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AN2020: Neuroscience > Exam Sample Questions > Flashcards

Exam Sample Questions Flashcards

1
Q

The Greek philosopher Aristotle believed that the brain was the seat of intelligence

True of False

A

FALSE

It was Hippocrates

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2
Q

The subarachnoid space contains cerebrospinal fluid

True or False?

A

TRUE

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3
Q

Induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs) are normally found in the developing nervous system

True or False?

A

FALSE

They are generated directly from adult cells

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4
Q

An axodendritic synapse involves communication between the dendrite of the presynaptic neuron and the cell body of the postsynaptic neuron

True or False?

A

FALSE

It involves communication between the axon of the presynaptic neuron and the dendrites of the post synaptic neuron

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5
Q

Glutamate is mainly synthesised from glucose in glial cells in the brain

True or False?

A

FALSE

It is synthesised from Glutamine via phosphate activated glutaminase

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6
Q

Vasopressin is released by neurons of the hypothalamus and has the physiological effect of decreasing the amount of urine released from the body

True or False?

A

TRUE

Vasopressin is also known as Anti-Diuretic Hormone (ADH)

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7
Q

Patients with bilateral lesions of the amygdala are unable to recognise fear in facial expressions

True or False?

A

TRUE

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8
Q

Olfactory neurons are concerned with the sensation of smell

True or False?

A

TRUE

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9
Q

The third interstitial nuclei of the anterior hypothalamus (INAH) is larger in women than in men

True or False?

A

FALSE

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10
Q

Long term effects of ecstasy increase the activity of noradrenergic neurons

True or False?

A

FALSE

Increases levels of Serotonin, Dopamine and Noradrenaline

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11
Q

MRI has shown that the hypothalamus is associated with the ability to perceive and synchronise with a musical beat

True or False?

A

FALSE

Cerebellum

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12
Q

Benzodiazepine drugs reduce anxiety by inducing structural changes in the brain slowly over a period of weeks

True or False?

A

FALSE

They act immediately.
Long term use can lead to dependance and reduced effectiveness of the drug

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13
Q

Mania is characterised by an increased need for sleep

True or False?

A

FALSE

Characterised by a decreased need for sleep

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14
Q

Retrograde amnesia is an inability to form new memories following brain trauma

True or False?

A

FALSE

It’s the ability to recall memories prior to trauma

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15
Q

In Alzheimer’s disease brains, neuritic plaques contain the protein β-amyloid

True or False?

A

TRUE

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16
Q

What are Neurological Disorders?

A

Disorders that affect the brain, nerves and spinal cord

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17
Q

What are Psychiatric Disorders?

A

Disorders of thought, mood or behaviour that causes distress or impaired functioning

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18
Q

What are the symptoms of a Panic Disorder (Anxiety Disorder)?

A

Reoccurring, unprovoked panic attacks, and a persistent worry of having further attacks

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19
Q

What are the symptoms of Agoraphobia (Anxiety Disorder)?

A
  • Severe anxiety
  • Avoidance of social situations
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20
Q

What are the symptoms of a Generalised Anxiety Disorder (Anxiety Disorder)?

A
  • Persistent and excessive anxiety
  • Restlessness
  • Sense of dread
  • Feeling “on edge”
  • Difficulty concentrating
  • Irritability
  • Muscle tension
  • Disturbed sleep
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21
Q

What are the symptoms of Specific Phobias (Anxiety Disorder)?

A

Avoidance behviour due to severe anxiety

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22
Q

What are the symptoms of Social Phobias (Anxiety Disorder)?

A

Avoidance behaviour due to significant anxiety

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23
Q

What are the symptoms of Major Depression (Affective Disorder)?

A
  • Lowered mood
  • Decreased interest or pleasure in all activities (anhedonia)
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24
Q

What are the symptoms of Bipolar Disorder (Affective Disorder)?

A
  • Mania
  • Depression
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25
Q

What are the symptoms of Mania?

A
  • Abnormally and persitent elevated mood
  • Inflated self-esteem or grandiosity
  • Decreased need for sleep
  • Increased talking or feelings of pressure to keep talking
  • Racing thoughts
  • Distractability
  • Increased goal-directed activity
  • Impaired judgement
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26
Q

What are the POSITIVE symptoms of Schizophrenia?

A
  • Delusions
  • Hallucinations
  • Disorganised speech
  • Grossly disorganised or catatonic behaviour
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27
Q

What are the NEGATIVE symptoms of Schizophrenia?

A
  • Reduced expression of emotion / lack of pleasure
  • Poverty of speech (ALOGIA)
  • Difficulty initiating goal-directed behaviour
  • Lack of motivation (AVOLITION)
  • Memory and attention impairments
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28
Q

What is the hypothesis for the biological basis of Anxiety Disorders?

A
  • Genetic predispositions but no single gene
  • Gene x Environment interactions
  • Fear evoked by threatening stimulus initiates stress response
  • Stimulus response relationship strengthened (or weakened) by experience
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29
Q

What is the Monoamine Hypothesis for the biological basis of Depression?

A

Deficit in the central diffuse monoamine modulatory systems (Serotonin, 5-HT; Noradrenaline, NE)

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30
Q

What is the Diathesis-Stress Hypothesis for the biological basis of Depression?

A

Genetic predisposition (DIATHESIS) interacts with stressful life experiences increasing risk for depression

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31
Q

What is the Anterior Cingulate Cortex Dysfunction Hypothesis for the biological basis of Depression?

A

Resting-state metabolic activity in the anterior cingulate cortex increased in depression

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32
Q

What is the Gene-Environment Interactions Hypothesis for the biological basis of Schizophrenia?

A

Strong genetic basis

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33
Q

What brain structure alterations indicate Schizophrenia?

A
  • Enlarged ventricles
  • Defects in myelin sheaths
  • Reduced cortical thickness
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34
Q

What is the Dopamine Hypothesis of Schizophrenia?

A

Psychotic episodes triggered by activation of dopamine receptors

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35
Q

What is the Glutamate Hypothesis of Schizophrenia?

A

Diminished activation of NMDA receptors (a type of Glutamate receptor)

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36
Q

What are the THREE treatments for Anxiety Disorders?

A
  1. Psychotherapy
  2. Benzodiazepines
  3. Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)
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37
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Benzodiazepines?

A

Binds GABA receptors making it more effective at opening the receptor channel and thus increasing inhibition

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38
Q

What is the mechanism of action of SSRIs?

A

Increase synaptic concentrations of serotonin by inhibiting its reuptake from the synaptic cleft
Good for treating OCD and GAD

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39
Q

What is the treatment for Major Depression?

A

SSRIs

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40
Q

What is the treatment and mechanism of action for Bipolar Disorder?

A

Lithium
Mood stabiliser drug that treats mania and reduces cycling between mania and depression

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41
Q

What is the treatment for Schizophrenia?

A

Antipsychotic drugs treat positive symptoms but not negative or cognitive symptoms

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42
Q

What nerve types make up the Sensory Nervous System?

A

Somatic Sensory and Visceral Sensory

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43
Q

What nerve types make up the Motor Nervous System?

A

Somatic Motor and Autonomic Motor

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44
Q

What is Brodmanns Cytoarchitectural map?

A

A map of the cerebral cortex based on the organisation of neurons

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45
Q

What is the function of the Frontal lobe?

A

Executive function and personality

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46
Q

What is the function of the Parietal lobe?

A

Muscle movement and Sensory processing

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47
Q

What is the function of the Temporal lobe?

A

Language, Communication, Learning and Memory

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48
Q

What is the function of the Occipital lobe?

A

Vision

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49
Q

What is the Limbic System?

A

Emotional centre of the brain

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50
Q

What behaviours are controlled by the Limbic System?

A

Movitaved and Emotional behaviours
* Anxiety
* Sexual behaviour
* Aggression
* Food intake
* Thirst
* Memory

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51
Q

What are the structures of the Limbic System?

A
  • Septum
  • Cingulate Gyrus
  • Fornix
  • Hippocampus
  • Mammilliary Body
  • Amygdala
  • Hypothalamus
  • Olfactory Bulb
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52
Q

What structures make up the Diencephalon?

A

Thalamus and Hypothalamus

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53
Q

What is the function of the Thalamus?

A

Relays sensory and motor signals

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54
Q

What is the function of the Hypothalamus?

A

Controls the endocrine system (temperature, hunger, thirst, sleep-wake cycle)

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55
Q

What are the 12 Cranial Nerves?

A

Only One Of The Two Athletes Felt Very Good Victorious And Healthy
1. Olfactory (I)
2. Optic (II)
3. Occulomotor (III)
4. Trochlear (IV)
5. Trigeminal (V)
6. Abducens (VI)
7. Facial (VII)
8. Vestibulocochlear (VIII)
9. Glossopharyngeal (IX)
10. Vagus (X)
11. Accessory (XI)
12. Hypoglossal (XII)

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56
Q

What part of the spinal nerve receives Sensory information?

A

Dorsal root

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57
Q

What part of the spinal nerve sends information to the Muscles?

A

Ventral root

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58
Q

What part of the spinal nerve has ganglia?

A

Dorsal root

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59
Q

What are the structures of the Meninges?

A
  • Dura Mater
  • Arachnoid Mater
  • Subarachnoid space
  • Pia Mater
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60
Q

Where is CSF produced?

A

Choroid Plexus

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61
Q

What stain is used to highlight Neurons in light microscopy?

A

βIII-Tubulin
(GREEN)

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62
Q

What stain is used to highlight the Nuclear Body in light microscopy?

A

Bisbenzamide
(BLUE)

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63
Q

What are the features of an Electrical Synapse?

A
  • Occur at gap junctions
  • Direct transfer of ionic current
  • Bidirectional
  • Very fast transmission
  • Results in postsynaptic potential (PSP)
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64
Q

What are the protein pores on gap junctions called?

A

Hexameric complexes are formed from proteins called Connexons

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65
Q

What is an Ionotropic receptor?

A
  • Rapid, phasic response
  • NT binding alters the state of the ion channel
  • Receptor composed of multiple subunits
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66
Q

What is a Metabotropic receptor?

A
  • Long-lasting response
  • NT binding initiates G-protein binding and activation
  • Activation of enzyme cascades in postsynaptic cell
  • Receptor contains 7 trasmembrane domains
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67
Q

What are the mechanisms for removing neurotransmitters from the synaptic cleft?

A
  1. Enzymatic inactivation
  2. Reuptake into presynaptic terminal
  3. Glial cells
  4. Uptake into the postsynaptic terminal
  5. Diffusion out of the synaptic cleft
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68
Q

What are the FOUR classes of neurotransmitters?

A
  1. Acetylcholine
  2. Monoamines
  3. Amino Acids
  4. Neuropeptides
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69
Q

What are the Monoamine neurotransmitters?

A
  1. Catecholamines (Dopamine, Noradrenaline, Adrenaline)
  2. Serotonin
  3. Histamine
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70
Q

What are the Amino Acid neurotransmitters?

A
  1. Glutamate
  2. Aspartate
  3. Glycine
  4. GABA
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71
Q

What enzyme is involved in synthesising Acetylcholine (ACh)?

A

Choline Acetyltransferase (ChAT)

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72
Q

What protein transports ACh into storage vesicles?

A

Vesicular Cholinergic Transporter Protein

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73
Q

What enzyme is involved in metabolising Acetylcholine?

A

Acetylcholinesterase (AChE)

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74
Q

What are the two Cholinergic receptors?

A
  1. Muscarinic (Protein)
  2. Nicotinic (Ion Channel)
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75
Q

What enzyme converts Tyrosine to L-DOPA?

A

Tyrosine Hydroxylase

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76
Q

What enzyme converts L-DOPA into Dopamine?

A

DOPA Decarboxylase

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77
Q

What protein transports Dopamine to storage vesicles?

A

VMAT-2

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78
Q

What enzyme converts Dopamine to Noradrenaline?

A

Dopamine-β-Hydroxylase (DBH)

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79
Q

What enzyme converts Noradrenaline to Adrenaline?

A

Phenylethanolamine-N-Methyltransferase (PNMT)

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80
Q

Which enzymes metabolise Catecholamines after neurotransmission?

A
  1. Monoamine Oxidase (MAO)
  2. Catechol-O-Methyltransferase (COMT)
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81
Q

What are the Catecholamine receptors?

A
  1. Adrenoceptors (NA and Adr)
  2. Dopamine Receptors (DA)
82
Q

What enzyme converts Tryptophan into 5-HTP?

A

Trytophan Hydroxylase

83
Q

Which enzyme converts 5-HTP into Serotonin (5-HT)?

A

Aromatic Amino Acid Decarboxylase

84
Q

Which protein facilitates the reuptake of Serotonin into the presynaptic neuron after neurotrasmission?

A

SERT
(Na+ and Energy dependent)

85
Q

Which enzyme metabolises Serotonin?

86
Q

Which of the Serotonin (5-HT) receptors is Ionotropic?

87
Q

Which enzymes converts Histidine into Histamine?

A

Histidine Decarboxylase

88
Q

Which TWO enzymes metabolise Histamine?

A
  1. Histamine N-Methyltransferase
  2. MAO
89
Q

What type of receptors does Glutamate act on?

A

Ionotropic AND Metabotropic receptors

90
Q

Which enzyme converts Glutamate to GABA?

A

Glutamic Acid Decarboxylase (GAD)

91
Q

Is Glycine an Excitatory or Inhibitory neurotransmitter?

A

Inhibitory

92
Q

What type of receptor does Glycine act at?

A

Ionotropic
(co-factor at the NMDA glutmate receptor)

93
Q

What type of receptor do Neuropeptides act at?

A

Metabotropic
(long-lasting effects)

94
Q

What are the Psychomotor Stimulants?

A
  • Cocaine
  • Amphetamine
  • Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
  • Nicotine
  • Caffeine
95
Q

What are the Opitates?

A
  • Morphine
  • Heroin
  • Codeine
  • Hydrocodone (Vicodin)
96
Q

What are the Depressants / Sedatives?

A
  • Alcohol
  • Barbiturates
  • Benzodiazepines
  • γ-Hydoxybutyrate (GHB)
97
Q

What are the Dissociative Anaesthetics?

A
  • Phencyclidine (PCP)
  • Ketamine
98
Q

What are the Designer Drugs?

A
  • MDMA
  • Inhalants / Solvents
99
Q

How do psychoactive drugs work?

A
  • Increasing / Decreasing postsynaptic transmission
  • Altering NT levels such as Dopamine or Serotonin
  • Mimic stimulation provided by the sympathetic nervous system
100
Q

How does the Basal Ganglia play a role in drug use?

A
  • Drugs over-activate the reward circuit, producing euphoria
  • Circuit adapts with repeated drug use and sensitivity is reduced
  • Diminished sensitivity makes it hard to feel pleasure from anything besides the drug causing desensitisaton / tolerance
101
Q

How does the Amygdala play a role in drug use?

A
  • Plays a key role in anxiety which characterises withdrawal
  • Withdrawal causes drug seeking behaviour
  • Circuit becomes increasingly sensitive with increased drug use
102
Q

How does the Prefrontal Cortex play a role in drug use?

A
  • Exerts self-control over impulses
  • Shifting balance between circuits of PFC, Basal Ganglia, and Amygdala drives drug seeking behaviour and reduced impulse control
103
Q

What is the Cycle of Addiction?

A
  1. Positively reinforeced by drug euphoria
  2. Negatively reinforced by withdrawal, craving, hedonic dysregulation
  3. Drug related cues and stress increase craving, and loss of control may stem from cortical dysfunction
104
Q

What is the mode of action for Psychomotor Stimulants?

A

Interacts with dopamine transporter (DAT) to elevate extracellular dopamine levels

105
Q

What is the mode of action for Opiates, Ethanol and Cannabinoids?

A

Decrease GABA transmission in the ventral tegmental area (VTA), dishibiting dopamine neurons

106
Q

What are the effects of Cocaine on Dopamine?

A

Reduced dopamine (DA) uptake from synapse

107
Q

What are the effects of Amphetamines on Dopamine?

A
  • Reduced DA uptake
  • Increase DA release
108
Q

What are the effects of Nicotine on Dopamine?

A

Increased DA release

109
Q

What does Cocaine do in the synapse?

A
  • Binds to dopamine reuptake transporters on presynaptic dopaminergic neurons
  • Inhibits degredation of dopamine
  • Dopamine levels remain high
110
Q

What does Amphetamine do in the synapse

A
  • Binds to dopamine transporter and switches off mechanism to remove dopamine from nerve terminal
  • Binds to presynaptic membrane and stimulates release of dopamine
  • Binds to MAO in nerve terminal which prevents degradation of dopamine
  • On noradrenergic neurons, it induces the release of noradrenaline and inhibits reuptake
111
Q

What does Caffeine do in the synapse

A

Adenosine receptor antagonist

112
Q

What does Heroin do in the synapse

A
  • Converted to morphine
  • Morphine binds to opiate receptors
  • Inhibits release of GABA leading to an increase in Dopamine
113
Q

What does Amphetamine do in the brain?

A

Depression of inhibitory GABA control mechanisms at low doses

114
Q

Where do drugs of abuse primarily modify the action of Dopamine in the brain?

A

Nucleus Accumbens (NAc) and the Ventral Tegmental Area (VTA)
“The Reward Pathway”

115
Q

What is the name of the pigment in Photosensitive Retinal Ganglion Cells (pRGCs) that is sensitive to blue light?

A

Melanopsin (OPN4)

116
Q

What TWO mental disorders can lack of sleep exacerbate?

A
  1. Bipolar Disorder
  2. Schizophrenia
117
Q

Which dietary hormone does sleep disruption increase?

A

Ghrelin
(weight gain)

118
Q

Where do Taste Receptor Cells synapse?

A

Synapse with Gustatory Afferent Neurons

119
Q

What are Microvilli?

A

Project into the taste pore on the surface of the tongue

120
Q

Which THREE cranial nerves connect to the tongue?

A
  1. Facial (CN VII) - anterior 2/3
  2. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) - posterior 1/3
  3. Vagus (CN X) - soft palate, pharynx, epiglottis
121
Q

What is the Central Taste Pathway?

A
  1. Afferents from tongue and epiglottis
  2. Gustatory nucleus in the medulla
  3. Left ventral posterior medial (VPM) nucleus of thalamus
  4. Primary gustatory cortex
122
Q

Where do olfactory receptor cells synapse with second order olfactory neurons?

A

Within Glomerulus inside the Olfactory Bulb

123
Q

What is the Central Olfactory Pathway?

A
  1. Axons of the olfactory tract branch and project to the olfactory cortex
  2. Axons project to other brain regions through pathways that synapse in the thalamus
124
Q

What structures make up the Photreceptor Layer?

A

Rods (light) and Cones (colour)
* synapse with bipolar cells which the synapse with ganglion cells

125
Q

What is the Central Vision Pathway?

A
  1. Axons project to the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus
  2. For each LGN, axons project to the visual cortex of the occipital lobe on that side
126
Q

What is the function of the Outer Ear?

A
  • Pinna - captures sound
  • Auditory Canal - passageway
  • Tympanic Membrane (Eardrum) - separates outer and middle ear
127
Q

What is the function of the Middle Ear?

A
  • Air filled chamber
  • Ossicles
  • Transmits sound vibrations from outer to inner ear
128
Q

What is the function of the Inner Ear?

A
  • Oval window
  • Cochlea - sensation of hearing
  • Vestibular System - sensation of equilibrium
129
Q

What is the structure of the Cochlea?

A

Three fluid-filled chambers:
* Scala Vestibuli
* Scala Tympani
* Scala Media (cochlear duct)

130
Q

Where is sound detected?

A

Detected by the organ of Corti which lies on the basilar membrane on the cochlear duct

131
Q

Where do Hair Cells synapse?

A

In contact with overlaying tectorial membrane and synapse with neurons in the spiral ganglion

132
Q

What is the Auditory Pathway?

A
  1. Cochlea (Inner Ear)
  2. Medulla (Brainstem)
  3. Midbrain (Brainstem)
  4. Thalamus
  5. Auditory Cortex
133
Q

What are Activity-Independent processes in Neurodevelopment?

A

“Hard wired” pre-determined by genes in a neuron
* Neuronal differentiation
* Migration
* Axon growth

134
Q

What are Activity Dependent processes in Neurodevelopment?

A

Occur later, after a neuron has formed connections

135
Q

What causes Down’s Syndrome?

A

Reduced neurogenesis and Increased astrogliogenesis

136
Q

What is Chorioamnionitis?

A

Causes fetal inflammation and injury to the immature brain

137
Q

What are Induced Pluripotent Stem Cells (iPSCs)?

A

Pluripotent stem cells that can be generated directly from adult cells

138
Q

What receptors are involved in sending information along the ANS?

A
  • Chemoreceptors
  • Baroreceptors
  • Osmoreceptors
  • Pain receptors
139
Q

Which brain structure provides control over the ANS?

A

Hypothalamus

140
Q

What are Preganglionic neurons?

A
  • cell body WITHIN the CNS
  • synapse in ganglia
  • myelinated
141
Q

What are Postganglionic fibres?

A
  • cell bodies OUTSIDE the CNS
  • synapse on target organ
  • unmyelinated
142
Q

What neurotransmitter is released by all Preganglionic fibres?

A

Acetylcholine (ACh)

143
Q

What neurotransmitter is released by Postganglionic Parasympathetic fibres?

A

Acetylcholine (ACh)

144
Q

What neurotransmitter is released by Postganglionic Sympathetic fibres?

A

Noradrenaline (NA)

145
Q

What part of the spinal cord are the cell bodies for Sympathetic Preganglionic neurons located?

A

Intermediolateral cell column of the thoracolumbar region

146
Q

What structure do Sympathetic Preganglionic neurons synapse at?

A

The Sympathetic Chain Ganglia (T1 to L2)

147
Q

Which cranial nerves are involved in the Parasympathetic system?

A

Oculomotor (CN III)
Facial (CN VII)
Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
Vagus (CN X)

148
Q

Where are the cell bodies of the Parasympathetic Preganglionic neurons located?

A
  • Close to the target organ
  • Four of the twelve cranial nerves
  • S2 to S4
149
Q

How does the brain communicate with the peripheral blood circulation?

A

Via the Circumventricular Organs (CVOs)
*chemosensitive areas surrounding ventricles
* lack BBB
* important for feedback regulation

150
Q

What are the THREE parts of the Hypothalamus?

A
  • Periventricular (nearest the 3rd ventricle)
  • Medial
  • Lateral
151
Q

What are the functions of the Afferents to the Hypothalamus?

A

Circulatory INPUTS

152
Q

What are the functions of the Efferents from the Hypothalamus?

A

Circulatory OUTPUTS

153
Q

Which part of the Pituitary has Neural Projections?

A

Posterior (Magnocellular Neurons)

154
Q

Which part of the Pituitary contains the Circulatory Link?

A

Anterior (Parvocellular Neurons)

155
Q

Where does the Magnocellular system originate?

A
  • In the Supraoptic and Paraventricular Nuclei of the Hypothalamus
  • Produces Vasopressin (ADH) and Oxytocin
156
Q

What structures do the hormones travel down to the Posterior Pituitary?

A

Median Eminence and Infundibulum

157
Q

What is the mechanism of the Parvicellular System?

A
  • Hypothalamus secretes Releasing (RH) or Release-Inhibiting (RIH) hormones in the Median Eminence
  • RH / RIH travel into Anterior Pituitary to increase or decrease hormone production
  • Hormones released into circulation
158
Q

What are the Hypophysiotropic hormones?

A
  • Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
  • Growth hormone (GH)
  • Corticotrophin (ACTH)
  • Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
  • Luteinising hormone (LH)
  • Prolactin
159
Q

What is the Endocrine System for Metabolism?

A

Brain -> Pituitary -> Thyroid

160
Q

What is the Endocrine System for Growth?

A

Brain -> Pituitary -> Liver / Bone / Muscle

161
Q

What is the Endocrine System for Stress?

A

Brain -> Pituitary -> Adrenals

162
Q

What is the Endocrine System for Reproduction?

A

Brain -> Pituitary -> Gonads

163
Q

What is the Endocrine System for Lactation?

A

Brain -> Pituitary -> Mammaries

164
Q

What is the mechanism of the Stress Response?

A
  • Periventricular hypothalamus secretes CRH into portal circulation
  • Anterior pituitary secretes ACTH into peripheral circulation
  • ACTH stimulates cortisol from adrenal cortex
165
Q

What was the James-Lange theory of emotion?

A

Emotion experienced in response to physiological changes

166
Q

What was the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion?

A

Emotions occur independent of emotion expression

167
Q

What is the Papez Circuit?

A
  • Emotion system linking Cortex with Hypothalamus
  • Neocortex -> Cingulate Cortex -> Hippocampus (connected by Fornix) -> Hypothalamus -> Anterior Thalamus
168
Q

What are the effects of Amygdala lesions in humans?

A

Inability to recognise fear in facial expressions

169
Q

What are the nuclei of the Amygdala and their functions?

A
  • Corticomedial Nuclei
  • Central Nucleus - receives olfactory afferents
  • Basolateral Nucleus - receives visual, auditory, gustatory and tactile afferents
170
Q

Which hormones and neurotransmitters regulate aggression?

A
  • Testosterone - increased levels increase aggression
  • Serotonin - decreased levels increase aggression
171
Q

Which brain areas are activated when music is considered pleasant?

A
  • Amygdala
  • Hippocampus
  • Ventral Striatum (NAcc)
172
Q

What is the Chill Response when listening to music?

A

A feeling of intense euphoria
*significant increase in regional cerebral blood flow (rCBF) in the Ventral Striatum

173
Q

What is the association between Dopamine release and the Chill Response?

A
  • Dopamine released in NAcc during Chills - Hedonic
  • Dopamine released in Caudate prior to Chills - Anticipation
174
Q

Which brain areas are best predictors of music reward value?

A

Nucleus Accumbens and Auditory Cortices

175
Q

Which parts of the ANS decrease during the chills response?

A
  • Blood Volume Pulse (BVP)
  • Temperature
176
Q

What are the TWO types of Non-Associative learning?

A
  • Habituation - decreased response to repeated mild stimulus
  • Sensitisation - intensified response following one intense stimulus
177
Q

What are the TWO types of Associative learning?

A
  • Classical Conditioning - learning a stimulus has an outcome
  • Operant Conditioning - learning own behaviour has consequences
178
Q

What is Declaritive Memory?

A

Semantic (facts) and Episodic (events)

179
Q

What is Non-Declaritive Memory?

A

Procedural (skills and habits) and unconscious (automatic)

180
Q

What is the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test?

A
  • A test for Prefrontal Cortical Dysfunction
  • Relies on working memory
181
Q

What are the THREE steps to forming memories?

A
  1. Encoding
  2. Consolidation
  3. Retrieval
182
Q

What was Karl Lashley’s theory on memory?

A

All cortical areas contribute equally to learning and memory (size of brain area rather than location)

183
Q

What was Donald Hebb’s theory on memory?

A

Memory is stored across the cerebral cortex as a network of neurons (Cell Assemblies)
“Neurons that fire together, wire together”

184
Q

What is the Medial Temporal Lobe important for in memory?

A

Consolidation and storage of declarative memories

185
Q

What TWO enzymes cut Amyloid Precursor Protein (APP) to create β-Amyloid?

A

β and γ Secretase

186
Q

The loss of which neurotransmitters is thought to lead to Alzheimer’s?

A

Acetylcholine, Serotonin, Glutamate, and Noradrenaline

187
Q

Which genes are thought to play a role in developing Alzheimer’s?

A
  • ApoE 4
  • APP
  • Presenilin 1
  • Tau
188
Q

What are some current drug treatments for Alzheimer’s?

A
  • Acetylcholinesterase Inhibitors - increases Acetylcholine synthesis
  • Memantine - blocks high levels of Glutamate
189
Q

What is the pathology of Parkinson’s?

A

Loss of dopaminergic nigrostriatal neurons
* substantia nigra pars compacta (SNpc)
* caudate and putamen (striatum)

190
Q

What protein do Lewy bodies contain?

A

α-synuclein

191
Q

What are some current drug treatments for Parkinson’s?

A
  • Dopamine replacement - synthetic Dopamine
  • Dopamine agonist - mimics affects of Dopamine
  • MAO Inhibitors - stops metabolism of Dopamine
192
Q

What type of disorder is Huntington’s?

A

Inherited trinucleotide repeat disorder

193
Q

What chromosome does the Huntingtin gene sit on?

A

Chromosome 4

194
Q

How many CAG repeats will cause Huntington’s?

195
Q

What brain regions are affected by Huntington’s?

A

Striatum, Basal Ganglia, Cerebral Cortex

196
Q

Which neurotransmitter pathways are affected by Huntington’s?

A

Degeneration of striatal GABAergic neurons can cause hyperactivity in dopaminergic systems

197
Q

What drug treatments can be used for Huntington’s?

A
  • Tetrabenazine - reduces dopamine activity
  • Baclofen - GABA receptor agonist
198
Q

Who coined the term “Plasticity”?

A

Jerzy Konorski

199
Q

Who identified the two Critical Periods?

A

Michael Merzenich

200
Q

What are the structural brain changes at Adolescence?

A
  • Synaptogenesis
  • Synpatic Pruning - reduced gray matter volume
  • White mater volume increases
201
Q

What are the functional changes in the Adolescent brain?

A
  • Greater activation of the nucleus accumbens during reward processing
  • Greater activation of the amygdala in response to emotional stimuli
202
Q

How does exercise affect the Adolescent brain?

A
  • Enhances dendrite complexity
  • Increases neuroplasticity genes

AN2020: Neuroscience (1 decks)

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