Exam Three: Renal, Digestive, Reproductive Flashcards
1
Q
What cells produce androgen-binding protein?
A
Sertoli Cells
2
Q
What cells produce testosterone in the testis?
A
Leydig Cells
3
Q
What cells found in the seminiferous tubules do not produce sperm?
A
Sertoli Cells
4
Q
The gubernaculum is important in what process?
A
The descent of the testes
5
Q
What type of cells release pepsinogen?
A
Chief cells
6
Q
Functions of the stomach do not include _________ absorption
A
Protein
7
Q
Functions of the stomach include _______ digestion, ______ denaturing, _______ of food, and storage of _______ _____.
A
protein, protein, sterilization, ingested food
8
Q
What macromolecule is not digested in the mouth?
A
Fats
9
Q
What type of cells are a source of intrinsic factor?
A
Parietal Cells
10
Q
What type of cells release gastrin?
A
Enteroendocrine cells
11
Q
What percentage of filtrate volume will be reabsorbed by the renal tubule?
A
99%
12
Q
How are materials returned to the peritubular capillaries?
A
Diffusion and Osmosis
13
Q
What three factors make the movement of materials to the peritubular capillaries easy?
A
1) decreased blood pressure due to narrow efferent arteriole
2) slow flow rate
3) increased colloid osmotic pressure
14
Q
Where is 65-70% of filtrate reabsorbed?
A
Proximal Convoluted Tubule
15
Q
Great length, prominent microvilli, and abundant mitochondria are all characteristics of the _______
A
Proximal Convoluted Tubule
16
Q
Why are there so many mitochondria in the PCT?
A
They produce the ATP needed for active transport
17
Q
The transcellular route is through _______ cells.
A
Epithelial
18
Q
The paracellular route is between _______ cells.
A
Epithelial
19
Q
Epithelial nephrocytes have special permeability to _______
A
Sodium
20
Q
Cells of the PCT have a special ______ transport protein that binds to ______ and does not act unless also bound to sodium.
A
glucose, glucose
21
Q
Why do glucose transport proteins also need to bind to sodium?
A
They harness the concentration gradient and act as a Sodium Dependent Cotransporter
22
Q
The transporter for glucose is only present in the ____
A
PCT
23
Q
Because there are a fixed number of transporter proteins that may become saturated, there is a _______ _________
A
transport maximum
24
Q
The transport maximum of glucose is ____mg/minute
A
320
25
Diabetes mellitus causes glycosuria because the glucose level exceeds the _______ _________
transport maximum
26
Glucose transport is a form of _______ ______ transport
secondary active
27
Besides glucose, another sodium-dependent cotransporter material is _____ ______
amino acids
28
Amino acid transport proteins, like glucose transport proteins, have a ________ ________
transport maximum
29
Water reabsorption is _______
passive
30
There is more water in the ______ than outside of the ______
filtrate, PCT
31
Cells of the PCT are extremely permeable to water because they have ________
aquaporins
32
Filtrate becomes ____ concentrated in water
less
33
Water concentration will increase in the filtrate until it exceeds the pressure of water outside of the ___ and causes _______, leaving the filtrate _____ concentrated
PCT, osmosis, more
34
By water leaving the PCT, it creates a _______ ___________
concentration gradient
35
____ follows water out of the PCT by a solvent drag and diffusion because of the concentration gradient shift
K+ (potassium)
36
Na+ will always take an anion like ___ to maintain the electric balance.
Cl- (chlorine)
37
Because nephrocytes are permeable to water, they are also permeable to ______, which takes advantage of the aquaporins
urea
38
Because of the solvent drag, there is a percentage of ____ and other __________ ______ that will be reabsorbed.
urea, nitrogenous wastes
39
_____ _____ when present in the blood can have antiparasitic properties
Uric Acid
40
The primary function of tubular reabsorption in the loop of henle is to _______________
enable the collecting duct to concentrate urine and conserve water
41
Only ___% of the original filtrate remains when it enters the loop of henle
30
42
the osmolarity of filtrate entering the loop of henle is ____
300 miliosmoles
43
Extracellular fluid becomes more ______ as it descends from the cortex to the medulla
salty
44
osmolarity in the medulla can increase up to ______mOsm/L
1,200
45
The _________ limb of the loop of henle is very permeable to water
descending
46
water leaves as the limb descends via ________
osmosis
47
The descending limb of the loop of henle allows water to leave but does not allow ______ to follow, concentrating the tubular fluid
NaCl
48
The ascending limb of the loop of henle is/is not permeable to water
is not
49
the ascending limb of the loop of henle contains a lot of ________ cotransporter proteins
Na-K-Cl2
50
Why are there 2 Cls in the Na-K-Cl2 cotransporter protein?
for neutrality
51
The Na-K-Cl2 cotransporter protein is what _____ inhibits and what maintains the high osmolarity of the medulla
Lasix
52
Tubular fluid becomes _____ as it ascends into the cortex
hypotonic
53
The Na-K-Cl2 that is released from the ascending limb of the loop of henle is taken up by the _____ ______ in its ________ parallel
vasa recta, ascending
54
Water is reabsorbed by the vasa recta's ______ parallel
descending
55
The parallels and reabsorption of the vasa recta are known as
countercurrent exchange
56
____% of filtrate is reabsorbed in the loop of henle, leaving ___%
25-30, 10
57
what percentage of the original volume enters the DCT?
10%
58
electrolyte and waste concentration of filtrate is no longer similar to blood plasma once it enters the ____
DCT
59
The DCT is very sensitive to which hormone?
Aldosterone
60
In the DCT there is Na+ ___________ , H20 ___________ and K+ __________
reabsorption, reabsorption, secretion
61
Aldosterone triggers the production of ___ channels into the basal membrane
Na+
62
Calcium channels in the DCT are called _______
C-H-ATPase
63
Reabsorption of Ca is regulated by ___ and _______
PTH, calcitriol
64
Less than __% of the original filtrate volume is left when it enters the collecting system
5
65
The collecting system is sensitive to aldosterone, causing H20 _________, Na+ __________, K _________ and urea _________
reabsorption, reabsorption, secretion, reabsorption
66
Aquaporins are only present when ____ is present
ADH
67
The movement of substances from the peritubular capillaries into the tubule is called _______ _________
tubular secretion
68
____ is both water and lipid soluble
C02
69
Urochrome comes from the breakdown of ___________
hemoglobin
70
Normal urine pH is ____
6.0
71
Urine is composed of ___% H20
95
72
normal urine output is ____L/day
1-2
73
diabetes can be defined as chronic ______ with hyperglycemia
polyuria
74
Diabetes __________ is caused by hyposecretion of ADH
insipidus
75
diuretics function to ________ urine output and _______ blood volume
increase, decrease
76
diuretic mechanism of action is to __________ glomerular flow rate and ________ tubular reabsorption
increase, decrease
77
Nephrotic syndrome can be defined as __________ from glomerular injury
proteinuria
78
Nephroptosis can be defined as _______ ________
floating kidney
79
increased fluid pressure can obstruct the ureter resulting in a condition called ___________
hydronephrosis
80
chronic renal failure can be defined as irreversible loss of ________
nephrons
81
acute renal failure can be defined as an abrupt ________ in ________
decline, function
82
acute glomerulonephritis can be defined as _________ ___________ of the glomeruli
autoimmune inflammation
83
What hormone targets the Nephrone loop, DCT and CD causing Na+ reabsorption, K+ secretion and indirectly promoting Cl- and H20 reabsorption?
aldosterone
84
What hormone targets the PCT and afferent and efferent arterioles reducing water loss, reducing GFR, encouraging water intake and constricting blood vessels, raising blood pressure?
Angiotensin II
85
What hormone acts on the collecting duct promoting H20 reabsorption, reducing urine volume and increasing concentration?
ADH
86
What hormone acts on the collecting duct and afferent and efferent arterioles increasing GFR, constricting the efferent arteriole, dilating the afferent arteriole, increasing urine volume and lowering blood pressure?
Atrial Natriuretic Peptide
87
What hormone acts on the DCT causing reduced Ca2+ secretion?
Calcitonin
88
What hormone acts on the DCT causing CA2+ reabsorption?
Calcitriol
89
What hormones act on the juxtaglomerular apparatus and afferent arteriole, inducing renin secretion, constricting the afferent arteriole, and reducing GFR and urine volume?
Epinephrine and Norepinephrine
90
What hormone acts on the PCT, DCT and nephron loop promote Ca2+ reabsorption and increase phosphate excretion?
Parathyroid Hormone
91
Accessory digestive organs include the _______, tongue, ________, salivary glands, _______ and pancreas
teeth, gallbladder, liver
92
Digestive processes of the mouth include ________ of materials, __________, _________ and limited _______ by saliva
analysis, mastication, lubrication, digestion
93
Salivary amylase breaks down _______________ and works at a _______ pH
polysaccharides, neutral
94
salivary lipase breaks down _________ and works at a ______ pH
triglycerides, low
95
lysozyme breaks down gram __ bacteria
positive +
96
IgA antibodies in saliva function to _______ ________
block infection
97
mucin functions to ________ _____
lubricate food
98
secretion of saliva is controlled by the __________ nervous system
autonomic
99
__________ _________ of the medulla oblongata send action potentials down cranial nerves to stimulate _______
salivatory nuclei, salivation
100
phases of salivary release include the __________ and ____ phases
cephalic, oral
101
the ___________ phase of salivary release is brought on by the sight, thought, and smell of food.
cephalic
102
the ______ phase of salivary release is brought on by chemoreceptors and pressure receptors
oral
103
sympathetic stimulation results in the production of a _______, _______ saliva with ________ enzyme content
smaller, viscous, little
104
what substances are absorbed in the mouth?
lipid-soluble substances
105
the stomach has some limited digestion of _______ and _______
proteins, lipids
106
the acidity of the stomach and digestive enzyme, pepsin, helps to _______ the food
sterilize
107
the stomach liquifies food to produce _______
chyme
108
the stomach is lined with _____ ______ ___________
simple columnar epithelium
109
the stomach lining produces a carpet of mucus to _________ _____ _________ _____ ______
protect the stomach from acid
110
the epithelium of the stomach is organized into shallow depressions called _______ _____
gastric pits
111
B12 helps with the production of _____ ________ ______
red blood cells
112
gastric pits are lined with columnar epithelium called ______ _________ which release mucus
mucus epithelium
113
at the base of the gastric pits, there are two or three _________ ________
gastric glands
114
gastric glands have five types of cells: _________ ______ ______, _________ ______, _____ _____, ____________ ______, and __________ ______
mucus neck cells, parietal cells
115
mucus neck cells produce _______
mucin
116
parietal cells produce ________ ______
intrinsic factors
117
intrinsic factor is required for the absorption of ____ by the intestine
B12
118
Fe2 binds to gastroferritin and is absorbed by the ____ _______
small intestine
119
The process of carbonic anhydrase producing H+HCO3, H-K-ATPase pumping out H in exchange for K, and Cl shifting into the cell as HCO3 goes to the blood is called the
alkaline tide
120
pepsin digests _______
proteins
121
chief cells in infants produce _______ and _________ _______
rennin, gastric lipase
122
gastrin and somatostatin are produced by ______________ cells
enteroendocrine
123
gastrin is produced by ___ cells and _________ secretion by parietal and chief cells
g, stimulates
124
somatostatin is produced by ___ cells which weakly inhibits ______ release
d, gastrin
125
regenerative cells undergo ________ to replace old cells
mitosis
126
release of gastric secretion is controlled by both ______ and ________ mechanisms
neural, hormonal
127
the release of gastric secretion occurs in three phases: _________, _______ and __________
cephalic, gastric, intestinal
128
the cephalic phase of gastric secretion is directed by the ____ and occurs _______ food enters the stomach and is triggered by the thought, sight or smell of food
CNS, before
129
the gastric phase of gastric secretion occurs _______ _____ ____ ________ the stomach. The most important stimuli are ____ pH, __________ and ________
once food has reached, low, distention, peptides
130
the neural response of the gastric phase is caused by __________ causing ________ cells to make HCl and ________ cells to release pepsinogen and ___ cells to release gastrin
neural, distention, parietal, chief, g
131
the hormonal response of the gastric phase includes the release of _____ which causes the release of _______ and stimulates HC lfrom _______ cells. it is a _________ feedback loop
gastrin, pepsinogen, parietal, positive
132
release of gastrin is inhibited when pH drops below ___, and instead _________ is released (_________ feedback control)
2, somatostatin, negative
133
the intestinal phase of gastric secretion starts when ______ enters the ______ ________
chyme, small intestine
134
the main function of the intestinal phase is to control the entrance of chyme into the _____________
duodenum
135
the intestinal phase has both a ________ and __________ response
neural, hormonal
136
the neural response of the intestinal phase involves stretch receptors in the SI by the chyme inhibiting _________ production by the stomach
gastrin
137
the hormonal response of the intestinal phase involves ____ hormones
four
138
_______ is released from the small intestine if chyme is above 3 and stimulates gastric secretion
gastrin
139
_______ is released from the small intestine if chyme is less than 3 and inhibits gastric secretion
secretin
140
________________ and _________________ are both released from the SI due to the presence of fatty acids and lipids in the chyme. both _______ gastric secretion
cholecystokinin (CCK), gastric inhibitory polypeptide (GIP), inhibit
141
the period of gastric emptying must be closely regulated by ________ reflexes and ____________
neural, hormones
142
if the period of gastric emptying is too ______, chyme is not formed
fast
143
if the period of gastric emptying is too _____, the stomach becomes too acidic
slow
144
regulation of gastric emptying is primarily controlled by opening and closing of the _______ sphincter
pyloric
145
stimulation of gastric emptying is controlled by ______ of the stomach and _______
stretch, gastrin
146
inhibition of gastric emptying is controlled by _______ of the SI, _________ receptors, and ________ of the SI
stretch, chemical, hormones
147
the ______ _________ is the site of most digestion and almost all absorption
small intestine
148
the small intestine has three regions including the ________, ______ and ______
duodenum, jujenum, and ileum
149
the duodenum receives ______, _________ juices and _____
chyme, juice, bile
150
the hepatopancreatic sphincter is ______ between meals
closed
151
the ileum participates _____ in absorption than digestion
more
152
the jejunum participates _____ in absorption than digestion
less
153
the deep folds of the submucosa of the small intestine are called the ______ _________
plica circulares
154
the fingerlike projections of the mucosal surface containing lacteals are called ______
villi
155
the ________ of the SI have a brush border enzyme for proteins and carbs
microvilli
156
cells of the mucosal epithelium of the SI include ________ cells and _____ cells
absorptive, goblet
157
the absorptive cells of the mucosal epithelium participate in _________ _____
nutrient uptake
158
goblet cells secrete _____
mucus
159
the cells of the intestinal crypts include ________ cells, _______ cells, __________ cells, _______ cells, and ______ _____ cells
absorptive, goblet, enteroendocrine, paneth, epithelial stem
160
lysozyme is secreted by ______ ces
paneth
161
the cells of the submucosal layer include _________ glands, ______ patches and ______
duodenal, peyer's, MALT
162
intestinal secretion is largely ______ and ______
water, mucus
163
water is necessary for acid ________
hydrolysis
164
intestinal secretion is slightly ________
alkaline
165
release of small intestine secretion has two phases: _______ and ________
cephalic, intestinal
166
during the cephalic phase, ________________NS releases secretion in preparation for food
parasympathetic
167
during the cephalic phase, __________NS inhibits the release of mucus
sympathetic
168
the intestinal phase involves neural reflexes (__________ caused by chyme) and hormones (______, ______., ______, ____)
distention, gastrin, secretin, CCK, GIP
169
chemical digestion of the SI requires ______ _______ enzymes, juices from the __________, and juices from the ________
brush border, gallbladder, pancreas
170
enzymes from the pancreas break down __ ___________ ____ _______
all categories of food
171
pancreatic enzymes include ________ (like trypsin), ________ enzymes (like pancreatic amylase), ________ enzymes (like pancreatic lipase), and ______ and ______ _________
proteases, stratch, lipid enzymes, dna, rna nucleases
172
regulation of pancreatic secretion includes neural control and hormonal control (due to _______ in the _____)
food, SI
173
________ is released in response to HCl in the SI
secretin
174
______ is released in response to fats in the SI
CCK
175
_______ acts as a fat emulsifier
bile
176
bile is composed of bile _____, __________, bile _______, ________ and electrolytes (________ ______)
salts, phospholipids, pigments, cholesterol, sodium bicarb
177
the cephalic phase of bile release is/is not a strong stimulator
is not
178
_____ stimulates gallbladder contraction and relaxation of the sphincter of oddi
CCK
179
_______ stimulates the bile duct cells to produce a watery bicarb rich juice
secretin
180
the large intestine has four regions: _____, _________, _______, _____
cecum, appendix, colon, rectum
181
the large intestine functions to ________ digest, _________ water and electrolytes, and _________
chemically, absorb, defecate
182
cellulose digests ______
glucose
183
__ complex and most __ vitamins are synthesized by bacteria
B, K
184
chemical digestion and absorption is a __________ process
catabolic
185
food is broken down into _________ which can be absorbed
monomers
186
enzymatic breakdown is called _________
hydrolysis
187
dietary carbohydrates include ______ __________, _______, __________
starch, glycogen, cellulose, sugars
188
the most digestible dietary carb is _________
starch
189
which dietary carb cannot be digested?
cellulose
190
disaccharides include ______, ________ and _________
sucrose, maltose, lactose
191
monosaccharides include __________, ___________, _________
glucose, galactose, fructose
192
salivary amylase works in the _________ and ________
mouth, stomach
193
pancreatic amylase works in the small intestine to yield ________ from starches
maltose
194
dextrinase and glucoamylase are found on the ______ __________ ________ _________ and yield glucose and maltose
small intestine brush border
195
___________ is a brush border enzyme that breaks down maltose and produces two glucoses
maltase
196
_______ breaks down sucrose
sucrase
197
_________ breaks down lactose
lactase
198
sucrose is composed of ______ and _______
glucose, fructose
199
lactose is composed of ______ and _________
glucose, galactose
200
glucose Is absorbed transcellularly by ____-______ ___________ proteins or paracellularly by ________ _____
Na Glucose transport, solvent drag
201
_____________, similarly to glucose, is absorbed via a sodium dependent cotransporter protein
galactose
202
__________ is absorbed transcellularly by facilitated diffusion
fructose
203
pepsinogen is converted to _______ when cleaved by acid
pepsin
204
pepsin participates in _________ digestion, which occurs in the stomach and small intestine
protein
205
pepsin is particularly effective in digesting ___________
collagen
206
protein digestion in the small intestine includes work from __________ enzymes and __________ __________ enzymes
pancreatic, brush border
207
__________ enzymes, like trypsin and chymotrypsin, reduce the size of polypeptides by attacking internal peptide bonds
pancreatic
208
carboxypeptidase, another pancreatic and brush border enzyme, removes single amino acids from the __________ end
carboxyl
209
aminopeptidase and dipeptidase function to remove single amino acids from the _______ end
amine
210
enzymes in the small intestine work best at a(n) ________ pH
neutral
211
the three different amino acid-sodium transporters are dependent upon class, based on _________
charge
212
most lipid digestion occurs in the ______ ___________
small intestine
213
fats are __________ in water
insoluble
214
bile salts emulsify fats by binding to the fat droplets and ________
water
215
bile salts allow enzymes to act by increasing the __________ __________
surface area
216
lipases break down triglycerides to _______, that when fatty acids and monoglycerides combine with phospholipids from bile salts are called _________
droplets, micelles
217
micelles can be defined as a lipid core shielded from water by ____ ______, also containing __________ and fat-soluble vitamins
bile salts, cholesterol
218
when micelles come into contact with a cell surface, they melt onto the plasma membrane releasing ________ and _______ _______ _______ into the cell which resynthesize into triglycerides and combine with phospholipids, proteins and cholesterol to form a lipoprotein called ________
monoglycerides, free fatty acids, chylomicron
219
chylomicrons enter the blood and are broken down by __________ _______ to form _____ _____ ____ and _____ to be stored in adipose tissue
lipoprotein lipase, free fatty acids, glycerol
220
left-over chylomicrons are taken to the liver and converted by hepatocytes to ___ ______ _______ which travel to the adipose. _____ ______ _______ pick up and clean cholesterol and phospholipids and return it to the liver
low density lipoproteins, high density lipoproteins
221
low-density lipoproteins contain _____ cholesterol
bad
222
high-density lipoproteins contain _____ cholesterol
good
223
primary sex organs include the ______ and ________
testes and ovaries
224
our chromosomes are composed of ____ pairs(s) of autosomes and ___ pair(s) of sex chromosomes
22, 1
225
the sex of the child is determined by the ______
sperm
226
by _____ weeks of development, the fetus is sexually undifferentiated and contains two duct systems and undeveloped gonads
5-6
227
The _______________/mesonephric duct system develops in males and degenerates in females
wolffian
228
the _____________/paramesonephric duct system develops in females and degenerates in males
mullerian
229
Y chromosomes contain a gene called the ____-_____________ gene that codes for testis-determining factor.
sex-determining
230
testis-determining factor activates genes for androgen receptors, androgens, aromatase and __________-inhibiting factor
mullerian
231
aromatase converts testosterone to ___________
estradiol
232
female development occurs in the absence of ____________
hormones
233
by ____ weeks of development, the correct duct system is developing inside but the external genitalia is very similar between the two sexes
8
234
in females, the genital tubercle forms the __________
clitoris
235
urogenital folds in males develop into the __________
urethra
236
urogenital folds in females develop into the __________ ______ and hymen
labia minor
237
labioscrotal folds in males develop into the ________
scrotum
238
labioscrotal folds in females develop into the ______ ________
labia majora
239
all 8 week fetuses have the same three structures: ____________ folds, __________ folds, and the _________ _________
urogenital, labioscrotal, genital tubercle
240
external sexual differentiation occurs between weeks ___ and ____
9, 12
241
androgen insensitivity syndrome occurs due to a lack of __________ ______, leading to no masculizing effects
androgen receptors
242
descent of the testes begins near the ____________
kidneys
243
the _____________ is a cordlike structure containing muscle that extends from the gonads to the abdominopelvic floor
gubernaculum
244
as the fetus develops, the gubernaculum shortens and guides the testes to the __________
scrotum
245
descent of the testes creates the ________ canal
inguinal
246
descent of the testes begins in weeks _____ and is finished by week ____
6-10, 28
247
_____________ is a condition in which a child is born with undescended testes
cryptorchidism
248
the ________ functions to regulate the temperature of the testes
scrotum
249
the _________ muscle pulls the testes close to the body during winter
cremaster
250
the ______ muscle wrinkles skin, reducing surface area of the scrotum
dartos
251
blood entering the testis is cooled via the _____________ ______ _________
countercurrent heat exchange
252
the spermatic cord is within the scrotum and extends through the inguinal canal, sometimes causing _______________
herniation
253
the testes are covered anteriorly by the tunica ___________
vaginalis
254
a white fibrous capsule on the testes is called the tunica _________
albuginea
255
seminiferous tubules are held within __________
lobules
256
sperm are transported from the rete testes to the epididymis via the _________ ________
efferent ductules
257
peristalsis during orgasm occurs within the ____ ____________
vas deferens
258
the ___________ _____ passes through the prostate gland and empties into the urethra
ejaculatory duct
259
the seminal vesicles create a viscous, yellowish fluid that is added to semen and makes up ____% of the semen volume
60
260
the prostate gland creates a thin, milky white fluid that is added to semen and makes up ___% of semen volume
30
261
the bulbourethral glands create a ________ secretion to protect the sperm from acidity
alkaline
262
normal sperm count is between __ and ____ million per mL
50, 120
263
phosphate ions in semen act as a ____ _______
pH buffer
264
when flaccid, arterial branches feeding the erectile tissue are __________
CONSTRICTED
265
during arousal, the PNS triggers the release of _______ ______ which stimulates the production of _______ which triggers smooth muscle relaxation causing blood to enter the erectile tissue and lacunae which compresses the _____ to maintain the erection
nitrous oxide, cGMP, veins
266
viagra blocks the enzyme _______________, which breaks down cGMP which keeps vasodilation and the erection going on longer
phosphodiesterases
267
male sexual response occurs in four phases: __________, _________, _________, _____________ ________
excitement, orgasm, resolution, refractory period
268
excitement, of the male sexual response, is caused by the _______________ nervous system
parasympathetic
269
the orgasmic phase of the male sexual response involves _______ and _______, caused by the _______________ nervous system
emission, expulsion, sympathetic
270
resolution follows ejaculation and the penis undergoes _____________
detumescence
271
the refractory period can last between ____ ________ to ___ _____ ________
ten minutes, a few hours
272
_________ produces two genetically identical daughter cells
mitosis
273
_________ is the process of two nuclear divisions without dna replication that produces four haploid daughter cells
meiosis
274
meiosis introduces _____ ________
genetic variability
275
sperm formation takes ___ days and begins around age 14 when ____ and ___ levels increase
74, FSH, LH
276
spermatogenesis occurs in the _____________ ___________
seminiferous tubules
277
_________________ divide by mitosis to form type a and b daughter cells
spermatogonia
278
type __ daughter cells are called primary spermatocytes and divide by ______ to form two _____________ _______________
b, meiosis I, secondary spermatocytes
279
each secondary spermatocyte divides by _______ to form four _________, each with 23 ________
meiosis II, spermatids, chromatids
280
all four spermatids undergo ___________ to form four sperm (_____________)
spermiogenesis, spermatozoa
281
sperm contain four parts: the ________, _____, _________ and tail
head, neck, midpiece
282
the physical maturation of sperm is called ___________________
spermiogenesis
283
the _______ of the sperm contains mitochondria
midpiece
284
the acrosomal cap comes from the ______
golgi
285
_______ _____ _______ stimulates the anterior pituitary to release FSH and LH, starting puberty
gonadotropin-releasing hormone
286
____ stimulates leydig cells to produce testosterone
LH
287
____ stimulates sertoli cells to produce androgen binding protein
FSH
288
testosterone inhibits the release of ____, stimulates spermatogenesis and the secretion of ___
GnRH, GH
289
the brain-testicular axis begins with ______ from the hypothalamus stimulating the anterior pituitary to secrete _____ and ___
GnRH, FSH, LH
290
in the presence of androgen binding protein, testosterone stimulates __________
spermatogenesis
291
testosterone has ________ feedback effects that reduce _____ secretion and sensitivity
negative, GnRH
292
sustentacular cells of sertoli also secrete _____, which selectively inhibits FSH secretion and thus sperm production and this testosterone secretion
inhibin
293
stages of female puberty include ______, ______, ________
thelarche, pubarche, menarche
294
___________ is breast development, induced by estrogen
thelarche
295
________ is the growth of pubic and axillary hair induced by androgens
pubarche
296
________ is the first menstrual period, induced by estrogens and progesterone
menarche
297
menstruation requires ___% body fat because leptin from fat stimulates gonadotropin release
17
298
the first year of menstruation is typically __________
anovulatory
299
climacteric is dropping ____ ______ production
sex hormone
300
during climacteric, ovaries have ______ follicles that are _____ responsive to FSH and LH
fewer, less
301
tissue migrates to the gonadal ridges by week ___ of development
5
302
________ divide by mitosis until the fifth month, producing 6-7 million cells
oogonia
303
primary oocytes are surrounded by limited follicular cells and enter a growth phase, entering meiosis I but stopping at prophase. when primary oocytes combine with follicular cells they are called a ______ _______
primordial follicle
304
by birth we have ___ million primordial follicles, containing primary oocyte frozen in meiosis I
1
305
most oocytes degenerate by ______
atresia
306
in response to FSH and LH, follicular cells become granulosal cells which divide by mitosis to form the _________ _______
secondary follicle
307
under the influence of LH, the primary oocyte completes meiosis I, producing a secondary oocyte, which enters meiosis II and freezes, and a _______ _______ ___
first polar body
308
once the secondary oocyte enters meiosis I and produces the first polar body, it is called a ________ follicle
tertiary
309
the female sexual cycle is 28 days long and consists of a _____ and _____ cycle
ovarian, menstrual
310
