Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MRI Imaging Procedures > Exams > Flashcards

Exams Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: The choice of coil for any examination is one of the most important factors that determines the resultant SNR of the image.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following are true when using any type of coil?

Check that the cables are intact (i.e. not damaged)

Check that the coil is plugged in properly

Place the coil as close as possible to the area under examination

Place the coil on bare skin, wires crossed

A

Check that the cables are intact (i.e. not damaged)

Check that the coil is plugged in properly

Place the coil as close as possible to the area under examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Image quality is dependent on which of the following factors?

SNR

CNR

Spatial resolution

Scan time

A

SNR

CNR

Spatial resolution

Scan time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following best defines CNR?

The ratio of the amplitude of signal received by the coil to the amplitude of the noise

The difference in the SNR between two adjacent areas

The ability to distinguish between two points as separate and distinct

The time required to complete the acquisition of data

A

The difference in the SNR between two adjacent areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Spatial resolution may be increased by selecting which of the following?

Thick slices

Coarse matrices

Thin Slices

A large FOV

A

Thin Slices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following best represents a coarse matrix?

512 X 512

256 X 128

256 X 256

A

256 X 128

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following best defines spatial resolution?

The difference in the SNR between two adjacent areas

The ratio of the amplitude of signal received by the coil to the amplitude of the noise

The ability to distinguish two between two points as separate and distinct

The time required to complete the acquisition of data

A

The ability to distinguish two between two points as separate and distinct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Scan time can be decreased by using which of the following?

The most NEX allowable

A fine matrix

A short TR

A long TR

A

A short TR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

CNR between pathology and other structures can best be demonstrated by which of the following?

Utilizing T1 sequences

Non-contrast studies

Lower field strength magnets

Suppression of normal tissues via sequences that null signal from certain tissues (i.e. FLAIR, STIR)

A

Suppression of normal tissues via sequences that null signal from certain tissues (i.e. FLAIR, STIR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

SNR may be increased by using which of the following?

A small FOV

A coarse matrix

A fine matrix

Gradient echo sequences

A

A coarse matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T/F: If a technologist increases the matrix on a sequence (assuming the FOV remains the same), the spatial resolution will increase, but the SNR will decrease

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

T/F: Increasing the TR results in increased SNR and increased scan time.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

T/F: Inversion recovery sequences begin with a 180 degree pulse.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following sequences uses a 90 degree flip angle followed by several 180 degree rephasing pulses?

SE

FSE

IR

GRE

A

FSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following sequences fills all of K space in one repetition by using very long echo trains?

EPI

GRE

STIR

SE

A

EPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following occurs because nuclei that move through the slice may receive only one of the RF pulses applied?

Entry slice phenomenon

Time of flight

Intra-voxel dephasing

MRA

A

Time of flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

T/F: Intra-voxel dephasing occurs as a result of the phase difference between stationary and flowing nuclei in the same voxel causing dephasing and signal loss.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Identify which of the following are remedies of flow-related artifacts:

TOF

Spatial presaturation pulses

Intra-voxel dephasing

Gradient moment nulling

A

Spatial presaturation pulses

Gradient moment nulling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

T/F: Chemical shift artifact occurs when anatomy that lies within the boundaries of the receiver coil exists outside the FOV.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T/F: Phase mismapping can be reduced by using spatial presaturation pulses between the origin of the artifact and the FOV.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following is used to trigger each RF excitation pulse with cardiac gating?

P wave

QRS complex

R wave

T wave

A

R wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

For optimal T1 weighting with ECG/Pe gating, a technologist would use which of the following:

Use 1 R to R interval

Use 2 or 3 R to R intervals

Use the trigger window

Use the PQRS complex X 2

A

Use 1 R to R interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T/F: The emotional well being of a patient is just as important as their physical condition.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of MRA?

Time of Flight (TOF)

Diffusion Weighted Imaging (DWI)

Phase Contrast (PC)

Contrast Enhanced MRA (CE-MRA)

A

Diffusion Weighted Imaging (DWI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

T/F: Gradient echo pulse sequences are preferred over spin echo sequences when attempting to reduce magnetic susceptibility artifact.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The b value determines the:

the type of proton being sampled

amount of diffusion weighting on an image

the TI

extrinsic contrast parameters

A

amount of diffusion weighting on an image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Sagitals through the head are prescribed from:

Posterior to Anterior

Left to Right

Right to Left

Superior to Inferior

A

Left to Right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Axial slices through the head/brain are prescribed from:

Left to Right

Right to Left

Superior to Inferior

Inferior to Superior

A

Inferior to Superior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

T/F: Coverage for axial slices includes the foramen magnum to the superior surface of the brain.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

T/F: There are five ventricles in the brain.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following sequences provides temporal resolution of enhancing lesions and indicates brain activity?

FLAIR

STIR

T1

Perfusion

A

Perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following best describes the appearance of acute stroke on an axial DWI?

Bright

Dark

A

Bright

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following sequences is known for its sensitivity to magnetic susceptibility?

SE

Perfusion

GRE

FLAIR

A

GRE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

T/F: When positioning a patient for a head MRI exam, the horizontal alignment light should pass through the nasion.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which cranial nerve provides motor control to the muscles of mastication and relays sensory information from the face and the head?

3rd

4th

5th

7th

A

5th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which lobe of the brain is scanned for seizure protocol?

Parietal

Occipital

Temporal

Frontal

A

Temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

T/F: Careful timing of post contrast pituitary scans is important because eventually the pituitary gland enhances itself, as well as a microadenoma, if present.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

T/F: The main source of artifact in the brain is from flow motion of the popliteal artery.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Contrast is used to assess which of the following (select all that apply):

Active MS plaques

Metastases

The age of an infarct

Tumors such as meningiomas or neuromas

A

Active MS plaques

Metastases

The age of an infarct

Tumors such as meningiomas or neuromas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which sequence describes this image:

Axial STIR

Axial FLAIR

Coronal STIR

Coronal FLAIR

A

Axial FLAIR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following anatomy is visualized on this image:

Lateral Ventrical

Parietal Lobe

IACs

Orbits

A

IACs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which of the following best describes the pathology visualized on this image:

IACs

Acoustic Neuroma

Swan Ganz

Seizures

A

Acoustic Neuroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which of the following best describes the pathology visualized in this image:

Normal Pituitary- No Pathology

Macroadenoma

Microadenoma

Seizure Activity

A

Macroadenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Axial images of the orbits are angled with the:

lens

optic nerve

hard palate

temporal lobe

A

optic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Common sources of artifact for an orbital MR exam include all of the following except:

eye movement

flow motion in the Circle of Willis

using a small FOV- aliasing

zipper artifact

A

zipper artifact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which of the following is another word for bulging of one or both eyes?

Pseudotumor

Proptosis

Sarcoid

COW

A

Proptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which of the following is a demyelinating disease of the CNS?

COW

CCF

Graves disease

Multiple sclerosis

A

Multiple sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

T/F: Fat saturation techniques are valuable when imaging the orbits post contrast due to the presence of orbital fat.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Sagital TMJ images are angled with:

orbital nerve

perpendicular to the mandibular condyles

the temporal bone

the temporal lobe

A

perpendicular to the mandibular condyles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

T/F: Closed and open mouth views are performed for TMJs.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which of the following sequences would be most helpful in diagnosing MS?

Sagital STIR

Sagital FLAIR

Thin slices through the optic chiasm

Open and closed views

A

Sagital FLAIR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

To image the veins of the head:

a pre-saturation pulse is placed inferior to the FOV

a pre-saturation pulse is placed superior to the FOV

contrast must always be used

the COW is visualized

A

a pre-saturation pulse is placed inferior to the FOV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which cranial nerve has receptors for the sense of smell?

CN I

CN II

CN III

CN VI

A

CN I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which of the following contribute to the structure of the bony orbit? (choose all that apply)

Frontal

Lacrimal

Sphenoid

Occipital

A

Frontal

Lacrimal

Sphenoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Indications for an MRA of the Head include which of the following?

Intracranial vascular assessment of aneurysms and infarcts

Suspected internal meniscal derangement

Graves disease

Proptosis

A

Intracranial vascular assessment of aneurysms and infarcts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which of the following would best demonstrate hemorrhage?

STIR

FLAIR

GRE

FSE

A

GRE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which of the following protocols would include slices through the temporal lobes?

Orbits

MS

Seizures

IACs

A

Seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

T/F: Careful timing of post contrast pituitary scans is important because eventually the pituitary gland enhances itself, as well as a microadenoma, if present.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

T/F: There are four ventricles in the brain.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How many bones contribute to the structure of the bony orbit?

3

5

7

9

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The b value determines the:

the type of proton being sampled

amount of diffusion weighting on an image

the TI

extrinsic contrast parameters

A

amount of diffusion weighting on an image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Sagitals through the head are prescribed from:

Posterior to Anterior

Left to Right

Right to Left

Superior to Inferior

A

Left to Right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which sequence describes this image:

Axial STIR

Axial FLAIR

Coronal STIR

Coronal FLAIR

A

Axial FLAIR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Sagital cervical spine slices are prescribed in which direction?

Right to Left

Left to Right

Posterior to Anterior

Anterior to Posterior

A

Left to Right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

T/F: A common artifact seen when scanning the cervical spine region is the result of swallowing motion.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

If a patient will not fit in the spine coil with the anterior aspect snapped down, which of the following would be the next best option to obtain the best possible SNR?

Use a halo

Use a flex coil

Use the anterior piece of the head coil

Use a c-collar

A

Use a flex coil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

T/F: Contrast is routinely used for disc disease in the cervical spine.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

T/F: Contrast is routinely used in the cervical spine for patients with a diagnosis of MS.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

T/F: A Chiari Malformation can be see on a cervical spine image.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

T/F: All halos are MRI safe.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

On T1 weighted images of the spine, the CSF appears:

Hyperintense to the spinal cord

Hypointense to the spinal cord

Isointense to the spinal cord

None of the above

A

Hypointense to the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

For optimal imaging of the cervical spine, patient positioning and local coil placement are:

Supine/around the neck to include from C1 to C7

Supine/on top of the neck to include from C1 to C7

Supine/beside the neck to include from C1 to C7

Prone/on top of the neck to include from C1 to C7

A

Supine/around the neck to include from C1 to C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

A patient presenting with neurological symptoms consistent with cervical cord compression, neck pain, and raised inflammatory markers likely has ________. This patient’s sagital T1 +C can be seen below.

Cervical Spine Metastases

Spinal Meningioma

Multiple Sclerosis

Epidural Abscess

A

Epidural Abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The image shown below was acquired in which imaging plane?

Axial

Sagital

Coronal

Off-axis (oblique)

A

Sagital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The image shown below is an example of:

A T1 weighted image

A T2 weighted image

A spin (proton) density weighted image

A T2* weighted image

All of the above

A

A T2 weighted image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which vertebra is indicated by the arrow?

C3

C4

C5

C6

A

C4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which best describes the anatomy the arrow is indicating in the image below?

CSF

Vertebral Body

Spinal Cord

Cervical disc

A

Spinal Cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

On the image shown below, the vertebral bodies appear bright because:

Bone is always bright on MR images

Cortical bone cannot be seen on MR images

Bone marrow contains fat

Bone marrow contains water

A

Bone marrow contains fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which vessel is indicated by the blue arrow shown below?

Right internal carotid

Right external carotid

Left vertebral

Left common carotid

A

Left vertebral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is indicated by the blue arrow in the image shown below?

Epiglottis

Pharynx

Anterior Longitudinal Ligament

Supraspinous Ligament

A

Anterior Longitudinal Ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Which of the following best describes the imaging plane shown below?

Axial

Sagital

Coronal

Off axis (oblique)

A

Axial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

T/F: FOV boundaries for sagital thoracic spine images include from T2 to L1.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Axial slices through the thoracic spine are angled parallel to:

Z joints

spinal cord

spinous processes

disc spaces

A

disc spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

T/F: Additional thinner axial slices are often prescribed through areas of pathology.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

To minimize aliasing in axial slices of the thoracic spine, one would use:

Chemical presaturation

Saturation pulses

Breath holds

Oversampling

A

Oversampling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Flow from CSF in the thoracic spine can be minimized by utilizing:

Chemical Presaturation

Oversampling

Saturation Pulses

Breath holds

A

Saturation Pulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

On sagital T-Spine images that demonstrate cord compression, the vertebral level can be determined by (think about how you determine this in clinicals when scanning):

Using the sternal notch as a landmark and counting down from T1

Using the xyphoid as a landmark and counting up from T12

Using a large FOV localizer and counting down from C2

Using lead markers to mark T12 and T1 on large FOV images

A

Using a large FOV localizer and counting down from C2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

T/F: SNR is dependent on the quality of the coil

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Cancer that begins in the plasma cells in bone marrow is known as:

Glioma

Multiple Sclerosis

Multiple Myeloma

Metastatic disease

A

Multiple Myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

In spine imaging, to rule out metastatic lesions of the spinal cord, contrast enhancement can be used with T1 weighted images because:

Metastatic lesions enhance and normal cord does not

Scar enhances and disk does not

Normal cord enhances and metastatic lesions do not

CSF is bright and cord is dark

A

Metastatic lesions enhance and normal cord does not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

T/F: Myeloma is the medical term for a tumor that begins in the brain or spinal cord.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

A patient presents with pain in the neck and shoulder, numbness and tingling in the fingers, and a weak grip. Which of the following is most likely the cause?

Whiplash

Herniated thoracic disc

Thoracic outlet syndrome

Schwannoma

A

Thoracic outlet syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

T/F: Spinal schwannomas arise from nerves within the spinal canal.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

The following image was most likely acquired with which of the following?

A 5 inch surface coil

Phased array coils

A Helmholtz coil pair

The body coil

A

Phased array coils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Which of the following best describes the image below?

Multiple Myeloma

Metastatic disease

Compression fracture

Herniated disc

A

Compression fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Which vertebra is involved in the pathology shown on the image below?

T2

T1

C7

T3

A

T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Which of the following best describes the weighting used to obtain the image shown below:

T1

FLAIR

T2

T1 FS

A

T2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Which of the following best describes what is indicated by the arrow on the image below:

Gibbs or truncation artifact

Chemical shift artifact

The supraspinous ligament

The cruciate ligament

A

The supraspinous ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Which of the following is indicated by the arrow shown on the image below:

Saturation band

Anterior spinous ligament

Signal drop off

Metastatic disease

A

Saturation band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Which of the following is the most inferior portion of the spinal cord?

Cauda equina

Conus medullaris

Filum terminale

Sacral hiatus

A

Conus medullaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

At which level does the spinal cord typically terminate?

L1-L2

L2-L3

L3-L4

L5-S1

A

L1-L2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Which of the following anchors the spinal cord to the coccyx?

Conus medularis

Filum terminale

Cauda equina

Sacral hiatus

A

Filum terminale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

T/F: Patients may be positioned feet first supine for an MRI of the lumbar spine.

A

True

104
Q

T/F: Scar tissue enhances immediately after the injection, but disc material does not.

A

True

105
Q

Which anatomy is indicated by number one on the diagram shown below?

Spinous process

Intervertebral disc

Ligament flavum

Transverse processes

A

Spinous process

106
Q

Which anatomy is indicated by number two on the diagram shown below?

Spinous process

Body

Superior articular process

Transverse processes

A

Transverse processes

107
Q

Which anatomy is indicated by number one on the diagram shown below?

Spinous process

Lamina

Pedicle

Ligament flavum

A

Lamina

108
Q

Which anatomy is indicated by number two on the diagram shown below?

Body

Spine

Superior articular process

Lamina

A

Superior articular process

109
Q

Which anatomy is indicated by number three on the diagram shown below?

Body

Spinous process

Lamina

Pedicle

A

Pedicle

110
Q

Which anatomy is indicated by number one on the diagram shown below?

Ligament flavum

Interspinous ligament

Anterior longitudinal ligament

Posterior longitudinal ligament

A

Posterior longitudinal ligament

111
Q

Which anatomy is indicated by number two on the diagram shown below?

Superior articular process

Posterior longitudinal ligament

Anterior longitudinal ligament

Intervertebral disc

A

Anterior longitudinal ligament

112
Q

Match the following numbers with the correct anatomy, as indicated on the image shown below:

1.

2.

3.

4.

A

Aorta

Intervertebral disc

Vertebral body

Sacrum

113
Q

Which of the following describes the below image:

Coronal slice prescription for lumbar spine imaging

Sagital slice prescription boundaries

Saturation band placed anterior to the spine on a sagital image

Dynamic lumbar imaging

A

Saturation band placed anterior to the spine on a sagital image

114
Q

On the image shown below, the lines indicate:

The FOV

The location of the saturation pulse

The location of the axial oblique slices

An interleaved acquisition

A

The location of the axial oblique slices

115
Q

Positioning for a female pelvis MR exam would include centering the horizontal alignment light to pass:

through the symphysis pubis

through the iliac crest

through a point midway between the symphysis pubis and the iliac crest

through the level of the umbilicus

A

through a point midway between the symphysis pubis and the iliac crest

116
Q

When scanning a routine female pelvis exam, axials would be angled in which manner?

Parallel to the uterus

Perpendicular to the cervix

Parallel to the cervix

Perpendicular to the uterus

A

Perpendicular to the uterus

117
Q

T/F: If a patient has had a hysterectomy, axials and coronals would be straight and not angled with any anatomy.

A

True

118
Q

Which of the following is a malignant bone tumor that affects children and young adults? the tumor may start anywhere in the body, usually in the long bones of the arms and legs, the pelvis, or the chest.

Chordoma

Transitional Cell Carcinoma

Teratoma

Ewing Sarcoma

A

Ewing Sarcoma

119
Q

T/F: Teratomas are present at birth and may contain hair, teeth, and other tissues.

A

True

120
Q

T/F: Leiomyomas are benign tumors that arise from overgrowth of smooth muscle and connective tissue in the bladder.

A

False

121
Q

Which anatomy is identified by #2 in the image shown below?

Colon

Rectum

Prostate

Symphysis pubis

A

Symphysis pubis

122
Q

Which anatomy is indicated by #4 in the image shown below?

Uterus

Colon

Prostate

Bladder

A

Prostate

123
Q

Which imaging plane was the following image obtained in:

Axial

Coronal

Sagital

Off center

A

Axial

124
Q

Which anatomy is indicated by #3 in the image shown below?

Uterus

Bladder

Prostate

Rectum

A

Bladder

125
Q

Which type of sequence is most likely used to obtain the image shown below?

T1

Fluid in the bladder is dark, fat in the tissue bright

T1 FS

T2

STIR

A

T1

126
Q

The image shown below is best described by which of the following?

Sagital T1 Female Pelvis

Sagital T2 Female Pelvis

Sagital T1 Male Pelvis

Sagital T2 Male Pelvis

A

Sagital T2 Female Pelvis

127
Q

Which anatomy is indicated by #1 in the image shown below?

Bladder

Prostate

Uterus

Symphysis pubis

A

Uterus

128
Q

Which of the following best describes the pathology visualized on the image shown below:

Ewing Sarcoma

Sacral agenesis

Sacral chordoma

Teratoma

A

Teratoma

129
Q

Which pathology is demonstrated on the image shown below?

Uterine cancer

Prostate cancer

Bladder cancer

Inflammation of the cervix

A

Bladder cancer

130
Q

Which anatomy is indicated by #1 on the image shown below?

Ischium

Illium

Pubic crest

Ischial spine

A

Illium

131
Q

Which anatomy is indicated by #2 on the image shown below?

Ilium

Ischium

Iliac crest

Ischial spine

A

Iliac crest

132
Q

Which of the following best describes the pathology demonstrated in the image shown below?

Sacral agenesis

Ewing sarcoma

Sacral chordoma

Teratoma

A

Sacral agenesis

133
Q

Positioning for shoulder imaging, supine with arm down by side, relax the shoulder, and thumb up for _________________________.

Slight internal rotation

Slight external rotation

Flexion

Extension

Neutral Position

A

Neutral Position

134
Q

The image shown below was obtained by utilizing which of the following scan planes?

Axial imaging plane

Sagital imaging plane

Coronal imaging plane

Off-axis (oblique) imaging plane

A

Coronal imaging plane

135
Q

The image shown below is an example of:

A T1 weighted image

A T2 weighted image

A proton density weighted image

A STIR weighted image

A

A T1 weighted image

136
Q

Which anatomy is indicated by number five on the image shown below:

Radial head

Olecranon fossa

Medial epicondyle

Olecranon

A

Olecranon fossa

137
Q

Which anatomy is indicated by number two on the image shown below:

Olecranon

Ulna

Radial head

Lateral epicondyle

A

Radial head

138
Q

The imaging sequences best used to visualize bruises or contusions within the bone are:

Spin echo

Gradient echo

Short Tau Inversion Recovery (STIR)

Fast spin echo

A

Short Tau Inversion Recovery (STIR)

139
Q

Adhesive capsulitis is also known as:

Tennis elbow

Carpal tunnel

Frozen shoulder

Trough lesion

A

Frozen shoulder

140
Q

Which of the following describes a typical injury pattern observed after a posterior glenohumeral dislocation?

Adhesive capulitis

Hill-Sachs lesion

Trough lesion

Paralabral joint cyst

A

Trough lesion

141
Q

Which diagnosis is considered most likely in a patient who presents with pain, swelling, and reddening over the olecranon. The MR images show bone marrow and soft tissue edema.

Rheumatoid arthritis

Osteomyelitis

Triceps tendon tear

SLAP tear

A

Osteomyelitis

142
Q

T/F: A SLAP tear occurs where the biceps tendon anchors to the labrum.

A

True

143
Q

Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number twelve on the image shown below:

Scapula

Teres major muscle

Spine of the scapula

Acromion

A

Scapula

144
Q

Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number six on the image shown below:

Humeral head

Lateral epicondyle

Acromion

Greater tuberosity

A

Greater tuberosity

145
Q

Coronal oblique images of the shoulder are angled parallel with which anatomy?

Glenoid cavity

Supraspinatus muscle

Bicipital groove

AC joint

A

Supraspinatus muscle

146
Q

T/F: When positioning the patient for an MR examination of the shoulder, the humerus should be perpendicular to the scan table.

A

False

147
Q

T/F: MR arthrography requires the injection of barium directly into the joint of interest, prior to the MR examination.

A

False

148
Q

Which anatomy is indicated by number one on the image shown below:

Neck of radius

Radial tuberosity

Medial epicondyle

Coronoid process

A

Radial tuberosity

149
Q

The coil usually preferred to image the shoulder for the maximization of SNR is the:

Body coil

Phased array coil

Surface or local coil

Small extremity coil

A

Surface or local coil

150
Q

Which anatomy is indicated by number four on the image shown below:

Medial epicondyle

Capitellum

Coronoid process

Trochlea

A

Trochlea

151
Q

T/F: Wrist imaging requires a small dedicated surface coil.

A

True

152
Q

Which of the following is commonly known as washerwoman’s sprain?

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

De Quervain Tenosynovitis

Hamartoma

A

De Quervain Tenosynovitis

153
Q

T/F: MRI can assist in detecting the presence of osteomyelitis.

A

True

154
Q

A hamartoma is best described as:

a ganglion that often appears as a bump on the hand or wrist.

a bone cyst.

a benign tumor composed of mature hyaline cartilage.

a benign tumor-like malformation made up of an abnormal mixture of cells and tissues found in the body.

A

a benign tumor-like malformation made up of an abnormal mixture of cells and tissues found in the body.

155
Q

Which of the following is demonstrated in the image shown below?

Carpal tunnel syndrome

Bone cyst

Dorsal wrist ganglion

Hamartoma

A

Dorsal wrist ganglion

156
Q

Which of the following best describes the image shown below?

Axial T1

Axial T2

Axial T2 FS

Coronal T2 FS

A

Axial T2 FS

157
Q

Which anatomy is indicated by number one on the image shown below?

Capitate

Metacarpals

Phalanges

Radius

A

Phalanges

158
Q

Which anatomy is indicated by number four on the image shown below?

Capitate

Metacarpals

Scaphoid

Trapezoid

A

Scaphoid

159
Q

Which anatomy is indicated by number six on the image shown below?

Phalanges

Ulna

Radius

Hamate

Pisiform

A

Radius

160
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome occurs as a result of compression of which nerve?

Ulnar

Transverse carpal

Median

Radial

A

Median

161
Q

Which of the following is not in the distal row of carpal bones?

Trapezium

Capitate

Hamate

Lunate

A

Lunate

162
Q

A patient who presents with numbness of the first three digits and nighttime pain from the wrist to the forearm most likely has:

Hamartoma

Carpal tunnel syndrome

Sarchoidosis

De Quervain Tenosynovitis

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome

163
Q

When imaging the wrist, the optimal plane in which to visualize the carpal tunnel is the:

Sagital

Axial

Coronal

Oblique

A

Axial

164
Q

T/F: For an MRI of the hand or wrist, a patient may be positioned prone or supine, depending on the coil options available.

A

True

165
Q

T/F: Contrast is routinely used in MRI of the hand.

A

False

166
Q

T/F: Patient motion is a concern in hand imaging. The patient should be immobilized as much as possible.

A

True

167
Q

Which of the following best describes the image weighting used in the image shown below?

T1

T2

T1 FS

T2 FS

A

T1

168
Q

The image shown below was acquired in which imaging plane?

Axial

Coronal

Sagital

Oblique

A

Sagital

169
Q

T/F: A popliteal artery aneurysm is the most 2nd most common type of aneurysm in the body.

A

True

170
Q

Axial slices for an MR hip protocol are prescribed:

Inferior to superior

Posterior to anterior

Superior to inferior

Anterior to posterior

A

Superior to inferior

171
Q

Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number one on the image shown below?

Acetabulum

Iliac crest

Pubis

Coccyx

A

Iliac crest

172
Q

To minimize magnetic susceptibility artifact from a hip prosthesis, a technologist should:

Use GRE sequences

Use SE or FSE sequences with a broad receive bandwidth

Use as small a FOV as possible

Increase the SNR

A

Use SE or FSE sequences with a broad receive bandwidth

173
Q

The hip is one of the most frequent sites for which of the following:

ACL tears

Ganglion cysts

Baker cysts

Avascular necrosis

A

Avascular necrosis

174
Q

The optimal plane to use when evaluating patients for cruciate ligament tears of the knee is the:

Sagital

Axial

Coronal

Axial and coronal

A

Sagital

175
Q

T/F: A bursa is a fat filled sac that allows smooth motion between two uneven surfaces.

A

False

176
Q

What pathology is demonstrated in the images shown below?

Hip bursitis

Avascular necrosis

Synovial sarcoma

Baker cyst

A

Avascular necrosis

177
Q

What type of weighting is demonstrated in the image shown below?

T1

T2

STIR

T2 FS

A

T2

178
Q

Which of the following best describes the ACL?

Extends from the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle to the anterior tibial spine

Extends from the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle to the anterior tibial spine

Extends from the medial aspect of the medial femoral condyle to the anterior tibial spine

Extends from the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle to the posterior tibial spine

A

Extends from the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle to the anterior tibial spine

179
Q

Which of the following is the most common mass in the popliteal fossa?

Popliteal aneurysm

Synovial sarcoma

Baker cyst

Ganglion cyst

A

Baker cyst

180
Q

T/F: It is crucial that technologists obtain pertinent patient history and document the information for the interpreting radiologist.

A

True

181
Q

Which of the following is indicated by number five on the image shown below?

Medial collateral ligament

Medial meniscus

ACL

Medial tibial condyle

A

Medial meniscus

182
Q

Which of the following is indicated by number six on the image shown below?

Lateral collateral ligament

Tibial spine

ACL

PCL

A

PCL

183
Q

To better evaluate the ACL, positioning for knee imaging may require:

15 degree external rotation

15 degree internal rotation

Flexion

Extension

A

15 degree external rotation

184
Q

Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number two on the image shown below?

Acetabulum

Iliac crest

Lesser trochanter

Obturator foramen

A

Acetabulum

185
Q

T/F: False aneurysms are usually the result of knee trauma, surgery/intervention or infection.

A

True

186
Q

T/F: MR knee arthrography can be useful to identify recurrent tears in the knee following meniscectomy.

A

True

187
Q

Which of the following is indicated by number one on the image shown below?

Medial cuneiform

Navicular

Hallux

Cuboid

A

Medial cuneiform

188
Q

T/F: When performing a MSK study, it is often helpful to place a marker over the ROI.

A

True

189
Q

Which of the following is thought to be due to chronic entrapment of the nerve by the intermetatarsal ligament?

PVNS

Morton’s Neuroma

Synovial sarcoma

Calcaneal fatigue fracture

A

Morton’s Neuroma

190
Q

Which of the following best describes the image shown below?

Sagital T1 Forefoot

Sagital T1 Hindfoot

Sagital T2 Hindfoot

Sagital T2 Forefoot

A

Sagital T1 Hindfoot

191
Q

Which of the following best describes the pathology shown in the image below?

Synovial sarcoma

PVNS

Morton’s neuroma

Stress fracture

A

Stress fracture

192
Q

Which of the following is indicated by number two on the image shown below?

Medial cuneiform

Navicular

Cuboid

Talus

A

Navicular

193
Q

T/F: MRI is the most sensitive detection method for calcaneal stress fracture.

A

True

194
Q

Which of the following is indicated by number six on the image shown below?

Tarsals

Metatarsals

Phalanges

Hindfoot

A

Metatarsals

195
Q

Which of the following is indicated by number one on the image shown below?

Medial cuneiform

Sesamoid

Hallux

Talus

A

Hallux

196
Q

Which of the following best describes the image shown below?

Axial forefoot

Short axis forefoot

Long axis forefoot

Coronal hindfoot

A

Short axis forefoot

197
Q

Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number one on the image shown below?

Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament

Calcaneofibular ligament

Achilles Tendon

Posterior talofibular ligament

A

Achilles Tendon

198
Q

Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number three on the image shown below?

Tibia

Fibula

Calcaneus

Talus

A

Talus

199
Q

T/f: Positioning the feet close together and at the same level is the best method to reduce wrap for ankle imaging.

A

False

200
Q

Which of the following is demonstrated on the image shown below?

Tendonitis

Mass protocol

Sarcoma

Achilles tendon rupture

A

Achilles tendon rupture

201
Q

Which of the following best describes the image shown below?

T1 Sagital

T2 Sagital

T2 FS Sagital

FLAIR Sagital

A

T2 FS Sagital

202
Q

The image shown below most likely demonstrates:

Stress fracture

Sarcoma

Ankle arthrography

Achilles rupture

A

Ankle arthrography

203
Q

T/F: Ideal ankle positioning includes dorisflexion of the foot.

A

True

204
Q

T/F: Toe movement will not affect MR foot image quality.

A

False

205
Q

Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number one on the image shown below:

Spleen

Liver

Stomach

Gallbladder

A

Liver

206
Q

Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number two on the image shown below:

Gallbladder

Aorta

Inferior vena cava

Hepatic artery

A

Inferior vena cava

207
Q

Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number three on the image shown below:

Spleen

Left kidney

Liver

Diaphragm

A

Diaphragm

208
Q

Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number four on the image shown below:

Spleen

Liver

Pancreas

Stomach

A

Stomach

209
Q

Positioning for an abdominal MRI would include centering the horizontal alignment light on the patient’s:

Belly button

Xyphoid process

Lower costal margin- L3

Iliac crest

A

Lower costal margin- L3

210
Q

T/f: Careful explanation of free breathing and breath holds is crucial to a good abdominal study.

A

True

211
Q

Prior to an MRCP examination, patients should be NPO for __ hours.

one

two

three

four

A

four

212
Q

Patients fast prior to an MRCP to do all but which of the following?

Decrease fluid secretions in the stomach and duodenum

Decrease bowl peristalsis

Promote gallbladder distension

Increase the incidence of gallstones

A

Increase the incidence of gallstones

213
Q

Which of the following best describes ascites?

A disease in which the liver becomes permanently damaged

A type of kidney failure

The accumulation of excess fluid in the abdominal cavity

An infection of the spleen

A

The accumulation of excess fluid in the abdominal cavity

214
Q

Enlargement of the left lobe of the liver is most likely a sign of which of the following diseases processes?

Ascites

Hepatic mets

Cirrhosis

Renal failure

A

Cirrhosis

215
Q

The image shown below is from which of the following exams?

Small bowel

MRCP

Dynamic MRA

Renal artery

A

MRCP

216
Q

Which of the following is indicated by the white arrow on the image shown below?

Renal artery stenosis

Stone

Signal drop off

Pt was NPO too long– air in the bowel

A

Stone

217
Q

Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number one on the image shown below:

Left kidney

Right kidney

Liver

Adrenal gland

A

Right kidney

218
Q

Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number two on the image shown below:

Spleen

Liver

Bowel

Psoas muscle

A

Psoas muscle

219
Q

Which organ lies transversely and a bit obliquely and across the lumbar spine in the abdominal cavity?

Liver

Spleen

Adrenals

Pancreas

A

Pancreas

220
Q

The image shown below most likely represents which of the following:

Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)

Renal stenosis

Gallstones

Small bowel obstruction

A

Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)

221
Q

Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number two on the image shown below:

Left renal artery

Gonadal artery

Superior mesenteric artery

Inferior mesenteric artery

A

Superior mesenteric artery

222
Q

Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number four on the image shown below:

Inferior mesenteric artery

Left internal iliac artery

Left external iliac artery

Gonadal artery

A

Left internal iliac artery

223
Q

Which anatomy is indicated by number one on the image shown below:

Ducts

Lobules

Lymph nodes

Adipose Tissue

A

Lymph nodes

224
Q

Which anatomy is indicated by number four on the image shown below:

Ducts

Lobules

Lymph nodes

Adipose Tissue

A

Ducts

225
Q

Which of the following marks the upper boundary of breast tissue?

Sternum

Third rib

Clavicle

Chest muscles

A

Clavicle

226
Q

The American Cancer Society recommends screening breast MRI in addition to annual mammograms in which of the following?

Patients with less than a 15% lifetime risk of breast cancer.

To evaluate implant integrity.

In all women over the age of 40.

In patients with greater than 20% lifetime risk of breast cancer.

A

In patients with greater than 20% lifetime risk of breast cancer.

227
Q

In dynamic breast imaging, lesions that ___________ are suspicious for malignancy.

wash in and out quickly

wash in and out slowly

display plateau enhancement

show no enhancement

A

wash in and out quickly

228
Q

T/F: The optimal imaging window for evaluation of breast cancer is immediately following the start of the menstrual cycle.

A

False

229
Q

The linguine sign is:

indicative of thoracic aortic aneurysm

indicative of intracapsular implant rupture

a slice imaging plane for cardiac MRI

indicative of breast cancer

A

indicative of intracapsular implant rupture

230
Q

To minimize pulsatile flow motion artifacts, cardiac images are acquired by:

Taking the patient’s pulse, calculating the heart rate in beats per minute, then entering this data into the imaging system

Attaching ECG leads, monitoring the cardiac cycle and triggering the pulse sequence from each R wave

Performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation

None of the above

A

Attaching ECG leads, monitoring the cardiac cycle and triggering the pulse sequence from each R wave

231
Q

Which of the following separates the right atrium and right ventricle?

Mitral valve

Tricuspid valve

Semilunar valve

Septum

A

Tricuspid valve

232
Q

Which of the following best describes the image shown below:

Short axis view

Long axis view

Three chamber view

Four chamber view

A

Long axis view

233
Q

The “candy cane” view is best described by which of the following:

Long axis view of the heart

Sagital/oblique view of the thoracic aorta

Axial view of the thoracic aorta

Sagital/oblique view of the pulmonary arteries

A

Sagital/oblique view of the thoracic aorta

234
Q

Which of the following best describes the image shown below:

Cardiac enhancement

Ascending aortic aneurysm

Long axis view of the heart

Pulmonary mets

A

Ascending aortic aneurysm

235
Q

Which of the following is indicated by number two on the image shown below:

Ascending aorta

Aortic arch

Thoracic aorta

Brachiocephalic artery

A

Aortic arch

236
Q

T/F: The most common site of aneurysms in the thoracic aorta is the ascending aorta.

A

True

237
Q

Choose all of the following that describe the image shown below:

Rapid wash in and wash out enhancement

Gradual enhancement over time

Suspicious for malignancy

Likely benign

A

Gradual enhancement over time

Likely benign

238
Q

Which of the following best describes the image shown below:

Breast MR image

Black blood imaging

Bright blood imaging

Pulmonary stenosis

A

Black blood imaging

239
Q

No signal arises from the lungs because:

There are no protons in air

There is no air in the lung during image acquisition

There are not enough mobile protons in the air

Air and moving blood have the same number of protons and, therefore, both appear black

A

There are not enough mobile protons in the air

240
Q

T/F: Thoracic aortic aneurysms may cause no symptoms at all.

A

True

241
Q

Which of the following best describes number one on the image shown below:

External Iliac Artery

Femoral Artery

Aorta

Internal Iliac Artery

A

Femoral Artery

242
Q

A/an _________ can break loose and cause a pulmonary embolism.

Atherosclerosis

Lymph node

Arterial stenosis

DVT

A

DVT

243
Q

T/F: MRA and MRV can be performed either with contrast or without contrast, using different imaging techniques.

A

True

244
Q

Which of the following best describes number eleven on the image shown below:

Femoral Vein

Internal Iliac Vein

Great Saphenous Vein

Anterior Tibial Vein

A

Great Saphenous Vein

245
Q

Which of the following is considered the most common cause of PAD?

Shiny skin on legs

No pulse or weak pulse in the legs or feet

Atherosclerosis

Leg numbness or weakness

A

Atherosclerosis

246
Q

T/F: Patients are positioned supine head first for run-off exams.

A

False

247
Q

T/F: MRA is generally considered “non-invasive.”

A

True

248
Q

Most deep vein blood clots occur in the _______.

Foot

IVC

Lungs

Lower leg or thigh

A

Lower leg or thigh

249
Q

T/F: Motion artifact can be problematic in 2D TOF imaging.

A

True

250
Q

Indications for MRV of the lower extremities includes all but which of the following?

Leg swelling

Evaluation for free-floating thrombus

Recent orthopedic surgery

Recent twisted ankle

A

Recent twisted ankle

251
Q

On the image shown below, the arrow is most likely indicating which of the following:

Great saphenous vein

Popliteal artery

Posterior tibial artery

Femoral artery

A

Posterior tibial artery

252
Q

When using MRA to evaluate peripheral vascular flow, such as that within the arteries of the legs, saturation pulses are placed:

Placed superior to the acquired slices

Placed in the acquired slices

Placed inferior to the acquired slices

Not necessary

A

Placed inferior to the acquired slices

253
Q

At standard doses, gadolinium has the most apparent effect on the ___ relaxation time and therefore is used as an enhancement agent on ___.

T1/T1 weighted images

T2/T2 weighted images

T1/T2 weighted images

T2/T1 weighted images

A

T1/T1 weighted images

254
Q

T/F: When positioning a patient’s legs for a lower extremity vascular study, the legs should be placed as far apart as possible.

A

False

255
Q

The arrow on the non-enhanced gradient-recalled echo axial image below is most likely indicative of:

Tumor

Absence of venous flow in the left femoral vein, with flow shown on the right

Normal flowing blood, with a clot visualize on the right

Atherosclerosis

A

Absence of venous flow in the left femoral vein, with flow shown on the right

256
Q
A

MRI Imaging Procedures (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions