of the RF pulses applied?
Entry slice phenomenon
Time of flight
Intra-voxel dephasing
MRA
A
Time of flight
17
Q
T/F: Intra-voxel dephasing occurs as a result of the phase difference between stationary and flowing nuclei in the same voxel causing dephasing and signal loss.
A
True
18
Q
Identify which of the following are remedies of flow-related artifacts:
TOF
Spatial presaturation pulses
Intra-voxel dephasing
Gradient moment nulling
A
Spatial presaturation pulses
Gradient moment nulling
19
Q
T/F: Chemical shift artifact occurs when anatomy that lies within the boundaries of the receiver coil exists outside the FOV.
A
False
20
Q
T/F: Phase mismapping can be reduced by using spatial presaturation pulses between the origin of the artifact and the FOV.
A
True
21
Q
Which of the following is used to trigger each RF excitation pulse with cardiac gating?
P wave
QRS complex
R wave
T wave
A
R wave
22
Q
For optimal T1 weighting with ECG/Pe gating, a technologist would use which of the following:
Use 1 R to R interval
Use 2 or 3 R to R intervals
Use the trigger window
Use the PQRS complex X 2
A
Use 1 R to R interval
23
Q
T/F: The emotional well being of a patient is just as important as their physical condition.
A
True
24
Q
Which of the following is NOT a type of MRA?
Time of Flight (TOF)
Diffusion Weighted Imaging (DWI)
Phase Contrast (PC)
Contrast Enhanced MRA (CE-MRA)
A
Diffusion Weighted Imaging (DWI)
25
T/F: Gradient echo pulse sequences are preferred over spin echo sequences when attempting to reduce magnetic susceptibility artifact.
False
26
The b value determines the:
the type of proton being sampled
amount of diffusion weighting on an image
the TI
extrinsic contrast parameters
amount of diffusion weighting on an image
27
Sagitals through the head are prescribed from:
Posterior to Anterior
Left to Right
Right to Left
Superior to Inferior
Left to Right
28
Axial slices through the head/brain are prescribed from:
Left to Right
Right to Left
Superior to Inferior
Inferior to Superior
Inferior to Superior
29
T/F: Coverage for axial slices includes the foramen magnum to the superior surface of the brain.
True
30
T/F: There are five ventricles in the brain.
False
31
Which of the following sequences provides temporal resolution of enhancing lesions and indicates brain activity?
FLAIR
STIR
T1
Perfusion
Perfusion
32
Which of the following best describes the appearance of acute stroke on an axial DWI?
Bright
Dark
Bright
33
Which of the following sequences is known for its sensitivity to magnetic susceptibility?
SE
Perfusion
GRE
FLAIR
GRE
34
T/F: When positioning a patient for a head MRI exam, the horizontal alignment light should pass through the nasion.
True
35
Which cranial nerve provides motor control to the muscles of mastication and relays sensory information from the face and the head?
3rd
4th
5th
7th
5th
36
Which lobe of the brain is scanned for seizure protocol?
Parietal
Occipital
Temporal
Frontal
Temporal
37
T/F: Careful timing of post contrast pituitary scans is important because eventually the pituitary gland enhances itself, as well as a microadenoma, if present.
True
38
T/F: The main source of artifact in the brain is from flow motion of the popliteal artery.
False
39
Contrast is used to assess which of the following (select all that apply):
Active MS plaques
Metastases
The age of an infarct
Tumors such as meningiomas or neuromas
Active MS plaques
Metastases
The age of an infarct
Tumors such as meningiomas or neuromas
40
Which sequence describes this image:
Axial STIR
Axial FLAIR
Coronal STIR
Coronal FLAIR
Axial FLAIR
41
Which of the following anatomy is visualized on this image:
Lateral Ventrical
Parietal Lobe
IACs
Orbits
IACs
42
Which of the following best describes the pathology visualized on this image:
IACs
Acoustic Neuroma
Swan Ganz
Seizures
Acoustic Neuroma
43
Which of the following best describes the pathology visualized in this image:
Normal Pituitary- No Pathology
Macroadenoma
Microadenoma
Seizure Activity
Macroadenoma
44
Axial images of the orbits are angled with the:
lens
optic nerve
hard palate
temporal lobe
optic nerve
45
Common sources of artifact for an orbital MR exam include all of the following except:
eye movement
flow motion in the Circle of Willis
using a small FOV- aliasing
zipper artifact
zipper artifact
46
Which of the following is another word for bulging of one or both eyes?
Pseudotumor
Proptosis
Sarcoid
COW
Proptosis
47
Which of the following is a demyelinating disease of the CNS?
COW
CCF
Graves disease
Multiple sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis
48
T/F: Fat saturation techniques are valuable when imaging the orbits post contrast due to the presence of orbital fat.
True
49
Sagital TMJ images are angled with:
orbital nerve
perpendicular to the mandibular condyles
the temporal bone
the temporal lobe
perpendicular to the mandibular condyles
50
T/F: Closed and open mouth views are performed for TMJs.
True
51
Which of the following sequences would be most helpful in diagnosing MS?
Sagital STIR
Sagital FLAIR
Thin slices through the optic chiasm
Open and closed views
Sagital FLAIR
52
To image the veins of the head:
a pre-saturation pulse is placed inferior to the FOV
a pre-saturation pulse is placed superior to the FOV
contrast must always be used
the COW is visualized
a pre-saturation pulse is placed inferior to the FOV
53
Which cranial nerve has receptors for the sense of smell?
CN I
CN II
CN III
CN VI
CN I
54
Which of the following contribute to the structure of the bony orbit? (choose all that apply)
Frontal
Lacrimal
Sphenoid
Occipital
Frontal
Lacrimal
Sphenoid
55
Indications for an MRA of the Head include which of the following?
Intracranial vascular assessment of aneurysms and infarcts
Suspected internal meniscal derangement
Graves disease
Proptosis
Intracranial vascular assessment of aneurysms and infarcts
56
Which of the following would best demonstrate hemorrhage?
STIR
FLAIR
GRE
FSE
GRE
57
Which of the following protocols would include slices through the temporal lobes?
Orbits
MS
Seizures
IACs
Seizures
58
T/F: Careful timing of post contrast pituitary scans is important because eventually the pituitary gland enhances itself, as well as a microadenoma, if present.
True
59
T/F: There are four ventricles in the brain.
True
60
How many bones contribute to the structure of the bony orbit?
3
5
7
9
7
61
The b value determines the:
the type of proton being sampled
amount of diffusion weighting on an image
the TI
extrinsic contrast parameters
amount of diffusion weighting on an image
62
Sagitals through the head are prescribed from:
Posterior to Anterior
Left to Right
Right to Left
Superior to Inferior
Left to Right
63
Which sequence describes this image:
Axial STIR
Axial FLAIR
Coronal STIR
Coronal FLAIR
Axial FLAIR
64
Sagital cervical spine slices are prescribed in which direction?
Right to Left
Left to Right
Posterior to Anterior
Anterior to Posterior
Left to Right
65
T/F: A common artifact seen when scanning the cervical spine region is the result of swallowing motion.
True
66
If a patient will not fit in the spine coil with the anterior aspect snapped down, which of the following would be the next best option to obtain the best possible SNR?
Use a halo
Use a flex coil
Use the anterior piece of the head coil
Use a c-collar
Use a flex coil
67
T/F: Contrast is routinely used for disc disease in the cervical spine.
False
68
T/F: Contrast is routinely used in the cervical spine for patients with a diagnosis of MS.
True
69
T/F: A Chiari Malformation can be see on a cervical spine image.
True
70
T/F: All halos are MRI safe.
False
71
On T1 weighted images of the spine, the CSF appears:
Hyperintense to the spinal cord
Hypointense to the spinal cord
Isointense to the spinal cord
None of the above
Hypointense to the spinal cord
72
For optimal imaging of the cervical spine, patient positioning and local coil placement are:
Supine/around the neck to include from C1 to C7
Supine/on top of the neck to include from C1 to C7
Supine/beside the neck to include from C1 to C7
Prone/on top of the neck to include from C1 to C7
Supine/around the neck to include from C1 to C7
73
A patient presenting with neurological symptoms consistent with cervical cord compression, neck pain, and raised inflammatory markers likely has \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. This patient's sagital T1 +C can be seen below.
Cervical Spine Metastases
Spinal Meningioma
Multiple Sclerosis
Epidural Abscess
Epidural Abscess
74
The image shown below was acquired in which imaging plane?
Axial
Sagital
Coronal
Off-axis (oblique)
Sagital
75
The image shown below is an example of:
A T1 weighted image
A T2 weighted image
A spin (proton) density weighted image
A T2\* weighted image
All of the above
A T2 weighted image
76
Which vertebra is indicated by the arrow?
C3
C4
C5
C6
C4
77
Which best describes the anatomy the arrow is indicating in the image below?
CSF
Vertebral Body
Spinal Cord
Cervical disc
Spinal Cord
78
On the image shown below, the vertebral bodies appear bright because:
Bone is always bright on MR images
Cortical bone cannot be seen on MR images
Bone marrow contains fat
Bone marrow contains water
Bone marrow contains fat
79
Which vessel is indicated by the blue arrow shown below?
Right internal carotid
Right external carotid
Left vertebral
Left common carotid
Left vertebral
80
What is indicated by the blue arrow in the image shown below?
Epiglottis
Pharynx
Anterior Longitudinal Ligament
Supraspinous Ligament
Anterior Longitudinal Ligament
81
Which of the following best describes the imaging plane shown below?
Axial
Sagital
Coronal
Off axis (oblique)
Axial
82
T/F: FOV boundaries for sagital thoracic spine images include from T2 to L1.
False
83
Axial slices through the thoracic spine are angled parallel to:
Z joints
spinal cord
spinous processes
disc spaces
disc spaces
84
T/F: Additional thinner axial slices are often prescribed through areas of pathology.
True
85
To minimize aliasing in axial slices of the thoracic spine, one would use:
Chemical presaturation
Saturation pulses
Breath holds
Oversampling
Oversampling
86
Flow from CSF in the thoracic spine can be minimized by utilizing:
Chemical Presaturation
Oversampling
Saturation Pulses
Breath holds
Saturation Pulses
87
On sagital T-Spine images that demonstrate cord compression, the vertebral level can be determined by (think about how you determine this in clinicals when scanning):
Using the sternal notch as a landmark and counting down from T1
Using the xyphoid as a landmark and counting up from T12
Using a large FOV localizer and counting down from C2
Using lead markers to mark T12 and T1 on large FOV images
Using a large FOV localizer and counting down from C2
88
T/F: SNR is dependent on the quality of the coil
True
89
Cancer that begins in the plasma cells in bone marrow is known as:
Glioma
Multiple Sclerosis
Multiple Myeloma
Metastatic disease
Multiple Myeloma
90
In spine imaging, to rule out metastatic lesions of the spinal cord, contrast enhancement can be used with T1 weighted images because:
Metastatic lesions enhance and normal cord does not
Scar enhances and disk does not
Normal cord enhances and metastatic lesions do not
CSF is bright and cord is dark
Metastatic lesions enhance and normal cord does not
91
T/F: Myeloma is the medical term for a tumor that begins in the brain or spinal cord.
False
92
A patient presents with pain in the neck and shoulder, numbness and tingling in the fingers, and a weak grip. Which of the following is most likely the cause?
Whiplash
Herniated thoracic disc
Thoracic outlet syndrome
Schwannoma
Thoracic outlet syndrome
93
T/F: Spinal schwannomas arise from nerves within the spinal canal.
True
94
The following image was most likely acquired with which of the following?
A 5 inch surface coil
Phased array coils
A Helmholtz coil pair
The body coil
Phased array coils
95
Which of the following best describes the image below?
Multiple Myeloma
Metastatic disease
Compression fracture
Herniated disc
Compression fracture
96
Which vertebra is involved in the pathology shown on the image below?
T2
T1
C7
T3
T1
97
Which of the following best describes the weighting used to obtain the image shown below:
T1
FLAIR
T2
T1 FS
T2
98
Which of the following best describes what is indicated by the arrow on the image below:
Gibbs or truncation artifact
Chemical shift artifact
The supraspinous ligament
The cruciate ligament
The supraspinous ligament
99
Which of the following is indicated by the arrow shown on the image below:
Saturation band
Anterior spinous ligament
Signal drop off
Metastatic disease
Saturation band
100
Which of the following is the most inferior portion of the spinal cord?
Cauda equina
Conus medullaris
Filum terminale
Sacral hiatus
Conus medullaris
101
At which level does the spinal cord typically terminate?
L1-L2
L2-L3
L3-L4
L5-S1
L1-L2
102
Which of the following anchors the spinal cord to the coccyx?
Conus medularis
Filum terminale
Cauda equina
Sacral hiatus
Filum terminale
103
T/F: Patients may be positioned feet first supine for an MRI of the lumbar spine.
True
104
T/F: Scar tissue enhances immediately after the injection, but disc material does not.
True
105
Which anatomy is indicated by number one on the diagram shown below?
Spinous process
Intervertebral disc
Ligament flavum
Transverse processes
Spinous process
106
Which anatomy is indicated by number two on the diagram shown below?
Spinous process
Body
Superior articular process
Transverse processes
Transverse processes
107
Which anatomy is indicated by number one on the diagram shown below?
Spinous process
Lamina
Pedicle
Ligament flavum
Lamina
108
Which anatomy is indicated by number two on the diagram shown below?
Body
Spine
Superior articular process
Lamina
Superior articular process
109
Which anatomy is indicated by number three on the diagram shown below?
Body
Spinous process
Lamina
Pedicle
Pedicle
110
Which anatomy is indicated by number one on the diagram shown below?
Ligament flavum
Interspinous ligament
Anterior longitudinal ligament
Posterior longitudinal ligament
Posterior longitudinal ligament
111
Which anatomy is indicated by number two on the diagram shown below?
Superior articular process
Posterior longitudinal ligament
Anterior longitudinal ligament
Intervertebral disc
Anterior longitudinal ligament
112
Match the following numbers with the correct anatomy, as indicated on the image shown below:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Aorta
Intervertebral disc
Vertebral body
Sacrum
113
Which of the following describes the below image:
Coronal slice prescription for lumbar spine imaging
Sagital slice prescription boundaries
Saturation band placed anterior to the spine on a sagital image
Dynamic lumbar imaging
Saturation band placed anterior to the spine on a sagital image
114
On the image shown below, the lines indicate:
The FOV
The location of the saturation pulse
The location of the axial oblique slices
An interleaved acquisition
The location of the axial oblique slices
115
Positioning for a female pelvis MR exam would include centering the horizontal alignment light to pass:
through the symphysis pubis
through the iliac crest
through a point midway between the symphysis pubis and the iliac crest
through the level of the umbilicus
through a point midway between the symphysis pubis and the iliac crest
116
When scanning a routine female pelvis exam, axials would be angled in which manner?
Parallel to the uterus
Perpendicular to the cervix
Parallel to the cervix
Perpendicular to the uterus
Perpendicular to the uterus
117
T/F: If a patient has had a hysterectomy, axials and coronals would be straight and not angled with any anatomy.
True
118
Which of the following is a malignant bone tumor that affects children and young adults? the tumor may start anywhere in the body, usually in the long bones of the arms and legs, the pelvis, or the chest.
Chordoma
Transitional Cell Carcinoma
Teratoma
Ewing Sarcoma
Ewing Sarcoma
119
T/F: Teratomas are present at birth and may contain hair, teeth, and other tissues.
True
120
T/F: Leiomyomas are benign tumors that arise from overgrowth of smooth muscle and connective tissue in the bladder.
False
121
Which anatomy is identified by #2 in the image shown below?
Colon
Rectum
Prostate
Symphysis pubis
Symphysis pubis
122
Which anatomy is indicated by #4 in the image shown below?
Uterus
Colon
Prostate
Bladder
Prostate
123
Which imaging plane was the following image obtained in:
Axial
Coronal
Sagital
Off center
Axial
124
Which anatomy is indicated by #3 in the image shown below?
Uterus
Bladder
Prostate
Rectum
Bladder
125
Which type of sequence is most likely used to obtain the image shown below?
T1
Fluid in the bladder is dark, fat in the tissue bright
T1 FS
T2
STIR
T1
126
The image shown below is best described by which of the following?
Sagital T1 Female Pelvis
Sagital T2 Female Pelvis
Sagital T1 Male Pelvis
Sagital T2 Male Pelvis
Sagital T2 Female Pelvis
127
Which anatomy is indicated by #1 in the image shown below?
Bladder
Prostate
Uterus
Symphysis pubis
Uterus
128
Which of the following best describes the pathology visualized on the image shown below:
Ewing Sarcoma
Sacral agenesis
Sacral chordoma
Teratoma
Teratoma
129
Which pathology is demonstrated on the image shown below?
Uterine cancer
Prostate cancer
Bladder cancer
Inflammation of the cervix
Bladder cancer
130
Which anatomy is indicated by #1 on the image shown below?
Ischium
Illium
Pubic crest
Ischial spine
Illium
131
Which anatomy is indicated by #2 on the image shown below?
Ilium
Ischium
Iliac crest
Ischial spine
Iliac crest
132
Which of the following best describes the pathology demonstrated in the image shown below?
Sacral agenesis
Ewing sarcoma
Sacral chordoma
Teratoma
Sacral agenesis
133
Positioning for shoulder imaging, supine with arm down by side, relax the shoulder, and thumb up for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Slight internal rotation
Slight external rotation
Flexion
Extension
Neutral Position
Neutral Position
134
The image shown below was obtained by utilizing which of the following scan planes?
Axial imaging plane
Sagital imaging plane
Coronal imaging plane
Off-axis (oblique) imaging plane
Coronal imaging plane
135
The image shown below is an example of:
A T1 weighted image
A T2 weighted image
A proton density weighted image
A STIR weighted image
A T1 weighted image
136
Which anatomy is indicated by number five on the image shown below:
Radial head
Olecranon fossa
Medial epicondyle
Olecranon
Olecranon fossa
137
Which anatomy is indicated by number two on the image shown below:
Olecranon
Ulna
Radial head
Lateral epicondyle
Radial head
138
The imaging sequences best used to visualize bruises or contusions within the bone are:
Spin echo
Gradient echo
Short Tau Inversion Recovery (STIR)
Fast spin echo
Short Tau Inversion Recovery (STIR)
139
Adhesive capsulitis is also known as:
Tennis elbow
Carpal tunnel
Frozen shoulder
Trough lesion
Frozen shoulder
140
Which of the following describes a typical injury pattern observed after a posterior glenohumeral dislocation?
Adhesive capulitis
Hill-Sachs lesion
Trough lesion
Paralabral joint cyst
Trough lesion
141
Which diagnosis is considered most likely in a patient who presents with pain, swelling, and reddening over the olecranon. The MR images show bone marrow and soft tissue edema.
Rheumatoid arthritis
Osteomyelitis
Triceps tendon tear
SLAP tear
Osteomyelitis
142
T/F: A SLAP tear occurs where the biceps tendon anchors to the labrum.
True
143
Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number twelve on the image shown below:
Scapula
Teres major muscle
Spine of the scapula
Acromion
Scapula
144
Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number six on the image shown below:
Humeral head
Lateral epicondyle
Acromion
Greater tuberosity
Greater tuberosity
145
Coronal oblique images of the shoulder are angled parallel with which anatomy?
Glenoid cavity
Supraspinatus muscle
Bicipital groove
AC joint
Supraspinatus muscle
146
T/F: When positioning the patient for an MR examination of the shoulder, the humerus should be perpendicular to the scan table.
False
147
T/F: MR arthrography requires the injection of barium directly into the joint of interest, prior to the MR examination.
False
148
Which anatomy is indicated by number one on the image shown below:
Neck of radius
Radial tuberosity
Medial epicondyle
Coronoid process
Radial tuberosity
149
The coil usually preferred to image the shoulder for the maximization of SNR is the:
Body coil
Phased array coil
Surface or local coil
Small extremity coil
Surface or local coil
150
Which anatomy is indicated by number four on the image shown below:
Medial epicondyle
Capitellum
Coronoid process
Trochlea
Trochlea
151
T/F: Wrist imaging requires a small dedicated surface coil.
True
152
Which of the following is commonly known as washerwoman's sprain?
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
De Quervain Tenosynovitis
Hamartoma
De Quervain Tenosynovitis
153
T/F: MRI can assist in detecting the presence of osteomyelitis.
True
154
A hamartoma is best described as:
a ganglion that often appears as a bump on the hand or wrist.
a bone cyst.
a benign tumor composed of mature hyaline cartilage.
a benign tumor-like malformation made up of an abnormal mixture of cells and tissues found in the body.
a benign tumor-like malformation made up of an abnormal mixture of cells and tissues found in the body.
155
Which of the following is demonstrated in the image shown below?
Carpal tunnel syndrome
Bone cyst
Dorsal wrist ganglion
Hamartoma
Dorsal wrist ganglion
156
Which of the following best describes the image shown below?
Axial T1
Axial T2
Axial T2 FS
Coronal T2 FS
Axial T2 FS
157
Which anatomy is indicated by number one on the image shown below?
Capitate
Metacarpals
Phalanges
Radius
Phalanges
158
Which anatomy is indicated by number four on the image shown below?
Capitate
Metacarpals
Scaphoid
Trapezoid
Scaphoid
159
Which anatomy is indicated by number six on the image shown below?
Phalanges
Ulna
Radius
Hamate
Pisiform
Radius
160
Carpal tunnel syndrome occurs as a result of compression of which nerve?
Ulnar
Transverse carpal
Median
Radial
Median
161
Which of the following is not in the distal row of carpal bones?
Trapezium
Capitate
Hamate
Lunate
Lunate
162
A patient who presents with numbness of the first three digits and nighttime pain from the wrist to the forearm most likely has:
Hamartoma
Carpal tunnel syndrome
Sarchoidosis
De Quervain Tenosynovitis
Carpal tunnel syndrome
163
When imaging the wrist, the optimal plane in which to visualize the carpal tunnel is the:
Sagital
Axial
Coronal
Oblique
Axial
164
T/F: For an MRI of the hand or wrist, a patient may be positioned prone or supine, depending on the coil options available.
True
165
T/F: Contrast is routinely used in MRI of the hand.
False
166
T/F: Patient motion is a concern in hand imaging. The patient should be immobilized as much as possible.
True
167
Which of the following best describes the image weighting used in the image shown below?
T1
T2
T1 FS
T2 FS
T1
168
The image shown below was acquired in which imaging plane?
Axial
Coronal
Sagital
Oblique
Sagital
169
T/F: A popliteal artery aneurysm is the most 2nd most common type of aneurysm in the body.
True
170
Axial slices for an MR hip protocol are prescribed:
Inferior to superior
Posterior to anterior
Superior to inferior
Anterior to posterior
Superior to inferior
171
Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number one on the image shown below?
Acetabulum
Iliac crest
Pubis
Coccyx
Iliac crest
172
To minimize magnetic susceptibility artifact from a hip prosthesis, a technologist should:
Use GRE sequences
Use SE or FSE sequences with a broad receive bandwidth
Use as small a FOV as possible
Increase the SNR
Use SE or FSE sequences with a broad receive bandwidth
173
The hip is one of the most frequent sites for which of the following:
ACL tears
Ganglion cysts
Baker cysts
Avascular necrosis
Avascular necrosis
174
The optimal plane to use when evaluating patients for cruciate ligament tears of the knee is the:
Sagital
Axial
Coronal
Axial and coronal
Sagital
175
T/F: A bursa is a fat filled sac that allows smooth motion between two uneven surfaces.
False
176
What pathology is demonstrated in the images shown below?
Hip bursitis
Avascular necrosis
Synovial sarcoma
Baker cyst
Avascular necrosis
177
What type of weighting is demonstrated in the image shown below?
T1
T2
STIR
T2 FS
T2
178
Which of the following best describes the ACL?
Extends from the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle to the anterior tibial spine
Extends from the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle to the anterior tibial spine
Extends from the medial aspect of the medial femoral condyle to the anterior tibial spine
Extends from the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle to the posterior tibial spine
Extends from the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle to the anterior tibial spine
179
Which of the following is the most common mass in the popliteal fossa?
Popliteal aneurysm
Synovial sarcoma
Baker cyst
Ganglion cyst
Baker cyst
180
T/F: It is crucial that technologists obtain pertinent patient history and document the information for the interpreting radiologist.
True
181
Which of the following is indicated by number five on the image shown below?
Medial collateral ligament
Medial meniscus
ACL
Medial tibial condyle
Medial meniscus
182
Which of the following is indicated by number six on the image shown below?
Lateral collateral ligament
Tibial spine
ACL
PCL
PCL
183
To better evaluate the ACL, positioning for knee imaging may require:
15 degree external rotation
15 degree internal rotation
Flexion
Extension
15 degree external rotation
184
Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number two on the image shown below?
Acetabulum
Iliac crest
Lesser trochanter
Obturator foramen
Acetabulum
185
T/F: False aneurysms are usually the result of knee trauma, surgery/intervention or infection.
True
186
T/F: MR knee arthrography can be useful to identify recurrent tears in the knee following meniscectomy.
True
187
Which of the following is indicated by number one on the image shown below?
Medial cuneiform
Navicular
Hallux
Cuboid
Medial cuneiform
188
T/F: When performing a MSK study, it is often helpful to place a marker over the ROI.
True
189
Which of the following is thought to be due to chronic entrapment of the nerve by the intermetatarsal ligament?
PVNS
Morton's Neuroma
Synovial sarcoma
Calcaneal fatigue fracture
Morton's Neuroma
190
Which of the following best describes the image shown below?
Sagital T1 Forefoot
Sagital T1 Hindfoot
Sagital T2 Hindfoot
Sagital T2 Forefoot
Sagital T1 Hindfoot
191
Which of the following best describes the pathology shown in the image below?
Synovial sarcoma
PVNS
Morton's neuroma
Stress fracture
Stress fracture
192
Which of the following is indicated by number two on the image shown below?
Medial cuneiform
Navicular
Cuboid
Talus
Navicular
193
T/F: MRI is the most sensitive detection method for calcaneal stress fracture.
True
194
Which of the following is indicated by number six on the image shown below?
Tarsals
Metatarsals
Phalanges
Hindfoot
Metatarsals
195
Which of the following is indicated by number one on the image shown below?
Medial cuneiform
Sesamoid
Hallux
Talus
Hallux
196
Which of the following best describes the image shown below?
Axial forefoot
Short axis forefoot
Long axis forefoot
Coronal hindfoot
Short axis forefoot
197
Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number one on the image shown below?
Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament
Calcaneofibular ligament
Achilles Tendon
Posterior talofibular ligament
Achilles Tendon
198
Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number three on the image shown below?
Tibia
Fibula
Calcaneus
Talus
Talus
199
T/f: Positioning the feet close together and at the same level is the best method to reduce wrap for ankle imaging.
False
200
Which of the following is demonstrated on the image shown below?
Tendonitis
Mass protocol
Sarcoma
Achilles tendon rupture
Achilles tendon rupture
201
Which of the following best describes the image shown below?
T1 Sagital
T2 Sagital
T2 FS Sagital
FLAIR Sagital
T2 FS Sagital
202
The image shown below most likely demonstrates:
Stress fracture
Sarcoma
Ankle arthrography
Achilles rupture
Ankle arthrography
203
T/F: Ideal ankle positioning includes dorisflexion of the foot.
True
204
T/F: Toe movement will not affect MR foot image quality.
False
205
Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number one on the image shown below:
Spleen
Liver
Stomach
Gallbladder
Liver
206
Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number two on the image shown below:
Gallbladder
Aorta
Inferior vena cava
Hepatic artery
Inferior vena cava
207
Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number three on the image shown below:
Spleen
Left kidney
Liver
Diaphragm
Diaphragm
208
Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number four on the image shown below:
Spleen
Liver
Pancreas
Stomach
Stomach
209
Positioning for an abdominal MRI would include centering the horizontal alignment light on the patient's:
Belly button
Xyphoid process
Lower costal margin- L3
Iliac crest
Lower costal margin- L3
210
T/f: Careful explanation of free breathing and breath holds is crucial to a good abdominal study.
True
211
Prior to an MRCP examination, patients should be NPO for __ hours.
one
two
three
four
four
212
Patients fast prior to an MRCP to do all but which of the following?
Decrease fluid secretions in the stomach and duodenum
Decrease bowl peristalsis
Promote gallbladder distension
Increase the incidence of gallstones
Increase the incidence of gallstones
213
Which of the following best describes ascites?
A disease in which the liver becomes permanently damaged
A type of kidney failure
The accumulation of excess fluid in the abdominal cavity
An infection of the spleen
The accumulation of excess fluid in the abdominal cavity
214
Enlargement of the left lobe of the liver is most likely a sign of which of the following diseases processes?
Ascites
Hepatic mets
Cirrhosis
Renal failure
Cirrhosis
215
The image shown below is from which of the following exams?
Small bowel
MRCP
Dynamic MRA
Renal artery
MRCP
216
Which of the following is indicated by the white arrow on the image shown below?
Renal artery stenosis
Stone
Signal drop off
Pt was NPO too long-- air in the bowel
Stone
217
Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number one on the image shown below:
Left kidney
Right kidney
Liver
Adrenal gland
Right kidney
218
Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number two on the image shown below:
Spleen
Liver
Bowel
Psoas muscle
Psoas muscle
219
Which organ lies transversely and a bit obliquely and across the lumbar spine in the abdominal cavity?
Liver
Spleen
Adrenals
Pancreas
Pancreas
220
The image shown below most likely represents which of the following:
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)
Renal stenosis
Gallstones
Small bowel obstruction
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)
221
Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number two on the image shown below:
Left renal artery
Gonadal artery
Superior mesenteric artery
Inferior mesenteric artery
Superior mesenteric artery
222
Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number four on the image shown below:
Inferior mesenteric artery
Left internal iliac artery
Left external iliac artery
Gonadal artery
Left internal iliac artery
223
Which anatomy is indicated by number one on the image shown below:
Ducts
Lobules
Lymph nodes
Adipose Tissue
Lymph nodes
224
Which anatomy is indicated by number four on the image shown below:
Ducts
Lobules
Lymph nodes
Adipose Tissue
Ducts
225
Which of the following marks the upper boundary of breast tissue?
Sternum
Third rib
Clavicle
Chest muscles
Clavicle
226
The American Cancer Society recommends screening breast MRI in addition to annual mammograms in which of the following?
Patients with less than a 15% lifetime risk of breast cancer.
To evaluate implant integrity.
In all women over the age of 40.
In patients with greater than 20% lifetime risk of breast cancer.
In patients with greater than 20% lifetime risk of breast cancer.
227
In dynamic breast imaging, lesions that ___________ are suspicious for malignancy.
wash in and out quickly
wash in and out slowly
display plateau enhancement
show no enhancement
wash in and out quickly
228
T/F: The optimal imaging window for evaluation of breast cancer is immediately following the start of the menstrual cycle.
False
229
The linguine sign is:
indicative of thoracic aortic aneurysm
indicative of intracapsular implant rupture
a slice imaging plane for cardiac MRI
indicative of breast cancer
indicative of intracapsular implant rupture
230
To minimize pulsatile flow motion artifacts, cardiac images are acquired by:
Taking the patient's pulse, calculating the heart rate in beats per minute, then entering this data into the imaging system
Attaching ECG leads, monitoring the cardiac cycle and triggering the pulse sequence from each R wave
Performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation
None of the above
Attaching ECG leads, monitoring the cardiac cycle and triggering the pulse sequence from each R wave
231
Which of the following separates the right atrium and right ventricle?
Mitral valve
Tricuspid valve
Semilunar valve
Septum
Tricuspid valve
232
Which of the following best describes the image shown below:
Short axis view
Long axis view
Three chamber view
Four chamber view
Long axis view
233
The "candy cane" view is best described by which of the following:
Long axis view of the heart
Sagital/oblique view of the thoracic aorta
Axial view of the thoracic aorta
Sagital/oblique view of the pulmonary arteries
Sagital/oblique view of the thoracic aorta
234
Which of the following best describes the image shown below:
Cardiac enhancement
Ascending aortic aneurysm
Long axis view of the heart
Pulmonary mets
Ascending aortic aneurysm
235
Which of the following is indicated by number two on the image shown below:
Ascending aorta
Aortic arch
Thoracic aorta
Brachiocephalic artery
Aortic arch
236
T/F: The most common site of aneurysms in the thoracic aorta is the ascending aorta.
True
237
# Choose all of the following that describe the image shown below:
Rapid wash in and wash out enhancement
Gradual enhancement over time
Suspicious for malignancy
Likely benign
Gradual enhancement over time
Likely benign
238
Which of the following best describes the image shown below:
Breast MR image
Black blood imaging
Bright blood imaging
Pulmonary stenosis
Black blood imaging
239
No signal arises from the lungs because:
There are no protons in air
There is no air in the lung during image acquisition
There are not enough mobile protons in the air
Air and moving blood have the same number of protons and, therefore, both appear black
There are not enough mobile protons in the air
240
T/F: Thoracic aortic aneurysms may cause no symptoms at all.
True
241
Which of the following best describes number one on the image shown below:
External Iliac Artery
Femoral Artery
Aorta
Internal Iliac Artery
Femoral Artery
242
A/an _________ can break loose and cause a pulmonary embolism.
Atherosclerosis
Lymph node
Arterial stenosis
DVT
DVT
243
T/F: MRA and MRV can be performed either with contrast or without contrast, using different imaging techniques.
True
244
Which of the following best describes number eleven on the image shown below:
Femoral Vein
Internal Iliac Vein
Great Saphenous Vein
Anterior Tibial Vein
Great Saphenous Vein
245
Which of the following is considered the most common cause of PAD?
Shiny skin on legs
No pulse or weak pulse in the legs or feet
Atherosclerosis
Leg numbness or weakness
Atherosclerosis
246
T/F: Patients are positioned supine head first for run-off exams.
False
247
T/F: MRA is generally considered "non-invasive."
True
248
Most deep vein blood clots occur in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Foot
IVC
Lungs
Lower leg or thigh
Lower leg or thigh
249
T/F: Motion artifact can be problematic in 2D TOF imaging.
True
250
Indications for MRV of the lower extremities includes all but which of the following?
Leg swelling
Evaluation for free-floating thrombus
Recent orthopedic surgery
Recent twisted ankle
Recent twisted ankle
251
On the image shown below, the arrow is most likely indicating which of the following:
Great saphenous vein
Popliteal artery
Posterior tibial artery
Femoral artery
Posterior tibial artery
252
When using MRA to evaluate peripheral vascular flow, such as that within the arteries of the legs, saturation pulses are placed:
Placed superior to the acquired slices
Placed in the acquired slices
Placed inferior to the acquired slices
Not necessary
Placed inferior to the acquired slices
253
At standard doses, gadolinium has the most apparent effect on the ___ relaxation time and therefore is used as an enhancement agent on \_\_\_.
T1/T1 weighted images
T2/T2 weighted images
T1/T2 weighted images
T2/T1 weighted images
T1/T1 weighted images
254
T/F: When positioning a patient's legs for a lower extremity vascular study, the legs should be placed as far apart as possible.
False
255
The arrow on the non-enhanced gradient-recalled echo axial image below is most likely indicative of:
Tumor
Absence of venous flow in the left femoral vein, with flow shown on the right
Normal flowing blood, with a clot visualize on the right
Atherosclerosis
Absence of venous flow in the left femoral vein, with flow shown on the right
256
