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abnormal sychocology > exam two > Flashcards

exam two Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is true about EMDR?

a. It no longer relies on bilateral stimulation.

b. It is controversial because exactly why it works isn’t clear.

c. It has not been found to be effective in research studies.

d. It is used for adjustment disorders, but not PTSD.

A

b. It is controversial because exactly why it works isn’t clear.

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2
Q

“Hostile families are likely to have difficulty in response to loss.” This reflects what approach?

a. Family focused grief therapy

b. Integrative behavioral couples therapy

c. Multifamily group psychoeducation

d. Cognitive-behavioral conjoint therapy (CBCT)

A

a. Family focused grief therapy

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3
Q

“PTSD involves some memories that are verbally accessible and others that are situationally accessible.” This reflects which cognitive approach?

a. Dual representation theory

b. Emotional processing theory

c. Negative appraisals theory

d. Cognitive processing therapy?

A

a. Dual representation theory

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4
Q

Someone diagnosed with PTSD who appears to be in perpetual “fight or flight” mode would likely show heightened nervous system activity.

a. sympathetic

b. parasympathetic

c. autonomic

d. peripheral

A

a. sympathetic

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5
Q

What type of drugs is most often prescribed for people experiencing posttraumatic stress?

a. Tricyclics

b. Atypical antipsychotics

c. SSRIs

d. Anticonvulsants

A

c. SSRIs

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6
Q

Which is not true about group therapy for posttraumatic stress?

a. It is a commonly used intervention.

b. Some approaches try to help members gain insight into their feelings and relationship patterns.

c. Some approaches incorporate exposure techniques.

d. Extensive RCT studies have shown group approaches are effective.

A

d. Extensive RCT studies have shown group approaches are effective.
Only “D” is false. While group therapy for PTSD is commonly used, there are not many RCTs showing its effectiveness.

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7
Q

Which of the following does not have a historical connection to today’s PTSD diagnosis?

a. War neurasthenia

b. Shell shock

c. Railway spine

d. Prolonged grief

A

d. Prolonged grief

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8
Q

From an evolutionary standpoint, which of the following is true about grief?

a. Grief may be adaptive by signaling a strong ability to form attachments.

b. Grief is maladaptive because it indicates a tendency to become overly attached.

c. Grief increases fitness because people are attracted to people in mourning.

d. Grief is maladaptive because it suggests immune system inflammation.

A

a. Grief may be adaptive by signaling a strong ability to form attachments.

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9
Q

Which of the following does NOT constitute a trauma, as it is defined in the DSM and ICD?

a. Being mugged in an alley

b. Surviving an earthquake

c. Being broken up with by one’s partner

d. Getting shot during a war

A

c. Being broken up with by one’s partner

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10
Q

Why have some military groups advocated renaming posttraumatic stress disorder as posttraumatic stress injury?

a. Because “injury” makes clear that one has been psychologically wounded and has a serious medical disorder.

b. To destigmatize what many see as an understandable emotional response to the traumas of war.

c. Use of the word “injury” makes it more likely that insurers will cover treatments.

d. Because posttraumatic growth often results from psychological injury.

A

b. To destigmatize what many see as an understandable emotional response to the traumas of war.

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11
Q

The main difference between posttraumatic stress and acute stress involves which of the following?

a. Intensity

b. Duration

c. The kind of trauma experienced

d. Impact on relationships

A

b. Duration

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12
Q

Which PTSD intervention is now controversial because there is some evidence it may harm clients?

a. Psychological first aid

b. Stress inoculation training (SIT)

c. Critical incident stress debriefing (CISD)

d. Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR)

A

c. Critical incident stress debriefing (CISD)

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13
Q

Which is not a goal of therapy rooted in negative appraisals theory?

a. Alter negative appraisals of the trauma.

b. Eliminate dysfunctional cognitive and behavioral strategies.

c. Alter dysfunctional fear structures.

d. Reduce re-experiencing of the trauma by elaborating memories of it and identifying triggers.

A

c. Alter dysfunctional fear structures.

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14
Q

Why is in vivo exposure not usually viable for treating posttraumatic stress?

a. It is better to do therapy incognito.

b. Exposure to traumas is likely to retraumatize.

c. Evidence suggests imaginal exposure is more effective.

d. The traumatic event cannot be recreated.

A

d. The traumatic event cannot be recreated.

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15
Q

Which of the following is true about posttrauamtic growth?

a. Is rooted in operant conditioning.

b. Reflects how trauma has positive, as well as negative, impacts.

c. Can be treated with antidepressants.

d. Is a secondary outcome emphasized in mindfulness meditation.

A

b. Reflects how trauma has positive, as well as negative, impacts.

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16
Q

Which best describes the current consensus among genetic researchers on PTSD?

a. People with a genetic predisposition will inevitably develop PTSD in response to trauma.

b. Genetic predispositions make people vulnerable to PTSD following traumas.

c. If the PTSD gene is inherited, then PTSD will develop regardless of circumstances.

d. Candidate genes related to dopamine are consistently tied to PTSD.

A

b. Genetic predispositions make people vulnerable to PTSD following traumas.

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17
Q

Which is not true of short-term dynamic therapy of stress syndromes?

a. Underlying emotional conflicts and counterproductive. patterns of relating to others are examined.

b. It makes use of the therapeutic relationship.

c. It is used for posttraumatic stress but not for bereavement.

d. There have been efforts to research its effectiveness, though the strength of evidence is debated.

A

c. It is used for posttraumatic stress but not for bereavement.

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18
Q

“After surviving the accident, the world seemed fundamentally different. Even food didn’t taste the same.” This is an example of what?

a. Depersonalization

b. Derealization

c. Amnesia

d. Compartmentalization

A

b. Derealization

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19
Q

Sally has been experiencing a great deal of stress lately. Within the last three months, she got married and began a new job. What diagnosis might you suspect is most appropriate?

a. Adjustment disorder

b. Acute stress reaction

c. Posttraumatic stress disorder

d. Complex bereavement

A

a. Adjustment disorder

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20
Q

An assessment for psychosis is given to the same patient 6 months apart. Both times it indicates that schizophrenia is the best diagnosis. This illustrates which of the following?

a. Test-retest reliability

b. Internal validity

c. Interrater reliability

d. Construct validity

A

a. Test-retest reliability

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21
Q

How might an overactive mesolimbic dopamine pathway contribute to schizophrenia?

a. By fostering aberrant salience.

b. By reducing dopamine levels.

c. By causing extrapyramidal side effects.

d. By increasing venticle size.

A

A
Aberrant salience is when people over-attribute meaning to stimuli; it has been hypothesized that excessive mesolimbic dopamine pathway activity leads to aberrant salience.

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22
Q

Which statement is true?

a. Schizophrenia is often strongly correlated with social inequality and adversity.

b. Schizophrenia occurs about equally across racial and minority groups.

c. Consumer groups typically reject the medical model of schizophrenia.

d. Expressed emotion has minimal effect on schizophrenia.

A

a. Schizophrenia is often strongly correlated with social inequality and adversity.

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23
Q

Which of the following is true about positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

a. They suggest the patient is improving by moving in a positive direction.

b. They are additions to the personality, such as hallucinations.

c. They are not affected by antipsychotic drugs.

d. They are rarely noticed due to the more florid negative symptoms.

A

b. They are additions to the personality, such as hallucinations.

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24
Q

What neurotransmitter problem is most commonly associated with schizophrenia?

a. Too little serotonin

b. Too little glutamate

c. Too much GABA

d. Too much dopamine

A

d. Too much dopamine

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25
Q

The stress-vulnerability-coping skills model of psychosis combines which two perspectives?

a. Humanistic and biological

b. Psychodynamic and biological

c. Cognitive-behavioral and biological

d. Family systems and biological

A

c. Cognitive-behavioral and biological

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26
Q

Pre-therapy is rooted in which theoretical perspective?

a. Psychodynamic

b. Humanistic

c. Cognitive-behavioral

d. Narrative

A

b. Humanistic

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27
Q

Concordance rates are which of the following?

a. The percentage of time that one or the other twin in a twin pair is diagnosed with schizophrenia.

b. How likely one family member is to have schiziophrenia when another family member has it.

c. The percentage of time that the environment leads one twin to not develop schizophrenia despite a genetic predisposition.

d. The percentage of the time that both twins in a twin pair are diagnosed with schizophrenia.

A

d. The percentage of the time that both twins in a twin pair are diagnosed with schizophrenia.

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28
Q

Which community care approach applies humanistic-existential principles to therapeutic communities for those diagnosed with schizophrenia?

a. Assertive Community Treatment (ACT)

b. Open Dialogue

c. NAVIGATE program

d. Soteria Model

A

d. Soteria Model

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29
Q

Which is an example of a double bind?

a. Blaming parents for their children’s schizophrenia.

b. Being disappointed when one’s best friend doesn’t return a call.

c. Being told to hurry up but then being yelled at when one goes too fast.

d. Going to the movies and not being able to decide between an action movie and a romantic comedy.

A

c. Being told to hurry up but then being yelled at when one goes too fast.

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30
Q

Which was an early 20th-century treatment for schizophrenia?

a. Hypnosis

b. Bibliotherapy

c. Hydrotherapy

d. Cognitive-behavioral therapy

A

c. Hydrotherapy

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31
Q

Social drift refers to people diagnosed with schizophrenia drifting .

from thought to thought

from job to job

down the socioeconomic ladder

into hallucinations and delusions

A

down the socioeconomic ladder

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32
Q

Which is not true of the schizophrenogenic mother theory of schizophrenia?

a. It sees cold parenting as leading to schizophrenia.

b. It is generally no longer accepted.

c. It holds that if your mother has schizophrenia, you will probably have it too.

d. It reflects a psychodynamic and interpersonal approach to schizophrenia.
.

A

c. It holds that if your mother has schizophrenia, you will probably have it too.

Only “C” is false, as the schizophrenogenic mother theory is not about genetic inheritance of schizophrenia from one’s mother.

33
Q

Which description reflects a problem with theory of mind?

a. Sanjay doesn’t seem to pick up on other’s thoughts and feelings.

b. Donna has trouble on an intellectual assessment.

c. Freddy is overly attached to his dog, Rover.

d. Shelly hears voices that nobody else hears.

A

A
Theory of mind is the evolved human ability to view the world through others’ eyes and generate interpretations of why others behave as they do–something Sanjay clearly has difficulty doing.

34
Q

Which is true of antipsychotic drugs?

a. They fight the underlying virus that causes schizophrenia.

b. They mainly reduce negative symptoms.

c. They can be easily prescribed because they have few side effects.

d. They reduce dopamine sensitivity

A

d. They reduce dopamine sensitivity

35
Q

How is schizophreniform disorder different from schizophrenia?

a. It does not respond to antipsychotics.

b. It is of shorter duration.

c. It does not involve hallucinations.

d. It is mainly genetic.

A

b. It is of shorter duration.

36
Q

Which of the following is true about tremors, fidgeting, involuntary movements, and muscle rigidity?

a. They are primary motor disorder symptoms of psychosis.

b. They can result from prolonged antipsychotic use.

c. They occur mostly during periods of active hallucinations.

d. They are symptoms of brain ventricle enlargement.

A

b. They can result from prolonged antipsychotic use.

37
Q

What does the viral theory of schizophrenia hypothesize?

a. Schizophrenia is transmitted via a virus people catch during childhood.

b. If your mother had a virus while pregnant with you, your chances of developing schizophrenia are increased.

c. Viruses weaken the immune system, which makes people vulnerable to aberrant salience, which produces schizophrenia.

d. Genetically vulnerable people are susceptible to the schizophrenia virus.

A

b. If your mother had a virus while pregnant with you, your chances of developing schizophrenia are increased.

38
Q

Which is not a core component of psychosis?

a. Hallucinations

b. Delusions

c. Loss of reality contact

d. Emotional negativity

A

d. Emotional negativity

39
Q

Brain ventricle enlargement suggests which of the following?

a. A dopamine problem.

b. Schizophrenia is genetic.

c. Fewer brain cells.

d. A history of trauma.

A

c. Fewer brain cells.

40
Q

Mary feels depressed and hopeless because she has been socialized by her family and the broader culture to suppress her preferences and her feelings. This explanation of Mary’s depression best reflects which of the following?

a. Hopelessness theory

b. Emotion-focused therapy

c. Silencing the self theory

d. Family-focused therapy

A

c. Silencing the self theory

41
Q

Hypomania mainly differs from mania in what way?

a. Duration

b. Intensity

c. Floridness

d. Responsiveness to treatment

A

a. Duration

42
Q

Why is lithium an effective mood stabilizer?

a. It increases the production of serotonin.

b. It increases the production of dopamine.

c. It increases the production of norepinephrine.

d. The reason why lithium works isn’t clear.

A

d. The reason why lithium works isn’t clear.

43
Q

Which is not considered an antidepressant?

a. MAOIs

b. Tricyclics

c. SNRIs

d. Benzodiazepines

A

d. Benzodiazepines

44
Q

“It’s about the attributions that people make to explain things and how a certain attribution style could lead to depression.” This would be how you reply when your teacher asks you to describe which of the following?

a. Behavioral activation

b. Mindfulness training

c. Hopelessness theory

d. Learned helplessness

A

c. Hopelessness theory

45
Q

Which of the following is not a CBT technique used with depressed patients?

a. Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)

b. Daily Record of Dysfunctional Thoughts (DRDT)

c. Emotion-focused psychotherapy (EFT)

d. Behavioral activation

A

c. Emotion-focused psychotherapy (EFT)

46
Q

Which of the following is true about cyclothymic disorder?

a. Is controversial and will not appear in the ICD-11.

b. Characterizes those with consistently hypomanic and depressive symptoms, neither of which meet the criteria for full manic or depressive episodes.

c. Is seen in people with simultaneous, intermixed hypomanic and depressive symptoms, lasting at least six months.

d. Is seen in those with simultaneous, intermixed hypomanic and depressive episodes, lasting at least 12 months.

A

B
When someone experiences depression and mania symptoms that don’t qualify as full manic or depressive episodes, a cyclothymic disorder diagnosis is made.

47
Q

Which of the following is not something that Interpersonal and Social Rhythm Therapy (IPSRT) helps clients do?

a. Identify mood states

b. Regulate levels of stimulation

c. Minimize emotional ups and downs

Internalize rhythm to improve musicality

A

Internalize rhythm to improve musicality

48
Q

Dr. Jones focuses on helping her depressed clients learn how to work out conflicts with others and better manage relationships. Dr. Jones is most likely practicing which form of therapy?

a. CBT

b. EFT

c. FFT

d. IPT

A

d. IPT

49
Q

Which is not true of the DSM-5 diagnosis called persistent depressive disorder?

a. It is also sometimes referred to as dysthymic disorder.

b. Symptoms must last at least two years and not remit for more than two months.

c. People diagnosed with it cannot meet criteria for a major depressive episode.

d. It is a diagnosis for chronic cases of depression.

A

c. People diagnosed with it cannot meet criteria for a major depressive episode.

50
Q

Dysregulation models maintain which of the following?

a. Depression is adaptive in ancestral environments but not in modern society.

b. Depression occurs when an evolved adaptive mechanism malfunctions.

c. Depression is caused by circadian rhythm dysregulation.

d. Depression isn’t truly maldaptive because it helps people to regulate themselves when ill.

A

b. Depression occurs when an evolved adaptive mechanism malfunctions.

51
Q

Which is not part of Beck’s cognitive triad?

a. Self

b. Others

c. Future

d. Experience

A

b. Others

52
Q

“It’s true that I’ve published in the Daily Telegraph, the New York Times, and Le Monde, but I’m not a real writer. I was just lucky.” Which cognitive distortion does this reflect?

a. Personalization

b. Minimization

c. Magnification

d. Overgeneralization

A

b. Minimization

53
Q

SSRIs differ from SNRIs in which way?

a. SSRIs increase serotonin levels while SNRIs descrease serotonin and norepinephrine levels.

b. SSRIs increase serotonin levels while SNRIs increase serotonin and norepinephrine levels.

c. SSRIs decrease serotonin levels while SNRIs decrease serotonin and norepinephrine levels.

d. SSRIs decrease serotonin levels while SNRIs increase serotonin and norepinephrine levels.

A

b. SSRIs increase serotonin levels while SNRIs increase serotonin and norepinephrine levels.

54
Q

Both of these disorders have been added to the DSM-5 as new diagnoses. Likewise, both are extremely controversial.

a. Postpartum depression and seasonal affective disorder

b. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder and postpartum depression

c. Seasonal affective disorder and disruptive-mood dysregulation disorder

d. Disruptive-mood dysregulation disorder and premenstrual dysphoric disorder

A

d. Disruptive-mood dysregulation disorder and premenstrual dysphoric disorder

55
Q

Which is one way that bipolar I disorder is different than bipolar II?

a. Bipolar I is diagnosed after a shorter period of time than bipolar II.

b. Bipolar I is diagnosed when there has been a full-blown manic episode.

c. Bipolar I is more common in women.

d. Bipolar II is more treatable with medication.

A

b. Bipolar I is diagnosed when there has been a full-blown manic episode.

56
Q

Which of the following statements best describes a sociocultural approach to understanding mood disorders?

a. Economic hardship contributes to rates of depression.

b. Mania represents unconscious anger that has been directed towards the self.

c. Compared to other countries, Australians are much more likely to use antidepressants.

d. Problems with loss and separation are the root causes of depression.

A

a. Economic hardship contributes to rates of depression.

57
Q

What is the primary difference between endogenous and exogenous depression?

a. Endogenous depression originates from external circumstances, while exogenous depression originates from inside the person.

b. Exogenous depression originates from external circumstances, while endogenous depression originates from inside the person.

c. Endogenous depression is long-lasting and typically treatment-resistant, while exogenous depression is episodic and usually responds better to treatment.

d. Exogenous depression is long-lasting and typically treatment-resistant, while endogenous depression is episodic and usually responds better to treatment.

A

b. Exogenous depression originates from external circumstances, while endogenous depression originates from inside the person.

58
Q

Which brain structure associated with basic emotions has been implicated in depression?

a. Amygdala

b. Hippocampus

c. Frontal lobe

d. HPA axis

A

a. Amygdala

59
Q

In order to be diagnosed with major depressive disorder, what needs to have happened?

a. One must have experienced at least one major depressive episode.

b. One cannot have ever experienced a manic episode.

c. One cannot have ever experienced a hypomanic episode.

d. All of the above.

A

d. All of the above.

60
Q

Your uncle is too anxious to go outside to get the mail, so you go get it for him. What do psychologists call this?

a. Accommodation, and it’s bad.

b. Accommodation, and it’s good.

c. Expressed emotion, and it’s good.

d. Expressed emotion, and it’s bad.

A

a. Accommodation, and it’s bad.

61
Q

You try to change how a client who experiences panic attacks interprets bodily feedback. You are likely operating from which perspective?

a. Behavioral activation model

b. Emotional dysregulation model

c. Catastrophic misinterpretation model

d. Observational learning model

A

c. Catastrophic misinterpretation model

62
Q

tends to increase with age, while tends to decrease with age.

a. Depression; anxiety

b. Anxiety; depression

c. Obsessional thinking; compulsive behavior

d. Compulsive behavior; obsessional thinking

A

a. Depression; anxiety

Some research has found that people experience less anxiety as they age, but more depression.

63
Q

Carolina developed an intense fear of spiders after just a single negative encounter with one as a child. How might we explain this from an evolutionary perspective?

a. Prepared conditioning

b. Genetic predisposition

c. Classical conditioning

d. Amygdala malfunction

A

a. Prepared conditioning

64
Q

Which is not an obsessive-compulsive related disorder in DSM-5?

a. Body dysmorphic disorder

b. Hoarding disorder

c. Trichotillomania

d. Selective mutism

A

d. Selective mutism

65
Q

The classic case study of reflects a psychodynamic perspective.

a. Little Albert

b. Rat Man

c. Nervous Nellie

d. Little Hans

A

d. Little Hans

66
Q

Why wasn’t mixed anxiety and depressive disorder included in DSM-5?

a. It was found to have poor interrater reliability.

b. Depression and anxiety rarely co-occur.

c. An appropriate diagnostic code for it could not be identified.

d. The criteria should have required 3 month’s duration rather than 6 months.

A

a. It was found to have poor interrater reliability.

67
Q

Social anxiety disorder is also known as:

a. Agoraphobia

b. Generalized anxiety

c. Social phobia

d. Separation anxiety

A

c. Social phobia

68
Q

Sanjay is researching a rare disorder that has yet to be studied much. He wants to know which genes are implicated, but has no leads. He is most likely to do what kind of study?

a. Candidate gene study

b. Genome-wide association (GWA) study

c. Heritability study

d. ABAB design

A

b. Genome-wide association (GWA) study

69
Q

Chronic anxiety problems have been linked to which brain areas?

a. Anterior cingulate cortex and thalamus

b. Amygdala and insula

c. Striatum and amygdala

d. Prefrontal cortex and thalamus

A

b. Amygdala and insula

70
Q

Tessa goes through the steps of her fear hierarchy while practicing relaxation. She is undergoing what therapy technique?

a. Exposure plus response prevention

b. In vivo exposure

c. Modeling

d. Systematic desensitization

A

d. Systematic desensitization

71
Q

“Your probem is that you worry too much about worrying!” This reflects which cognitive explanation of anxiety?

a. Metacognitive model

b. Emotional dysregulation model

c. Intolerance of uncertainty model

d. Avoidance model

A

a. Metacognitive model

72
Q

According to a behavioral perspective, why are compulsions difficult to stop?

a. They are classically conditioned fear reactions.

b. They are negatively reinforced by reducing anxiety.

c. They are socially learned rituals.

d. They are responses to prepared conditioning.

A

B
Compulsions temporarily reduce the unpleasant anxiety that accompanies obsessions, according to behaviorists. Thus, they are negatively reinforced.

73
Q

The gut-brain axis .

a. Typically reduces inflammation in cases of anxiety.

b. Plays a minimal role in anxiety, but an active role in OCD.

c. Has been tied to anxiety, as well as depression.

d. Has been fully researched and explains why anxious people get stomach aches.

A

c. Has been tied to anxiety, as well as depression.

74
Q

Which is not an existential given?

a. Death

b. Freedom

c. Isolation

d. Self-actualization

A

d. Self-actualization

75
Q

What drugs are most commonly prescribed for anxiety?

a. Benzodiazepines

b. Barbiturates

c. Beta blockers

d. Antidepressants

A

d. Antidepressants

76
Q

Which is true of a structural family therapy perspective on generalized anxiety?

a. Overly differentiated relational boundaries are often central to problems with anxiety.

b. Developing communication skills is not as important as managing one’s emotions.

c. Too much expressed emotion leads to poor outcomes.

d. Anxiety tied to childhood relationships often leads people to fuse with their partners.

A

d. Anxiety tied to childhood relationships often leads people to fuse with their partners.

77
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

a. Social anxiety is less prevalent in Asian countries.

b. Women are prescribed anxiolytics more often than men.

c. High levels of parental education predict anxiety.

d. Being labeled with an anxiety disorder carries stigma.

A

c. High levels of parental education predict anxiety.

78
Q

What is most commonly prescribed for OCD?

a. Anticonvulsants

b. Second generation antipsychotics

c. Alprazolam (Xanax)

d. SSRI antidepressants

A

d. SSRI antidepressants

79
Q

Thoughts are central to , while actions are to central to .

a. fear; anxiety

b. obsessions; compulsions

c. anxiety; fear

d. compulsions; obsessions

A

b. obsessions; compulsions

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