Exam2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the risk factors for cancer

A
Tobacco
Alcohol
HPV in oropharyngeal cancers
Epstein barr in nasopharyngeal cancer
Poor oral hygiene
Vitamin A and B deficiency
GERD in pharyngeal cancers
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2
Q

What causes microorganisms to grow in mouth

A

Lack of saliva

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3
Q

What does TNM stand for in cancer staging

A

Tumor
Nodes
Mestasis

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4
Q

What characterizes T stage 0

A

No evidence of primary tumor

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5
Q

What characterizes T1 stage in cancer

A

Tumor confined to nose or oropharynx

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6
Q

What characterizes T2 stage in cancer

A

Tumor extends into pharynx

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7
Q

What characterizes T3 stage in cancer

A

Tumor involves skull base or paranasal sinuses

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8
Q

What characterizes T4 stage in cancer

A

Intracranial extension, cranial nerves,

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9
Q

What characterizes N0 stage in cancer

A

No regional lymph node involvement

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10
Q

What characterizes N1 stage in cancer

A

Unilateral metastasis in cervical modes less than 6cm

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11
Q

What characterizes N2 stage in cancer

A

Bilateral metastasis less than 6cm

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12
Q

What characterizes N3 stage in cancer

A

Metastasis greater than 6 cm or reach the supraclavicular fossa

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13
Q

What characterizes MX stage in cancer

A

Cannot be assessed

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14
Q

What characterizes M0 stage in cancer

A

No distant metastasis

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15
Q

What characterizes M1 stage in cancer

A

Distant metastasis

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16
Q

In terms of TNM, what is stage 0 in cancer

A

Carcinoma in situ with no node involvement or metastasis

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17
Q

What is stage I cancer in terms of TNM

A

Tumor confined to naso/oropharynx with no nodes or metastasis

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18
Q

What is stage 2 cancer in terms of TNM

A

T1 with unilateral nodes and no metastasis

T2 with no nodes or unilateral nodes

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19
Q

What is stage III cancer in terms of TNM

A

T1 or 2 with bilateral nodes

T3 with no nodes or unilateral

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20
Q

What is stage IV cancer in terms of TNM

A

T 4 with any node involvement and no metastasis

Any T with distant metastasis

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21
Q

What is the current philosophy of cancer treatment

A

Chemotherapy to shrink tumor
Removal
Radiation therapy to get remaining cells

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22
Q

What is the biggest disadvantage of chemoradiation

A

Nausea
Xerostomia (dry mouth)
Fibrosis

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23
Q

What is fibrosis

A

Hardening of tissues

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24
Q

What are the general guidelines for cancer assessment exam

A

Preop conference to discuss outcomes ( 3-4 hours especially if total laryngoscopy)
Counsel about anatomy, show videos
Preop clinical swallowing exam for baseline
Preop fluoroscopy with or without postural or compensatory strategies

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25
Q

What can you expect with surgical removal

A
Removal of structures
Decreased movement
Scar tissue
Wound dihiscene (scarring)
Decreased sensation at site
Tracheotomy
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26
Q

What are some common surgeries

A
Primary tumor
Mandibulectomy (complete removal) or mandibulotomy ( partial removal)
Maxillectomy
Laser
Laryngectomy
Tracheostomy
Gastrotomy
Neck dissection
Reconstruction
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27
Q

What swallowing problems could occur with a total laryngectomy

A

Cant neutralize pressure in pharynx
No subglottal pressure
No hyoid excursion

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28
Q

What are the effects of radiation therapy

A
Reduces blood supply to tissues which damages nerve endings
Nausea
Fibrosis
Skin irritation
Xerostomia due to damaged salivary glands
Peripheral neropathies
Tissue necrosis
Reduced range of motion
Reduced flexibility of pharyngeal/laryngeal structures
Reduced speed and movement
Reduced sensation of bolus volume
Reduced synchrony of movement
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29
Q

What are the results of chemotherapy

A
Nausea
Mucositis
Hair loss
Xerostomia
Infections of oral cavity
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30
Q

What are the physiologic results of chemoradiation

A

Reduced strength and coordination of anterior tongue
Reduced posterior movement of base of tongue
Reduced laryngeal elevation
Reduced airway closure

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31
Q

What are common cancers

A

Oral cavity (lips, floor of mouth, tongue, retro-molar trigone)
Oropharynx
Nasopharynx
Laryngopharynx

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32
Q

What are characteristics of cancer in lips

A
Mostly 55-65 year old men
Alcohol and tobacco risk factors
Poor oral hygiene
Usually present as non healing ulcers
Pain in advanced stages
Early lesions may be surgically removed
Radiation therapy
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33
Q

what are the dysphagia symptoms for cancer of the lips

A

mostly oral stage deficits (labial seal, bolus control and transport)
can affect any other structure due to radiation effect

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34
Q

what are characteristics of floor of mouth cancer`

A

found on anterior surface of either side of midline
can spread to bone and tongue
30% involve sub-maxillary nodes

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35
Q

what are the dysphagia symptoms for cancer of the floor of mouth

A

mostly oral stage
can affect other related physiologic processes
radiation can affect other structures

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36
Q

Where would you find tongue lesions

A

anterior 2/3 affect oral cavity
posterior 1/3 affect oropharynx
lesions at base and poserior 1/3 invade tonsils and are more advanced
treatment is radiation or glossectomy

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37
Q

what are the results of tongue cancer on swallowing

A

mostly oral stage
partial glossectomy affects bolus prep and hold
total glossectomy affects transport
removal of base of tongue: pharyngeal stripping and hyoid excursion
velopharyngeal port if there is velar resection

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38
Q

what is retro-molar trigone

A

cancer in triangular space behind last molar
rare
affects tongue, ear canal pain, trismus (jaw spasm)
treated with radiation: affects mastication, oral control, transport

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39
Q

what structures are involved in cancer of the oropharynx

A
base of tongue
tonsils
soft palate
uvula
lateral-posterior pharyngeal walls
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40
Q

what structures are involved in cancer of the nasopharynx

A

postero-superior pharyngeal wall
lateral pharyngal wall
eustachian tube
adenoids

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41
Q

what structures are involved in cancer of the laryngopharynx

A

pyriform sinuses
posterior cricoid
lower posterior pharyngeal walls

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42
Q

what are common surgeries for cancer of pharynx

A

palatal resection
pharyngeal resection
laryngo-pharyngectomy

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43
Q

what are the physiologic results for cancer of pharynx

A
pharyngeal stripping
VPC
BOT to PPW
UES opening
hyoid excursion
trismus leading to poor mastication
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44
Q

what is the leading cause of cancer of the larynx

A

smoking

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45
Q

what are the characteristics of larynx cancer

A
supraglottic lesions are usually large
usually spreads to epiglottis
lymph node involvement in 40-50%
not life threatening: removal of larynx
subglottic cancers can cause airway obstruction
total laryngectomy in most casses
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46
Q

what are the results of laryngeal cancers

A

laryngel penetration/aspiration
changes due to radiation
TEP and tracheostomy influences
can influence hyoid excursion and UES opening

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47
Q

what are the physiologic results of a hemilaryngectomy

A

compromised airway protection

unilateral weakness in pharynx

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48
Q

what are they physiologic results of a total laryngectomy

A

airway protection

pressure issues for bolus flow

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49
Q

what are two types of artificial airways

A

endotracheal tube

tracheostomy tube

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50
Q

what are complications of a tracheostomy

A
loss of voice
psychologic distress
speech, language delay
loss of smell and taste leading to poor appetite
aspiration and impaired swallowing
impaired hyoid excursion
loss of pressures (subglottal)
reduced cough
reduced airway sensitivity (dry mouth affets this)
difficulties with secretions
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51
Q

what impact can surgery have on dysphagia

A

damage to nerve endings (peripheral nerve damage)
damage to brainstem during skull based surgeries
edema(temporary)

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52
Q

what are results of a thyroidectomy

A

impaired vagus nerve leading to VF paralysis

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53
Q

what is a carotid endarterectomy

A

removal of plaque from arteries
can impair vegas nerve for pharyngeal constrictor action,
folds impacted

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54
Q

what are possible results of cervical spine procedures

A

impaired CN IX (glossopharyngeal) and X (vagas)
could impair brainstem connections to peripheral nerves
anterior cervical fusions: decompresses spinal cord nerve roots

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55
Q

what are iatrogenic causes of dysphagia

A

surgery

medications

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56
Q

what meds can cause dysphagia

A

antipsychotics
anticonvulsants
antipsychotics and antidepressents: tardive dyskinesia and xerostomia
respiratory and cardiac meds: LES (lower esophageal sphincter) and GERD
cholesterol controllers: generalized myopathies

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57
Q

what is COPD and how does it affect swallowing

A

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
swllowing during inhalation or right after a swallow
residue in pharynx could be drawn into airway

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58
Q

what are some esophageal disorders

A
achalasia
diffuse esophageal spasms
nutcracker esophagus
strictures
shatzki ring
GERD
LPR
esophageal diverticula
scleroderma
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59
Q

what is achalasia

A

insufficient LES relaxation and loss of peristalsis
can be hereditary, degenerative, autoimmune, or from an infection
symptoms: dysphagia for solid and liquid, regurgitation and chest pain

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60
Q

what is DES

A
diffuse esophageal spasm
peristaltic action affected
repetitive, high amplitude contractions of smooth muscles of esophagus
corkscrew esophagus
muscular hypertrophy
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61
Q

what is nutcracker esophagus

A

variant of DES

very high amplitude contraction in distal esophagus

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62
Q

what are strictures

A

loss of lumen area (canal opening)
normal is 20mm
strictures when diameter is less than 15mm
symptom: dysphagia when diameter is less that 15mm

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63
Q

what are schatzki rings

A

narrowing in lower esophagus

rings of mucosal/muscular tissue

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64
Q

what is GERD

A

mucosal damage produced by abnormal reflux of gastric contents in the esophagus

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65
Q

what are the symptoms of GERD

A
frequent heartburn
persistent sore throat
hoarseness
chronic cough
asthma
chest pain
lump in throat
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66
Q

what causes GERD

A

LES impairment
relaxation of LES
low resting LES pressure
increased gastric pressure

67
Q

What is LPR

A

laryngo-pharyngeal reflux
gastric contents reach UES and spill in larynx
causes erosion of laryngal mucosa and contact ulcers
vocal symptoms and aspiration
identified by pH monitoring

68
Q

what is normal pH acidity

A

below 7 is acidic

7-14 is alkaline or basic

69
Q

what is esophageal diverticula

A

sac that protrudes from esophageal wall
most common is Zenkers close to UES in area of killian’s triangle (between cricopharyngeal sphincter and inferior pharyngeal constrictor muscles)
associated with cough, bad breath, regurgitation, repeated pneumonia
may see bulge in throat
treat with surgery

70
Q

what is scleroderma

A

connective tissue disorder
weakens LES
affects smooth muscles in lower 2/3 of esophagus
causes hypomotility, heartburn, and dysphagia

71
Q

what is an osteophyte

A

bone outgrowth that can push against esophagus

72
Q

what is a CP bar

A

projection at level of C5-C6 causing problems with the UES

73
Q

what are prenatal causes of pediatric dysphagia

A

maternal diabetes
phenylketonuria
preeclampsia
drug use

74
Q

what are the results of maternal diabetes

A

disturbances in carbohydrate metabolism (maternal diabetes)
causes stillbirths, abnormally large infants, congenital malformations is heart, skeletal and neural tube defects
can result in hypoglycemic episodes

75
Q

is is PKU

A

phenylketonuria is due to the deficiency of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase
causes increased phenylalanine concentrations
issue with protein metabolism
can cause intellectual disability and microcephaly

76
Q

what is preeclampsia

A

hypertension associated with protein in urine

causes hypotonia and respiratory deficits

77
Q

what are results of maternal drug use

A
reduced and abnormal ear development
cleft palate
hydrocephaly
neural tube deficits
heart anomalies
78
Q

what are neurologic causes of pediatric dysphagia

A
hydrocephalus
micro and macrocephaly
intracranial hemorrhage
seizure
neuropathy, myopathy
infections (meningitis, poliomyelities)
cerebral palsy
79
Q

what are some congenital structural anomalies

A

cleft lip/palate
esophageal atresia/tracheo-esophageal fistula
mandibular hypoplasia

80
Q

how does cleft lip affect swallowing

A

loss of oral pressure
nasal regurgitation
hypernasality
nasal air emission

81
Q

with is esophageal atresia, fistula

A

hole on wall of esophagus
failure of the laryngotracheal tube to separate from esophagus during embryonic development
upper two thirds of esophagus ends in closed pouch
liquids enter the trachea causing choking, coughing, gag or cyanosis
communication between trachea and esophagus

82
Q

how does mandibular hypoplasia affect swallowing

A

mastication
oral pressure
oral transport
oral pressure can also affect pharyngeal pressure

83
Q

what are pediatric gastro intestinal disorders

A

necrotizing enterocolitis

GERD

84
Q

What is necrotizing enterocolitis

A

inflammation and tenderness of intestine
ischemia or toxic damage weakens mucosal lining of intestines. bacteria then reacts to breast milk or formula and causes bowel gas that leads to necrosis
will have GERD and aversions to food

85
Q

what are problems associated with GERD in infants

A

abnormal muscle tone
exaggerated gag
not able to rhythmically move the tone to suckle
infantile bite reflexes
drooling
aspiration
poor trunk control
behavioral feeding problems (food and texture aversions)
preference for thin liquids
emesis, reswallowing
oral defensiveness/delayed feeding skills

86
Q

what respiratory problems are associated with dysphagia in infants

A

apnea
Infant respiratory distress syndrome
transiet tachypenea
bronchopulmonary dysplasia

87
Q

what is apnea

A

cessation of breathing for more than 15 sec
caused by CNS problem with no respiratory gas flow and no respiratory effort
reduced endurance
uncoordinated suck swallow breath/suck
number of sucks per swallow increases
agitation during feedings

88
Q

what is infant respiratory distress syndrome IRDS

A
alveoli open then collapse and stick after each breath
inhibits pulmonary gas exchange
increases work load of respiration
leads to apnea and hypoxemia
surfactant deficiency
89
Q

what is transient tachypenea TTN

A

poor clearance of lung fluid during birth

temporary. no oral feeding during first few days

90
Q

what is bronchopulmonary dysplasia BPD

A

chronic lung disease CLD of prematurity
damage to lung tissue
most common cause is mechanical ventilation and oxygen therapy

91
Q

what cardiac disorders are common with dysphagia

A

congenital heart disease CHD
congestive heart failureCHF
atrioventricular septal defect AVSD

92
Q

what is congenital heart disease CHD

A

any malformation of the cardiovascular system in infants

93
Q

what is congestive heart failure

A

stress to the heart from an overload of fluid and edema

94
Q

what is atrioventricular septal defect AVSD

A
malformation of the heart 
holes between chambers
blood does not flow correctly
has lower amount of oxygen
characteristic of downs syndrome
lungs receive more blood and heart has to work harder
95
Q

what genetic syndromes are associated with dysphagia

A

down syndrome

CHARGE syndrome

96
Q

what characteristics of Downs syndrome is associated with dysphagia

A

hypotonia leading to poor postural control, neck control, and weak suck
GERD is common

97
Q

what is CHARGE syndrome

A
Caloboma (cleft of iris)
Heart disease
Atresia of the nasal cavity
Retardation
Genital abnormalities
Ear disorders
dysphagia related to respiratory problems and heart
developmental delays also source of feeding problems
98
Q

what is compensation

A

interventions that do not change the physiology. If the interventions stop, the effect will not remain

99
Q

what is rehabilitation

A

interventions that change the physiology. If therapy stops the effects will last longer

100
Q

what are the 3 parts of a clinical bedside exam

A

history/observation
cranial nerve/physical exam
trial swallows

101
Q

what is the purpose of a clinical swallow exam

A

to determine candidacy for an objective eval
detect possible aspiration
to determine which textures are safe
to monitor progress of therapy and possibly upgrade recommendations

102
Q

what should you observe prior to CSE

A

mental status: alertness, initial communication attempts, posture
nutritional status: feeding tube. presence of suctioning
respiratory status: tracheostomy tube or labored breathing
throat clearing: info on residue, sensation, secretions

103
Q

what should you include in the history

A

specific symptoms of choking: patient complaint
weight loss
past and current medical history: neurological, ENT, GI, VF paralysis, GERD
any previous swallowing assessments
cultural considerations

104
Q

How do you test the trigeminal nerve

A

test facial sensation with cotton wisp, sharp object and check temperature perception
corneal reflex looking for asymmetries in blink
feel masseteur during jaw clench. test for jaw jerk reflex; observe symmetry of jaw opening

105
Q

how do you test the facial nerve

A

look for asymmetry of shape, facial expressions, and blinking
have patient smile, puff cheeks, clench eyes tight, wrinkle row
check tasts with sugar, salt, or lemon juice on lateral sides of tongue

106
Q

what does holding air in cheeks assesses

A

intraoral pressure

107
Q

how do you test the glossopharyngeal nerve

A

gag reflex
does palate elevate symmetrically when patient says aah
check taste in posterior tongue

108
Q

how do you test the vagus nerve

A

vocal functions: pitch, loudness, quality

ability to cough voluntarily

109
Q

how do you test the hypoglossal nerve

A

note atrophy or fasciculations
stick out tongue to see if it curves to one side or the other
push against tongue from side
look for errors in articulation

110
Q

what are fasciculations and atrophy signs of

A

motor neuron lesions

111
Q

unilateral lesions of the motor cortex cause?

A

contralateral tongue weakness

112
Q

What consistencies should you test during a CSE

A

thin: 5, 10, 20 mL and continuous
puree or pudding: 5mL
solid

113
Q

what should you observe during the trial swallow

A
laryngeal palpatation for elevation
timing/completeness # of swallows
pre-post voice quality
coughing/clearing throat
oral residue
114
Q

What are some standardized CSE tests

A

Toronto Bedside Swallowing Screening Test: measures voice quality, lingual movement, ability to manage water by teaspoon and cup
Mann Assessment of Swallowing Ability
Functional Oral Intake Scale

115
Q

what other procedures are used during a CSE

A

ausculation: stethoscope over airway to listen for aspiration
Dye test: presence of aspiration in a trach patient

116
Q

what is ingested during a radiographic assessment

A

barium sulfate

117
Q

what is the purpose of a VFSS

A

assess impairments in swallowing physiology

evaluate the efficacy of strategies

118
Q

what is the hierarchy of consistencies during a VFSS

A
thin
nectar thick
honey thick
pudding
solids
119
Q

what procedures are followed during a VFSS

A

try all different consistencies and volumes of barium mixture
get both a lateral and anterior/posterior view
protect against radiation

120
Q

what is the goal of strategies

A

to keep the diet as least restrictive as possible

121
Q

what postural changes are used to compensate

A

chin tuck
head turn
head tilt

122
Q

what does the chin tuck help

A

delayed swallow initiation
impaired base of tongue retraction
aspiration especially during swallow

123
Q

what does head rotational help

A

unilateral laryngeal dysfunction and pyriform residue

124
Q

what does head tilt help

A

residue in valleculae

pharyngeal weakness

125
Q

which way do you tilt and turn

A

tilt to strong

turn to weak

126
Q

what strategies are used for residue clearance

A

liquid wash

repeat swallows

127
Q

what maneuvers aid swallowing

A

supraglottic swallow
effortful swallow
masako

128
Q

What does FEES stand for

A

fiberoptic
endoscopic
evaluation
swallowing

129
Q

what is the advantage of FEES over VFSS

A
visualize secretions
directly view surface
assess mucosal abnormalities (edema etc)
visualize glottic closure
clear view of bolus path thru hypopharynx
130
Q

what is the advantage of VFSS over FEES

A

visualize the heighth of swallow
see oral and esophageal phases
observe completeness of BOT retraction, UES opening and extent of aspiration
view submucosal changes such as osteophytes

131
Q

what can only be seen by endoscope

A

closure of the vocal folds which happens right before hyoid elevation

132
Q

What is cerebral palsy

A

Motor speec disorder in infants
Causes brain structure abnormalities
Nonprogressive lesion
Causes low muscle tone, spasticity

133
Q

what is the procedure for changing a passe muir valve

A
deflate cuff
place valve
listen to speech
have them cough
look for respiratory distress
do a clinical swallow exam
134
Q

what impact does a tracheostomy have on swallowing

A
increased risk of aspiration due to:
poor sub-glottic pressure
poor laryngeal elevation
reduced upper airway sensitivity because air is not moistened thru nose
general muscle weakness (already in ICU)
135
Q

what is barrett’s esophagus

A

precancerous changes in the mucosa due to prolonged acid in esophagus

136
Q

what are possible results of a supraglottic laryngectomy

A

pharyngeal proplusion impaired

airway compromise

137
Q

what are the theories related to cognitive aging

A
  1. general slowing: speed of executive operations decreases
  2. inhibition deficit: irrelevant info less suppressed which creates distraction
  3. region specific neural aging:
  4. transmission deficit: connections between representational units (tip of the tongue phenomenon)
  5. working memory reduced
  6. resource theory: finite pool of resources shared simultaneously by other cognitive processes
  7. frontal lobe aging: loss of activity in frontal regions plays a role in inhibiting irrelevant material
138
Q

what are the 2 subtypes of mild cognitive impairment

A
  1. amnestic: affects memory

2. nonamnestic: affects thinking skills other than memory

139
Q

what is dementia

A
  1. includes memory deficits and at least one of the following: aphasia, apraxia, agnosia, or disturbance in executive functioning.
  2. must be severe enough to impair social and occupational functioning
140
Q

what are standardized screening tools for dementia

A
  1. mini mental status exam ( gold standard)
  2. clinical dementia rating scale
  3. Blessed dementia scale (family member report)
  4. Global Deterioration Scale
141
Q

what are components of comprehensive assessment

A
  1. case history and interview: medical status, education, occupation, socioeconomic, cultural, linguistic background. Auditory, visual, motor, cognitive, and emotional status. Patient/family goals and preferences as well as concerns
  2. observation: observe ability to attend, perceive, organize, remember verbal and nonverbal info in ideal conditions in context of various activities
  3. informal assessments
  4. formal assessments
142
Q

what are informal assessments for dementia

A
  1. oral motor
  2. language sample
  3. comprehension tasks: follow directions
  4. visual comprehension tasks
  5. expressive tasks: answering questions, describing
  6. reading, and writing tasks
  7. cognitive tasks: delay recall, orientation
143
Q

what are formal standardized assessments for dementia

A
  1. Alzheimers Quick Test
  2. BDAE
  3. Cognitive Linguistic Quick Test
  4. Functional Skills Survey
  5. NEUROPSI-Attention and memory
  6. RAINBO: evaluates communication and swallowing
  7. WAB
144
Q

what are symptoms of lewy body dementia

A
  1. symptoms and memory vary significantly from day to day
  2. early symptom is difficulty walking, decrease in balance, ability to control physical movements. Frequent falling
  3. flat affect
  4. visual hallucinations
  5. REM sleep disorder. Physically act out the situation in their dreams
  6. more men than women
145
Q

what are characteristics of Alzheimers

A
  1. insidious onset
  2. progressive course
  3. heterogeneous disease
146
Q

what are pathological changes in AD

A
  1. cortex shrinks
  2. shrinkage in the hippocampus
  3. ventricles grow larger
  4. abundance of beta-amyloid plaques and eurofibrillary tangles
147
Q

what are language symptoms in each AD stage

A

early stage: mild word retrieval, mild decrease in comprehension

middle stage: frequent word retrieval deficits, ungrammatical sentences, reduced conversation

late stage: nonfunctional reading/writing, limited comprehension, speech limited to single words, bizzare and devoid of meaning

148
Q

what are the 3 common presentations for lewy body dementia

A

type 1: begins with memory impairment or cognitive disorder over 2 or more distinctive lewy body dementia features
type 2: begins with movement disorder that leads to PD then develops symptoms of dementia
type 3: begins with neuropsychiatric symptoms

149
Q

what are the core clinical features of lewy body dementia

A
  1. fluctuating cognition
  2. neuropsychiatric symptoms
  3. motor features of parkinsonism
150
Q

what is the neuropathology of fronto temporal dementia

A
  1. accumulation of abnormal tau protein in cells
  2. tau becomes tangles
  3. progressive loss of nerve cells in frontal and temporal lobes
  4. gliosis: tissue scarring
  5. vacuolation: holes form in brain
  6. Picks bodies: abnormal cells begin to form
151
Q

what are the characteristics of fronto temporal dementia

A
  1. uninhibited and socially inappropriate behavior
  2. loss of awareness of concern about behavior change
  3. major increase in appetite
  4. loss of speech/language
  5. compulsive and repetitive behaviors
  6. memory loss
152
Q

what are the subtypes of fronto temporal dementia

A
  1. fronto variant: initial personality change, executive dysfunction, impaired working memory, attention deficits
  2. semantic dementia: initial language abnormality, emotional distance, fluent dysphasia,
  3. progressive aphasia: like semantic dementia but with non fluent aphasia
153
Q

what are the characteristics of Picks disease

A
  1. personality and behavior change
  2. loss of empathy
  3. obsessive-compulsive
  4. food craving
  5. use of wrong words, echoing
  6. difficulties in thinking, attention, gradual emotional apathy
154
Q

what are the characteristics of FTDP17

A
  1. behavioral change
  2. psychiatric symptoms
  3. cognitive decline
  4. evntual mutism
155
Q

what are the characteristics of supranuclear Palsy

A
  1. motor difficulties: problems with balance and gait
  2. personality/behavioral changes: apathy, irritability,
  3. characteristic gaze palsy (vertical eye movement)
  4. pseudobulbar palsy (face movement)
  5. rigidity of neck and upper trunk
  6. poor visual function
156
Q

what are the characteristics of corticobasal degeneration

A
  1. signs of Parkinsonism
  2. cognitive and visual-spatial impairment
  3. hesitant and halting speech
  4. sudden contractions of muscles
  5. difficulty swallowing
  6. phonologic and spelling impairment
  7. visuospatial impairment
157
Q

what is the presentation of vascular dementia

A
  1. comes on suddenly then slow stepwise progresssion from multiple strokes
  2. personality and intellect are preserved until late stages
158
Q

what are the characteristics of primary progressive aphasia

A
  1. decline in one or more language functions
  2. begins gradually with word finding issues
  3. does not affect memory, reasoning and visual perception
159
Q

what are the hallmarks of subcortical dementia

A
  1. bradyphrenia (slow cognition)
  2. memory and learning disturbances
  3. frontal executive syndromes
  4. motor disturbances
  5. psychiatric disturbances
  6. more rapid progression than primary progressive
160
Q

what are characteristics of pseudodementia

A
  1. rapid onset
  2. minimal effort to perform tests
  3. cognitive impairment, loss of appetite, difficulty sleeping, social withdrawal
161
Q

what are direct interventions

A

restorative treatments that aim at improving or restoring impaired function

162
Q

what are types of direct interventions

A
  1. cognitive stimulation therapy: themebased typically in a small group setting, psychosocial and interactive
  2. reminiscence therapy: review of life events
  3. reality orientation: to reduce confusion and increase awareness. Use visual aids to present info for time, person, and place
  4. external memory aids
  5. validation therapy: validating values, beliefs and reality of the person to help reduce stress and provide opportunities for them to express feelings
  6. simulated presence therapy: playing audio recordings of close relatives
163
Q

what are indirect interventions

A
  1. communication skill training: training caregivers to assume some responsibility in communication
  2. environmental modifications