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Dental Nurse Unit 313 > Exam unit 313 > Flashcards

Exam unit 313 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the soft palate and its function?

A

A flap of soft tissue attached to the back of the hard palate. It seals off the oral cavity from the nasal cavity during swallowing.

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2
Q

What is the cementum?

A

A thin calcified covering of the root dentine only

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3
Q

What are the 2 main disorders of the tongue?

A

Glossitis (soreness and inflammation of the tongue)

Dysphagia (difficulty in swallowing)

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4
Q

What is enamel?

A

A highly calcified tissue covering the whole crown of the tooth - the hardest substance in the body

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5
Q

What is dentine?

A

A less calcified tissue than enamel, which forms the inner bulk of the crown and root.

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6
Q

What are the cells called that form enamel and where do they lie?

A

Ameloblast Cells - these lie at the ADJ

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7
Q

What is the pulp?

A

The inner neurovascular tissue of the tooth, within the central pulp chamber

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8
Q

How many roots in deciduous upper molars?

A

3

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9
Q

How many teeth are there in a deciduous set?

A

20

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10
Q

How many roots in upper and lower deciduous incisors and canines?

A

1

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11
Q

What is the ADJ?

A

Amelodentinal junction - the junction/boundary between the enamel and dentine layers

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12
Q

What are the cells called that form dentine?

A

Odontoblast cells

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13
Q

What are the main functions of the tongue?

A

Speech
Taste
Aids mastication/swallowing
Cleansing

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14
Q

How does the deciduous/primary dentition differ from the secondary set?

A

The primary dentition only has 2 molars as opposed to 3 and no pre-molars present

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15
Q

How many roots in deciduous lower molars?

A

2

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16
Q

Number of roots on all upper permanent molars?

A

3

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17
Q

Number of roots on upper and lower permanent incisors, canines and premolars?

A

One, except the upper first premolar which has 2 roots.

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18
Q

How many teeth in a permanent set?

A

32

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19
Q

What age do deciduous teeth begin erupting?

A

6 months

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20
Q

What are the 3 main salivary glands?

A

Parotid
Submandibular
Sublingual

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21
Q

What is the periodontal ligament?

A

Connective tissue attachment between the tooth and the alveolar bone

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22
Q

Which salivary gland is affected by the viral infection mumps?

A

Parotid

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23
Q

Number of roots on all lower permanent molars?

A

2

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24
Q

Causes of xerostomia?

A

Irradiation - usually radiotherapy

Medications - diuretics

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25
Q

What age do permanent teeth begin erupting?

A

6 years

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26
Q

What is the alveolar bone?

A

Specialised ridge of bone over the bony arch of each jaw, where the teeth sit in their sockets.

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27
Q

What is the alveolar process?

A

The horseshoe shaped ridge of bone of the mandible and maxilla.

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28
Q

Main methods of carrying out oral health assessments?

A 
Vitality Tests
Study Models
Photographs
Transillumination
Radiographs
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29
Q

How to test a tooths sensitivity to cold?

A

Ethyl Chloride

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30
Q

How to test a tooths sensitivity to heat?

A

Gutta Percha

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31
Q

What is an electric pulp tester used for?

A

To determine the degree of vitality of a tooth.
Normal result - healthy pulp
Increased response - early pulpitis present
Reduced response - pulp is dying
No response - pulp tissue is dead

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32
Q

What is a briault probe used for?

A

To detect interproximal caries either mesially or distally

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33
Q

The vertical overlap of the upper incisors over the lowers in occlusion is called?

A

Overbite

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34
Q

The horizontal overlap of the upper incisors over the lowers in occlusion is called?

A

Overjet

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35
Q

What is the ideal overjet of teeth in occlusion?

A

2-4mm

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36
Q

What is the ideal overbite of teeth in occlusion?

A

50%

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37
Q

What is malocclusion?

A

When normal occlusion isn’t present, this could be due to overcrowding, protruding upper incisors, prominent lower jaw.

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38
Q

What is a class II division I malocclussion?

A

Overjet of upper incisors is greater than 4mm. The upper teeth are too far forward relative to the lowers-the mandible is too far behind its normal position.

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39
Q

What is a class II division II malocclusion?

A

Overbite over the upper incisors is greater than 50%.

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40
Q

What is a class III malocclusion?

A

The mandible and lower teeth are too far forward relative to the maxilla and upper teeth.

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41
Q

What is a supernumerary tooth?

A

An extra tooth in addition to the 32 permanent teeth

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42
Q

How will dental caries show up on an x-ray?

A

A dark area extending inwards from the enamel surface.

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43
Q

What is used for a vitality test?

A

Cold- ethyl chloride
Hot- GP points

Electric test can also be used but is uncommon as it is expensive

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44
Q

How many days do you need to acknowledge a complaint and how many days until you have to respond?

A

2 days to acknowledge

10 days to respond

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45
Q

How many roots do 7’s have?

A

3

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46
Q

What are the salivary glands called?

A

Sublingual gland - under tongue
Submandibular gland - back of mandible
Paratid gland - by the ear near the ramus (TMJ)

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47
Q

How long do you need to keep patient records for?

A

11 years

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48
Q

What are the muscles used for mastication?

A

Temporalis- closes the jaw and pulls it backwards
Masseter- closes the jaw
Tperyjoid- closes the jaw
Lateral tperyjoid- moves side to side

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49
Q

What information needs to be given for a patient to consent?

A

Sufficient

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50
Q

Where is the complaints procedure found?

A

In the patient/practice leaflet

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51
Q

Name the upper nerves

A

Superior dental nerve
Anterior - 1,2,3
Middle - 4,5 (buccal)
Posterior - 4,5,6,7,8

Maso - 1,2,3
Greater - 4,5,6,7,8 (palatal)

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52
Q

How is the mouth affected by old age?

A

Teeth become darker
Gums recede
Soft tissues become thinner and more elastic

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53
Q

What causes erosion?

A

Acid

Can be from fizzy drinks or from conditions such as anemia which increase throwing up.

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54
Q

What is glossitis?

A

The inflammation of the tongue

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55
Q

What probes would you use in a dental exam?

A

BPE
WHO
Brialt (for interproximal caries)

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56
Q

What is the technical term for dry mouth?

A

Xerostomia

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57
Q

Name the 3 lower nerves and what they numb

A

Inferior dental nerve - IV block, blocks sensation to all lower teeth
Long buccal nerve - buccal side of lower teeth
Lingual nerve - lingual side of lower teeth and half of tongue

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58
Q

What is Atrision?

A

The wearing down of teeth from clenching or grinding

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59
Q

What condition can be caused by pregnancy?

A

Gingivitis

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60
Q

What does an antibiotic do and what would the dentist prescribe if the patient is allergic to penicillin?

A

It kills bacteria

Erythromycin

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61
Q

What may cause abrasion of the teeth?

A

Brushing too hard

62
Q

What should you do if someone is having an angina attack?

A

Put GTN spray under their tongue

63
Q

What is the first thing you should do if a patient faints?

A

Lie them down and elevate their feet

Check for breathing

64
Q

What does oral cancer look like?

A

A lump with a hard rolled edge

65
Q

How can you tell if someone is having an asthma attack and what should you give them?

A

They will wheeze

Give them a salbutamol inhaler

66
Q

Why would the dentist use a sedative?

A

To calm the patient down or make them feel drowsy

67
Q

What is the pulse rate for someone having a cardio arrest?

A

None (their heart has stopped)

68
Q

What temperature should the water be when mixing alginate?

A

Room temperature

69
Q

Which legislation gives patients the right to see their records

A

Access to health records act

70
Q

What is the ratio for CPR

A

30:2

71
Q

What does carsonoma look like in the mouth

A

This is the same as cancer..

A lump with a hard rolled edge

72
Q

What type of probe is used for interproximal caries ?

A

Brialt probe

73
Q

What term is used to describe tooth loss caused by the grinding of teeth?

A

Attrition

74
Q

using FDI notation what is the lower left first deciduous molar known as in the palmer charting system?

A

74

75
Q

What is the correct term used to describe the horizontal distance between the upper and lower incisors ?

A

Overjet

76
Q 
What is used during ortho treatment with a removable appliance?
A. Bracket
B. Crib
C. Molar band
D. Tube
A

B. Crib

77
Q

What feature is present with Angle’s class 1 ?

A

Overjet 2-3mm, overbite 50%

78
Q

What is a class 3 malocclusion ?

A

Reverse overjet

79
Q

what disease of the soft tissue is associated with infection by bacteria ?

A

Periodontitis

80
Q

What is the dental specialism of elderly patients called?

A

Gerodontics

81
Q

What is most likely to be present with a class 2 division 1 malocclusion?

A

Proclined upper incisors

82
Q

What are the most likely teeth to be crowded?

A

Canines

83
Q

What soft tissue disease is most likely to occur after taking a long course of broad-spectrum antibiotics?

A

Oral candidiasis

84
Q

What type of tissue is affected by osteoporosis

A

Bone

85
Q 
Which on of the following diseases of the mucosa is not classed as an inflammatory condition?
A. Angular cheilitis
B. Erythroplakia
C. Glossitis
D. Stomatitis
A

B. Erythroplakia

86
Q

AVPU is used for medical emergencies, what does the A stand for ?

A

Alert

87
Q 
During an oral health assessment, the dentist will inspect various tissues of the head and neck of a patient. Which one of the following options is the tissue where squamous cell carcinoma is most likely to be seen?
A. Deciduous teeth
B. Floor of the mouth
C. Gingiva
D. Lymph nodes
A

Floor of the mouth

88
Q 
During an oral health assessment, a patient is diagnosed with chronic gingivitis. Which one of the following is most likely to have been found when this condition is present?
A. Furcation lesions
B. Gingival hyperplasia
C. Subgingival calculus
D. True pockets
A

Gingival hyperplasia

89
Q 
During an oral health assessment, a periodontal code 1 is recorded in the upper anterior sextant. Which one of the following findings does this code indicate to be present?
A. Bleeding on probing
B. Furcation involvement
C. Plaque retention factor
D. Tooth mobility
A

Bleeding on probing

90
Q 
Orthodontic appliances may be removable, functional or fixed in type. Which one of the following tooth movements usually requires a fixed appliance to achieve it?
A. Correction of crossbite
B. Derotation
C. Distal movement along the arch
D. Reduction of overbite
A

Derotation

91
Q 
A 15-year-old patient is assessed as requiring orthodontic treatment for severe crowding in both arches. Which one of the following radiograph views is most likely to be required before treatment begins?
A. Dental pantomograph
B. Lateral oblique
C. Periapical
D. Vertical bitewing
A

Dental pantomograph

92
Q 
Which oral health product should be recommended to a patient who has had a fixed orthodontic appliance fitted to assist with cleaning beneath the archwire?
A. Floss
B. Interdental brush
C. Mouthwash
D. Toothbrush
A

Interdental brush

93
Q 
Which one of the following options indicates the type of orthodontic device that specifically uses the oral musculature to allow controlled movement of the mandible?
A. Fixed appliance
B. Fixed retainer
C. Functional appliance
D. Removable appliance
A

Functional appliance

94
Q 
When setting up the surgery for an orthodontic fixed appliance fit appointment, which one of the following items must the dental nurse set out to assist in the completion of the procedure?
A. Adams pliers
B. Bracket holders
C. Measuring ruler
D. Straight handpiece
A

Bracket holders

95
Q 
When a patient has been accepted for orthodontic treatment at the dental workplace, which one of the following options must be discussed with ALL patients when preoperative advice is to be given?
A. Need for extractions
B. Need for fixed appliances
C. Need for impressions
D. Need for surgery
A

Need for impressions

96
Q 
Which one of the following is an effect that often occurs in older patients due to age-related changes to their teeth?
A. Decreased tooth sensitivity
B. Occlusal caries
C. Root curvature
D. Whitened teeth
A

Decreased tooth sensitivity

97
Q 
Which one of the following diseases of the oral mucosa is described as the presence of several small, shallow, painful ulcers that heal to leave no scarring?
A. Herpetiform ulceration
B. Major aphthous ulceration
C. Minor aphthous ulceration
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
A

Minor aphthous ulceration

98
Q 
Various medical conditions may affect the oral tissues detrimentally. Which one of the following effects is often seen in patients who are diagnosed with type 2 diabetes?
A. Aphthous ulcers
B. Enamel erosion
C. Poor wound healing
D. Stomatitis
A

Poor wound healing

99
Q 
A patient presenting with an inflamed tongue that appears smooth and red may be deficient in which one of the following?
A. Fluoride
B. Gluten
C. Iron
D. Vitamin C
A

Iron

100
Q 
Which one of the following diseases of the oral mucosa is described as an immovable white patch that has no obvious cause?
A. Leukoplakia
B. Major aphthous ulceration
C. Oral candidiasis
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
A

Leukoplakia

101
Q

Which one of the following groups of signs would indicate that a casualty is suffering an asthma attack?
A. Breathless, cyanosis, wheezing on expiration
B. Coughing or wheezing, cyanosis
C. Facial swelling, rash, gasping
D. Trembling, drowsy, slurred speech

A

Breathless, cyanosis, wheezing on expiration

102
Q

How long should children’s records be kept for?

A

Till 25 years of age

103
Q

What does a BPE score of 0 mean?

A

Healthy tissues, no bleeding after probing

104
Q

What does a BPE score of 1 mean?

A

Bleeding after probing, pocket depth up to 3.5mm, no calculus or defective margins

105
Q

What does a BPE score of 2 mean?

A

Probing depth up to 3.5mm, calculus or other plaque retention detected

106
Q

What does a BPE score of 3 mean?

A

Black band partially visible in deepest pocket, pocket up to 5mm deep.

107
Q

What does a BPE score of 4 mean?

A

Black band not visible in deepest pocket, 5.5mm deep.

108
Q

What does * mean on a BPE score?

A

Furcation involvement

109
Q

What does the temporalis do?

A

Pulls the mandible backwards and closed

110
Q

What does the masseter do?

A

Closes the mandible

111
Q

What does the medial pterygoid do?

A

Closes the mandible

112
Q

During an oral health assessment, the dentist will inspect various tissues of the head and neck of a patient. Which
one of the following options is the tissue where squamous cell carcinoma is most likely to be seen?

A

Floor of mouth

113
Q

During an oral health assessment, the dentist may detect the presence of a periodontal pocket, Which of the
following assessment methods can be used to indicate the presence of a pocket?

A

Use of a BPE probe

114
Q 
Which of the following cannot be diagnosed by the use of dental radiographs?
Congenital tooth absence
Dental abscess
Jaw fracture
Tooth vitality
A

Tooth vitality

115
Q

Various materials are used by the dental team during an oral health assessment. Which one of the following
materials is used to take impressions for study models?

A

Calcium and alignate salts with water

116
Q

Vitality testing is often carried out by the dentist to diagnose the source of dental pain. What is the main disadvantage to the patient during the testing?

A

All tests involve a painful stimulus

117
Q

Before patients undergo a course of dental treatment, they must be given certain information so that they can give
valid consent. What is NOT necessary for consent to be valid?

A

Agreed in writing

118
Q

What is the correct term used to describe the horizontal distance between the upper and lower incisors, which is
usually measured during an orthodontic assessment?

A

Anterior open bite

119
Q

Which one of the following diseases of the oral mucosa is described as the presence of several small, shallow, painful
ulcers that heal to leave no scarring?

A

Herpetiform ulceration

120
Q

Many dental workplaces have an automatic external defibrillator (AED) on the premises for use in certain medical
emergency situations. Which one of the following is an event for which the AED can be used?

A

Ventricular fibrillation

121
Q

Which signs would indicate that a casualty has suffered a cardiac arrest?

A

Grey pallor, no pulse, no chest movement

122
Q

Which medical emergency drug must be administered by intramuscular injection rather than orally?

A

Hydrocortisone

123
Q

What is the first sign of respiratory arrest?

A

Wheezing

124
Q

Who should be notified if there is a chemical spillage?

A

Health and safety executive

125
Q

Which nerve supplies sensation to all lower teeth?

A

Inferior dental nerve

126
Q

Where are the parotid glands situated in the mouth?

A

Partly over and in front of the coronoid process

127
Q

Informed consent must be?

A

Adequate

128
Q

What is the pulse rate of a patient following cardiac arrest?

A

None

129
Q 
Which of the following is NOT an oral disease?
Oropharyngeal 
Herpes Simplex
Major Aphthous Ulcer
Stomatitis
A

Oropharyngeal

130
Q

Which structure are the gingival fibers attached to?

A

Cementum

131
Q

Radiographs are used as part of which treatment?

A

Extraction

132
Q

Tooth mobility grade 2 is:

A

Side to side movement more than 2mm

133
Q

What would cause swollen ulcerative gingivae?

A

Acute Necrotising Ulcerative Gingivitis

134
Q

The sigmoid notch lies between what structures?

A

Head of condyle and the coronoid process

135
Q

How many years should records regarding the storage of drugs be retained?

A

11 years

136
Q

What does ANUG stand for?

A

Acute Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis

137
Q

Which medication is used for the treatment of ANUG?

A

Metronidazole

138
Q

Which medical condition can affect periodontal tissue?

A

Diabetes

139
Q

Who would you contact if you had a complaint as an NHS patient?

A

Local primary care trust

140
Q

What is the name of the triangular piece of tissue between adjacent teeth?

A

Interdental Papilla

141
Q

Using the FDI notation, which tooth is 47?

A

Lower right 2nd molar

142
Q

Using the FDI notation, which tooth is 53?

A

Upper right deciduous canine

143
Q

What is the instrument used to measure pocket depth?

A

WHO probe

144
Q

Action to take with Myocardial infarction?

A

Give aspirin, call 999

145
Q

What is an extra oral assessment carried out to identify?

A

Swellings or abnormalities

146
Q

What is an anterior occlusal radiograph commonly used to assess?

A

Unerupted teeth

147
Q

Which muscle positioned on the outer surface of the zygomatic arch closes the mouth?

A

Masseter

148
Q

Which one of the following describes the role of the meniscus fibrous tissue found between the temporal bone and condyle?

A

It prevents bones from rubbing against each other

149
Q

A patient has a white patch on the inside of their cheek that can be wiped off. Which condition are they likely to be diagnosed with?

A

Oral candidiasis

150
Q

What preventative advice should be given to a patient who has red and white patches within the oral mucosa?

A

Stop smoking and reduce alcohol intake

151
Q

A patient informs others of an unusual taste in their mouth, collapses and loses consciousness. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this?

A

Epileptic seizure

Dental Nurse Unit 313 (1 decks)

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