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Anatomy and Physiology II Exam Three > Exam Three: Renal, Digestive, Reproductive > Flashcards

Exam Three: Renal, Digestive, Reproductive Flashcards

1
Q

What cells produce androgen-binding protein?

A

Sertoli Cells

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2
Q

What cells produce testosterone in the testis?

A

Leydig Cells

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3
Q

What cells found in the seminiferous tubules do not produce sperm?

A

Sertoli Cells

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4
Q

The gubernaculum is important in what process?

A

The descent of the testes

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5
Q

What type of cells release pepsinogen?

A

Chief cells

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6
Q

Functions of the stomach do not include _________ absorption

A

Protein

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7
Q

Functions of the stomach include _______ digestion, ______ denaturing, _______ of food, and storage of _______ _____.

A

protein, protein, sterilization, ingested food

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8
Q

What macromolecule is not digested in the mouth?

A

Fats

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9
Q

What type of cells are a source of intrinsic factor?

A

Parietal Cells

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10
Q

What type of cells release gastrin?

A

Enteroendocrine cells

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11
Q

What percentage of filtrate volume will be reabsorbed by the renal tubule?

A

99%

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12
Q

How are materials returned to the peritubular capillaries?

A

Diffusion and Osmosis

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13
Q

What three factors make the movement of materials to the peritubular capillaries easy?

A

1) decreased blood pressure due to narrow efferent arteriole
2) slow flow rate
3) increased colloid osmotic pressure

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14
Q

Where is 65-70% of filtrate reabsorbed?

A

Proximal Convoluted Tubule

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15
Q

Great length, prominent microvilli, and abundant mitochondria are all characteristics of the _______

A

Proximal Convoluted Tubule

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16
Q

Why are there so many mitochondria in the PCT?

A

They produce the ATP needed for active transport

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17
Q

The transcellular route is through _______ cells.

A

Epithelial

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18
Q

The paracellular route is between _______ cells.

A

Epithelial

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19
Q

Epithelial nephrocytes have special permeability to _______

A

Sodium

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20
Q

Cells of the PCT have a special ______ transport protein that binds to ______ and does not act unless also bound to sodium.

A

glucose, glucose

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21
Q

Why do glucose transport proteins also need to bind to sodium?

A

They harness the concentration gradient and act as a Sodium Dependent Cotransporter

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22
Q

The transporter for glucose is only present in the ____

A

PCT

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23
Q

Because there are a fixed number of transporter proteins that may become saturated, there is a _______ _________

A

transport maximum

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24
Q

The transport maximum of glucose is ____mg/minute

A

320

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25
Q

Diabetes mellitus causes glycosuria because the glucose level exceeds the _______ _________

A

transport maximum

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26
Q

Glucose transport is a form of _______ ______ transport

A

secondary active

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27
Q

Besides glucose, another sodium-dependent cotransporter material is _____ ______

A

amino acids

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28
Q

Amino acid transport proteins, like glucose transport proteins, have a ________ ________

A

transport maximum

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29
Q

Water reabsorption is _______

A

passive

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30
Q

There is more water in the ______ than outside of the ______

A

filtrate, PCT

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31
Q

Cells of the PCT are extremely permeable to water because they have ________

A

aquaporins

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32
Q

Filtrate becomes ____ concentrated in water

A

less

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33
Q

Water concentration will increase in the filtrate until it exceeds the pressure of water outside of the ___ and causes _______, leaving the filtrate _____ concentrated

A

PCT, osmosis, more

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34
Q

By water leaving the PCT, it creates a _______ ___________

A

concentration gradient

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35
Q

____ follows water out of the PCT by a solvent drag and diffusion because of the concentration gradient shift

A

K+ (potassium)

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36
Q

Na+ will always take an anion like ___ to maintain the electric balance.

A

Cl- (chlorine)

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37
Q

Because nephrocytes are permeable to water, they are also permeable to ______, which takes advantage of the aquaporins

A

urea

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38
Q

Because of the solvent drag, there is a percentage of ____ and other __________ ______ that will be reabsorbed.

A

urea, nitrogenous wastes

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39
Q

_____ _____ when present in the blood can have antiparasitic properties

A

Uric Acid

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40
Q

The primary function of tubular reabsorption in the loop of henle is to _______________

A

enable the collecting duct to concentrate urine and conserve water

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41
Q

Only ___% of the original filtrate remains when it enters the loop of henle

A

30

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42
Q

the osmolarity of filtrate entering the loop of henle is ____

A

300 miliosmoles

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43
Q

Extracellular fluid becomes more ______ as it descends from the cortex to the medulla

A

salty

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44
Q

osmolarity in the medulla can increase up to ______mOsm/L

A

1,200

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45
Q

The _________ limb of the loop of henle is very permeable to water

A

descending

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46
Q

water leaves as the limb descends via ________

A

osmosis

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47
Q

The descending limb of the loop of henle allows water to leave but does not allow ______ to follow, concentrating the tubular fluid

A

NaCl

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48
Q

The ascending limb of the loop of henle is/is not permeable to water

A

is not

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49
Q

the ascending limb of the loop of henle contains a lot of ________ cotransporter proteins

A

Na-K-Cl2

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50
Q

Why are there 2 Cls in the Na-K-Cl2 cotransporter protein?

A

for neutrality

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51
Q

The Na-K-Cl2 cotransporter protein is what _____ inhibits and what maintains the high osmolarity of the medulla

A

Lasix

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52
Q

Tubular fluid becomes _____ as it ascends into the cortex

A

hypotonic

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53
Q

The Na-K-Cl2 that is released from the ascending limb of the loop of henle is taken up by the _____ ______ in its ________ parallel

A

vasa recta, ascending

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54
Q

Water is reabsorbed by the vasa recta’s ______ parallel

A

descending

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55
Q

The parallels and reabsorption of the vasa recta are known as

A

countercurrent exchange

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56
Q

____% of filtrate is reabsorbed in the loop of henle, leaving ___%

A

25-30, 10

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57
Q

what percentage of the original volume enters the DCT?

A

10%

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58
Q

electrolyte and waste concentration of filtrate is no longer similar to blood plasma once it enters the ____

A

DCT

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59
Q

The DCT is very sensitive to which hormone?

A

Aldosterone

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60
Q

In the DCT there is Na+ ___________ , H20 ___________ and K+ __________

A

reabsorption, reabsorption, secretion

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61
Q

Aldosterone triggers the production of ___ channels into the basal membrane

A

Na+

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62
Q

Calcium channels in the DCT are called _______

A

C-H-ATPase

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63
Q

Reabsorption of Ca is regulated by ___ and _______

A

PTH, calcitriol

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64
Q

Less than __% of the original filtrate volume is left when it enters the collecting system

A

5

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65
Q

The collecting system is sensitive to aldosterone, causing H20 _________, Na+ __________, K _________ and urea _________

A

reabsorption, reabsorption, secretion, reabsorption

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66
Q

Aquaporins are only present when ____ is present

A

ADH

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67
Q

The movement of substances from the peritubular capillaries into the tubule is called _______ _________

A

tubular secretion

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68
Q

____ is both water and lipid soluble

A

C02

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69
Q

Urochrome comes from the breakdown of ___________

A

hemoglobin

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70
Q

Normal urine pH is ____

A

6.0

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71
Q

Urine is composed of ___% H20

A

95

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72
Q

normal urine output is ____L/day

A

1-2

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73
Q

diabetes can be defined as chronic ______ with hyperglycemia

A

polyuria

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74
Q

Diabetes __________ is caused by hyposecretion of ADH

A

insipidus

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75
Q

diuretics function to ________ urine output and _______ blood volume

A

increase, decrease

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76
Q

diuretic mechanism of action is to __________ glomerular flow rate and ________ tubular reabsorption

A

increase, decrease

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77
Q

Nephrotic syndrome can be defined as __________ from glomerular injury

A

proteinuria

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78
Q

Nephroptosis can be defined as _______ ________

A

floating kidney

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79
Q

increased fluid pressure can obstruct the ureter resulting in a condition called ___________

A

hydronephrosis

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80
Q

chronic renal failure can be defined as irreversible loss of ________

A

nephrons

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81
Q

acute renal failure can be defined as an abrupt ________ in ________

A

decline, function

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82
Q

acute glomerulonephritis can be defined as _________ ___________ of the glomeruli

A

autoimmune inflammation

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83
Q

What hormone targets the Nephrone loop, DCT and CD causing Na+ reabsorption, K+ secretion and indirectly promoting Cl- and H20 reabsorption?

A

aldosterone

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84
Q

What hormone targets the PCT and afferent and efferent arterioles reducing water loss, reducing GFR, encouraging water intake and constricting blood vessels, raising blood pressure?

A

Angiotensin II

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85
Q

What hormone acts on the collecting duct promoting H20 reabsorption, reducing urine volume and increasing concentration?

A

ADH

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86
Q

What hormone acts on the collecting duct and afferent and efferent arterioles increasing GFR, constricting the efferent arteriole, dilating the afferent arteriole, increasing urine volume and lowering blood pressure?

A

Atrial Natriuretic Peptide

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87
Q

What hormone acts on the DCT causing reduced Ca2+ secretion?

A

Calcitonin

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88
Q

What hormone acts on the DCT causing CA2+ reabsorption?

A

Calcitriol

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89
Q

What hormones act on the juxtaglomerular apparatus and afferent arteriole, inducing renin secretion, constricting the afferent arteriole, and reducing GFR and urine volume?

A

Epinephrine and Norepinephrine

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90
Q

What hormone acts on the PCT, DCT and nephron loop promote Ca2+ reabsorption and increase phosphate excretion?

A

Parathyroid Hormone

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91
Q

Accessory digestive organs include the _______, tongue, ________, salivary glands, _______ and pancreas

A

teeth, gallbladder, liver

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92
Q

Digestive processes of the mouth include ________ of materials, __________, _________ and limited _______ by saliva

A

analysis, mastication, lubrication, digestion

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93
Q

Salivary amylase breaks down _______________ and works at a _______ pH

A

polysaccharides, neutral

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94
Q

salivary lipase breaks down _________ and works at a ______ pH

A

triglycerides, low

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95
Q

lysozyme breaks down gram __ bacteria

A

positive +

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96
Q

IgA antibodies in saliva function to _______ ________

A

block infection

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97
Q

mucin functions to ________ _____

A

lubricate food

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98
Q

secretion of saliva is controlled by the __________ nervous system

A

autonomic

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99
Q

__________ _________ of the medulla oblongata send action potentials down cranial nerves to stimulate _______

A

salivatory nuclei, salivation

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100
Q

phases of salivary release include the __________ and ____ phases

A

cephalic, oral

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101
Q

the ___________ phase of salivary release is brought on by the sight, thought, and smell of food.

A

cephalic

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102
Q

the ______ phase of salivary release is brought on by chemoreceptors and pressure receptors

A

oral

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103
Q

sympathetic stimulation results in the production of a _______, _______ saliva with ________ enzyme content

A

smaller, viscous, little

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104
Q

what substances are absorbed in the mouth?

A

lipid-soluble substances

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105
Q

the stomach has some limited digestion of _______ and _______

A

proteins, lipids

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106
Q

the acidity of the stomach and digestive enzyme, pepsin, helps to _______ the food

A

sterilize

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107
Q

the stomach liquifies food to produce _______

A

chyme

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108
Q

the stomach is lined with _____ ______ ___________

A

simple columnar epithelium

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109
Q

the stomach lining produces a carpet of mucus to _________ _____ _________ _____ ______

A

protect the stomach from acid

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110
Q

the epithelium of the stomach is organized into shallow depressions called _______ _____

A

gastric pits

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111
Q

B12 helps with the production of _____ ________ ______

A

red blood cells

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112
Q

gastric pits are lined with columnar epithelium called ______ _________ which release mucus

A

mucus epithelium

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113
Q

at the base of the gastric pits, there are two or three _________ ________

A

gastric glands

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114
Q

gastric glands have five types of cells: _________ ______ ______, _________ ______, _____ _____, ____________ ______, and __________ ______

A

mucus neck cells, parietal cells

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115
Q

mucus neck cells produce _______

A

mucin

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116
Q

parietal cells produce ________ ______

A

intrinsic factors

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117
Q

intrinsic factor is required for the absorption of ____ by the intestine

A

B12

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118
Q

Fe2 binds to gastroferritin and is absorbed by the ____ _______

A

small intestine

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119
Q

The process of carbonic anhydrase producing H+HCO3, H-K-ATPase pumping out H in exchange for K, and Cl shifting into the cell as HCO3 goes to the blood is called the

A

alkaline tide

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120
Q

pepsin digests _______

A

proteins

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121
Q

chief cells in infants produce _______ and _________ _______

A

rennin, gastric lipase

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122
Q

gastrin and somatostatin are produced by ______________ cells

A

enteroendocrine

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123
Q

gastrin is produced by ___ cells and _________ secretion by parietal and chief cells

A

g, stimulates

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124
Q

somatostatin is produced by ___ cells which weakly inhibits ______ release

A

d, gastrin

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125
Q

regenerative cells undergo ________ to replace old cells

A

mitosis

126
Q

release of gastric secretion is controlled by both ______ and ________ mechanisms

A

neural, hormonal

127
Q

the release of gastric secretion occurs in three phases: _________, _______ and __________

A

cephalic, gastric, intestinal

128
Q

the cephalic phase of gastric secretion is directed by the ____ and occurs _______ food enters the stomach and is triggered by the thought, sight or smell of food

A

CNS, before

129
Q

the gastric phase of gastric secretion occurs _______ _____ ____ ________ the stomach. The most important stimuli are ____ pH, __________ and ________

A

once food has reached, low, distention, peptides

130
Q

the neural response of the gastric phase is caused by __________ causing ________ cells to make HCl and ________ cells to release pepsinogen and ___ cells to release gastrin

A

neural, distention, parietal, chief, g

131
Q

the hormonal response of the gastric phase includes the release of _____ which causes the release of _______ and stimulates HC lfrom _______ cells. it is a _________ feedback loop

A

gastrin, pepsinogen, parietal, positive

132
Q

release of gastrin is inhibited when pH drops below ___, and instead _________ is released (_________ feedback control)

A

2, somatostatin, negative

133
Q

the intestinal phase of gastric secretion starts when ______ enters the ______ ________

A

chyme, small intestine

134
Q

the main function of the intestinal phase is to control the entrance of chyme into the _____________

A

duodenum

135
Q

the intestinal phase has both a ________ and __________ response

A

neural, hormonal

136
Q

the neural response of the intestinal phase involves stretch receptors in the SI by the chyme inhibiting _________ production by the stomach

A

gastrin

137
Q

the hormonal response of the intestinal phase involves ____ hormones

A

four

138
Q

_______ is released from the small intestine if chyme is above 3 and stimulates gastric secretion

A

gastrin

139
Q

_______ is released from the small intestine if chyme is less than 3 and inhibits gastric secretion

A

secretin

140
Q

________________ and _________________ are both released from the SI due to the presence of fatty acids and lipids in the chyme. both _______ gastric secretion

A

cholecystokinin (CCK), gastric inhibitory polypeptide (GIP), inhibit

141
Q

the period of gastric emptying must be closely regulated by ________ reflexes and ____________

A

neural, hormones

142
Q

if the period of gastric emptying is too ______, chyme is not formed

A

fast

143
Q

if the period of gastric emptying is too _____, the stomach becomes too acidic

A

slow

144
Q

regulation of gastric emptying is primarily controlled by opening and closing of the _______ sphincter

A

pyloric

145
Q

stimulation of gastric emptying is controlled by ______ of the stomach and _______

A

stretch, gastrin

146
Q

inhibition of gastric emptying is controlled by _______ of the SI, _________ receptors, and ________ of the SI

A

stretch, chemical, hormones

147
Q

the ______ _________ is the site of most digestion and almost all absorption

A

small intestine

148
Q

the small intestine has three regions including the ________, ______ and ______

A

duodenum, jujenum, and ileum

149
Q

the duodenum receives ______, _________ juices and _____

A

chyme, juice, bile

150
Q

the hepatopancreatic sphincter is ______ between meals

A

closed

151
Q

the ileum participates _____ in absorption than digestion

A

more

152
Q

the jejunum participates _____ in absorption than digestion

A

less

153
Q

the deep folds of the submucosa of the small intestine are called the ______ _________

A

plica circulares

154
Q

the fingerlike projections of the mucosal surface containing lacteals are called ______

A

villi

155
Q

the ________ of the SI have a brush border enzyme for proteins and carbs

A

microvilli

156
Q

cells of the mucosal epithelium of the SI include ________ cells and _____ cells

A

absorptive, goblet

157
Q

the absorptive cells of the mucosal epithelium participate in _________ _____

A

nutrient uptake

158
Q

goblet cells secrete _____

A

mucus

159
Q

the cells of the intestinal crypts include ________ cells, _______ cells, __________ cells, _______ cells, and ______ _____ cells

A

absorptive, goblet, enteroendocrine, paneth, epithelial stem

160
Q

lysozyme is secreted by ______ ces

A

paneth

161
Q

the cells of the submucosal layer include _________ glands, ______ patches and ______

A

duodenal, peyer’s, MALT

162
Q

intestinal secretion is largely ______ and ______

A

water, mucus

163
Q

water is necessary for acid ________

A

hydrolysis

164
Q

intestinal secretion is slightly ________

A

alkaline

165
Q

release of small intestine secretion has two phases: _______ and ________

A

cephalic, intestinal

166
Q

during the cephalic phase, ________________NS releases secretion in preparation for food

A

parasympathetic

167
Q

during the cephalic phase, __________NS inhibits the release of mucus

A

sympathetic

168
Q

the intestinal phase involves neural reflexes (__________ caused by chyme) and hormones (______, ______., ______, ____)

A

distention, gastrin, secretin, CCK, GIP

169
Q

chemical digestion of the SI requires ______ _______ enzymes, juices from the __________, and juices from the ________

A

brush border, gallbladder, pancreas

170
Q

enzymes from the pancreas break down __ ___________ ____ _______

A

all categories of food

171
Q

pancreatic enzymes include ________ (like trypsin), ________ enzymes (like pancreatic amylase), ________ enzymes (like pancreatic lipase), and ______ and ______ _________

A

proteases, stratch, lipid enzymes, dna, rna nucleases

172
Q

regulation of pancreatic secretion includes neural control and hormonal control (due to _______ in the _____)

A

food, SI

173
Q

________ is released in response to HCl in the SI

A

secretin

174
Q

______ is released in response to fats in the SI

A

CCK

175
Q

_______ acts as a fat emulsifier

A

bile

176
Q

bile is composed of bile _____, __________, bile _______, ________ and electrolytes (________ ______)

A

salts, phospholipids, pigments, cholesterol, sodium bicarb

177
Q

the cephalic phase of bile release is/is not a strong stimulator

A

is not

178
Q

_____ stimulates gallbladder contraction and relaxation of the sphincter of oddi

A

CCK

179
Q

_______ stimulates the bile duct cells to produce a watery bicarb rich juice

A

secretin

180
Q

the large intestine has four regions: _____, _________, _______, _____

A

cecum, appendix, colon, rectum

181
Q

the large intestine functions to ________ digest, _________ water and electrolytes, and _________

A

chemically, absorb, defecate

182
Q

cellulose digests ______

A

glucose

183
Q

__ complex and most __ vitamins are synthesized by bacteria

A

B, K

184
Q

chemical digestion and absorption is a __________ process

A

catabolic

185
Q

food is broken down into _________ which can be absorbed

A

monomers

186
Q

enzymatic breakdown is called _________

A

hydrolysis

187
Q

dietary carbohydrates include ______ __________, _______, __________

A

starch, glycogen, cellulose, sugars

188
Q

the most digestible dietary carb is _________

A

starch

189
Q

which dietary carb cannot be digested?

A

cellulose

190
Q

disaccharides include ______, ________ and _________

A

sucrose, maltose, lactose

191
Q

monosaccharides include __________, ___________, _________

A

glucose, galactose, fructose

192
Q

salivary amylase works in the _________ and ________

A

mouth, stomach

193
Q

pancreatic amylase works in the small intestine to yield ________ from starches

A

maltose

194
Q

dextrinase and glucoamylase are found on the ______ __________ ________ _________ and yield glucose and maltose

A

small intestine brush border

195
Q

___________ is a brush border enzyme that breaks down maltose and produces two glucoses

A

maltase

196
Q

_______ breaks down sucrose

A

sucrase

197
Q

_________ breaks down lactose

A

lactase

198
Q

sucrose is composed of ______ and _______

A

glucose, fructose

199
Q

lactose is composed of ______ and _________

A

glucose, galactose

200
Q

glucose Is absorbed transcellularly by ____-______ ___________ proteins or paracellularly by ________ _____

A

Na Glucose transport, solvent drag

201
Q

_____________, similarly to glucose, is absorbed via a sodium dependent cotransporter protein

A

galactose

202
Q

__________ is absorbed transcellularly by facilitated diffusion

A

fructose

203
Q

pepsinogen is converted to _______ when cleaved by acid

A

pepsin

204
Q

pepsin participates in _________ digestion, which occurs in the stomach and small intestine

A

protein

205
Q

pepsin is particularly effective in digesting ___________

A

collagen

206
Q

protein digestion in the small intestine includes work from __________ enzymes and __________ __________ enzymes

A

pancreatic, brush border

207
Q

__________ enzymes, like trypsin and chymotrypsin, reduce the size of polypeptides by attacking internal peptide bonds

A

pancreatic

208
Q

carboxypeptidase, another pancreatic and brush border enzyme, removes single amino acids from the __________ end

A

carboxyl

209
Q

aminopeptidase and dipeptidase function to remove single amino acids from the _______ end

A

amine

210
Q

enzymes in the small intestine work best at a(n) ________ pH

A

neutral

211
Q

the three different amino acid-sodium transporters are dependent upon class, based on _________

A

charge

212
Q

most lipid digestion occurs in the ______ ___________

A

small intestine

213
Q

fats are __________ in water

A

insoluble

214
Q

bile salts emulsify fats by binding to the fat droplets and ________

A

water

215
Q

bile salts allow enzymes to act by increasing the __________ __________

A

surface area

216
Q

lipases break down triglycerides to _______, that when fatty acids and monoglycerides combine with phospholipids from bile salts are called _________

A

droplets, micelles

217
Q

micelles can be defined as a lipid core shielded from water by ____ ______, also containing __________ and fat-soluble vitamins

A

bile salts, cholesterol

218
Q

when micelles come into contact with a cell surface, they melt onto the plasma membrane releasing ________ and _______ _______ _______ into the cell which resynthesize into triglycerides and combine with phospholipids, proteins and cholesterol to form a lipoprotein called ________

A

monoglycerides, free fatty acids, chylomicron

219
Q

chylomicrons enter the blood and are broken down by __________ _______ to form _____ _____ ____ and _____ to be stored in adipose tissue

A

lipoprotein lipase, free fatty acids, glycerol

220
Q

left-over chylomicrons are taken to the liver and converted by hepatocytes to ___ ______ _______ which travel to the adipose. _____ ______ _______ pick up and clean cholesterol and phospholipids and return it to the liver

A

low density lipoproteins, high density lipoproteins

221
Q

low-density lipoproteins contain _____ cholesterol

A

bad

222
Q

high-density lipoproteins contain _____ cholesterol

A

good

223
Q

primary sex organs include the ______ and ________

A

testes and ovaries

224
Q

our chromosomes are composed of ____ pairs(s) of autosomes and ___ pair(s) of sex chromosomes

A

22, 1

225
Q

the sex of the child is determined by the ______

A

sperm

226
Q

by _____ weeks of development, the fetus is sexually undifferentiated and contains two duct systems and undeveloped gonads

A

5-6

227
Q

The _______________/mesonephric duct system develops in males and degenerates in females

A

wolffian

228
Q

the _____________/paramesonephric duct system develops in females and degenerates in males

A

mullerian

229
Q

Y chromosomes contain a gene called the ____-_____________ gene that codes for testis-determining factor.

A

sex-determining

230
Q

testis-determining factor activates genes for androgen receptors, androgens, aromatase and __________-inhibiting factor

A

mullerian

231
Q

aromatase converts testosterone to ___________

A

estradiol

232
Q

female development occurs in the absence of ____________

A

hormones

233
Q

by ____ weeks of development, the correct duct system is developing inside but the external genitalia is very similar between the two sexes

A

8

234
Q

in females, the genital tubercle forms the __________

A

clitoris

235
Q

urogenital folds in males develop into the __________

A

urethra

236
Q

urogenital folds in females develop into the __________ ______ and hymen

A

labia minor

237
Q

labioscrotal folds in males develop into the ________

A

scrotum

238
Q

labioscrotal folds in females develop into the ______ ________

A

labia majora

239
Q

all 8 week fetuses have the same three structures: ____________ folds, __________ folds, and the _________ _________

A

urogenital, labioscrotal, genital tubercle

240
Q

external sexual differentiation occurs between weeks ___ and ____

A

9, 12

241
Q

androgen insensitivity syndrome occurs due to a lack of __________ ______, leading to no masculizing effects

A

androgen receptors

242
Q

descent of the testes begins near the ____________

A

kidneys

243
Q

the _____________ is a cordlike structure containing muscle that extends from the gonads to the abdominopelvic floor

A

gubernaculum

244
Q

as the fetus develops, the gubernaculum shortens and guides the testes to the __________

A

scrotum

245
Q

descent of the testes creates the ________ canal

A

inguinal

246
Q

descent of the testes begins in weeks _____ and is finished by week ____

A

6-10, 28

247
Q

_____________ is a condition in which a child is born with undescended testes

A

cryptorchidism

248
Q

the ________ functions to regulate the temperature of the testes

A

scrotum

249
Q

the _________ muscle pulls the testes close to the body during winter

A

cremaster

250
Q

the ______ muscle wrinkles skin, reducing surface area of the scrotum

A

dartos

251
Q

blood entering the testis is cooled via the _____________ ______ _________

A

countercurrent heat exchange

252
Q

the spermatic cord is within the scrotum and extends through the inguinal canal, sometimes causing _______________

A

herniation

253
Q

the testes are covered anteriorly by the tunica ___________

A

vaginalis

254
Q

a white fibrous capsule on the testes is called the tunica _________

A

albuginea

255
Q

seminiferous tubules are held within __________

A

lobules

256
Q

sperm are transported from the rete testes to the epididymis via the _________ ________

A

efferent ductules

257
Q

peristalsis during orgasm occurs within the ____ ____________

A

vas deferens

258
Q

the ___________ _____ passes through the prostate gland and empties into the urethra

A

ejaculatory duct

259
Q

the seminal vesicles create a viscous, yellowish fluid that is added to semen and makes up ____% of the semen volume

A

60

260
Q

the prostate gland creates a thin, milky white fluid that is added to semen and makes up ___% of semen volume

A

30

261
Q

the bulbourethral glands create a ________ secretion to protect the sperm from acidity

A

alkaline

262
Q

normal sperm count is between __ and ____ million per mL

A

50, 120

263
Q

phosphate ions in semen act as a ____ _______

A

pH buffer

264
Q

when flaccid, arterial branches feeding the erectile tissue are __________

A

CONSTRICTED

265
Q

during arousal, the PNS triggers the release of _______ ______ which stimulates the production of _______ which triggers smooth muscle relaxation causing blood to enter the erectile tissue and lacunae which compresses the _____ to maintain the erection

A

nitrous oxide, cGMP, veins

266
Q

viagra blocks the enzyme _______________, which breaks down cGMP which keeps vasodilation and the erection going on longer

A

phosphodiesterases

267
Q

male sexual response occurs in four phases: __________, _________, _________, _____________ ________

A

excitement, orgasm, resolution, refractory period

268
Q

excitement, of the male sexual response, is caused by the _______________ nervous system

A

parasympathetic

269
Q

the orgasmic phase of the male sexual response involves _______ and _______, caused by the _______________ nervous system

A

emission, expulsion, sympathetic

270
Q

resolution follows ejaculation and the penis undergoes _____________

A

detumescence

271
Q

the refractory period can last between ____ ________ to ___ _____ ________

A

ten minutes, a few hours

272
Q

_________ produces two genetically identical daughter cells

A

mitosis

273
Q

_________ is the process of two nuclear divisions without dna replication that produces four haploid daughter cells

A

meiosis

274
Q

meiosis introduces _____ ________

A

genetic variability

275
Q

sperm formation takes ___ days and begins around age 14 when ____ and ___ levels increase

A

74, FSH, LH

276
Q

spermatogenesis occurs in the _____________ ___________

A

seminiferous tubules

277
Q

_________________ divide by mitosis to form type a and b daughter cells

A

spermatogonia

278
Q

type __ daughter cells are called primary spermatocytes and divide by ______ to form two _____________ _______________

A

b, meiosis I, secondary spermatocytes

279
Q

each secondary spermatocyte divides by _______ to form four _________, each with 23 ________

A

meiosis II, spermatids, chromatids

280
Q

all four spermatids undergo ___________ to form four sperm (_____________)

A

spermiogenesis, spermatozoa

281
Q

sperm contain four parts: the ________, _____, _________ and tail

A

head, neck, midpiece

282
Q

the physical maturation of sperm is called ___________________

A

spermiogenesis

283
Q

the _______ of the sperm contains mitochondria

A

midpiece

284
Q

the acrosomal cap comes from the ______

A

golgi

285
Q

_______ _____ _______ stimulates the anterior pituitary to release FSH and LH, starting puberty

A

gonadotropin-releasing hormone

286
Q

____ stimulates leydig cells to produce testosterone

A

LH

287
Q

____ stimulates sertoli cells to produce androgen binding protein

A

FSH

288
Q

testosterone inhibits the release of ____, stimulates spermatogenesis and the secretion of ___

A

GnRH, GH

289
Q

the brain-testicular axis begins with ______ from the hypothalamus stimulating the anterior pituitary to secrete _____ and ___

A

GnRH, FSH, LH

290
Q

in the presence of androgen binding protein, testosterone stimulates __________

A

spermatogenesis

291
Q

testosterone has ________ feedback effects that reduce _____ secretion and sensitivity

A

negative, GnRH

292
Q

sustentacular cells of sertoli also secrete _____, which selectively inhibits FSH secretion and thus sperm production and this testosterone secretion

A

inhibin

293
Q

stages of female puberty include ______, ______, ________

A

thelarche, pubarche, menarche

294
Q

___________ is breast development, induced by estrogen

A

thelarche

295
Q

________ is the growth of pubic and axillary hair induced by androgens

A

pubarche

296
Q

________ is the first menstrual period, induced by estrogens and progesterone

A

menarche

297
Q

menstruation requires ___% body fat because leptin from fat stimulates gonadotropin release

A

17

298
Q

the first year of menstruation is typically __________

A

anovulatory

299
Q

climacteric is dropping ____ ______ production

A

sex hormone

300
Q

during climacteric, ovaries have ______ follicles that are _____ responsive to FSH and LH

A

fewer, less

301
Q

tissue migrates to the gonadal ridges by week ___ of development

A

5

302
Q

________ divide by mitosis until the fifth month, producing 6-7 million cells

A

oogonia

303
Q

primary oocytes are surrounded by limited follicular cells and enter a growth phase, entering meiosis I but stopping at prophase. when primary oocytes combine with follicular cells they are called a ______ _______

A

primordial follicle

304
Q

by birth we have ___ million primordial follicles, containing primary oocyte frozen in meiosis I

A

1

305
Q

most oocytes degenerate by ______

A

atresia

306
Q

in response to FSH and LH, follicular cells become granulosal cells which divide by mitosis to form the _________ _______

A

secondary follicle

307
Q

under the influence of LH, the primary oocyte completes meiosis I, producing a secondary oocyte, which enters meiosis II and freezes, and a _______ _______ ___

A

first polar body

308
Q

once the secondary oocyte enters meiosis I and produces the first polar body, it is called a ________ follicle

A

tertiary

309
Q

the female sexual cycle is 28 days long and consists of a _____ and _____ cycle

A

ovarian, menstrual

310
Q
A

Anatomy and Physiology II Exam Three (1 decks)

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