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Psychological Assessment > Exam Revision > Flashcards

Exam Revision Flashcards

1
Q

What are the (5) major categories of psychological tests?

A
  • mental ability tests: designed to assess cognitive function i.e. intelligence
  • achievement tests: measures of previous learning i.e. NAPLAN
  • personality tests: measures traits, temperament, disposition i.e MMPI
  • interests and attitudes tests: i.e. high school vocational interests
  • neuropsychological tests: yield information about brain function i.e. fMRI
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2
Q

Name four other ways to categorise tests

A
  • paper and pencil tests vs. performance
  • speed vs. power tests
  • group vs. individual tests
  • norm vs. criterion referenced tests
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3
Q

What is the difference between norm and criterion referenced tests?

A

Norm referenced tests compare an individual’s result to a bell curve of a representative sample to determine the level of performance i.e through a percentile, while criterion referenced tests can be thought of as pass/fail tests where an individual either meets a specific level of performance or they don’t

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4
Q

What are four settings where pscyhological tests might be used

A
  • educational
  • clinical
  • employment
  • research
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5
Q

What are the four fundamental assumptions in psychological testing?

A
  1. people differ in important traits
  2. we can measure these traits on a continuum
  3. these traits are relatively stable
  4. measures of the trait relate to actual behaviour
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6
Q

What is the differential perspective?

A

Assumes laws and theories may not apply to everyone, and instead that everyone is different - generally in psychology we are more interested in people’s differences than their similarities

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7
Q

What is the difference between psychological testing and psychological assessment?

A

Testing is just an element of psych assessment, and is a way to gather information about an individual, usually vie a standardised test. In addition to psychological testing, psych assessment requires piecing together of data to come to a conclusion and recommendation about an individual

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8
Q

What are the four main stages involved in psychological assessment?

A
  1. Initial referral
  2. Test selection
  3. Conducting the formal assessment
  4. Feedback and report writing
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9
Q

What are the 6 key elements of a psychological test?

A
  1. a procedure or device
  2. yields some kind of information
  3. this information is about behaviour or cognition
  4. this information is only a sample
  5. the procedure is standardised
  6. information should be delivered in a quantified form
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10
Q

What are the main sections of a psychological report?

A
  • identifying data
  • referral question
  • background/history
  • behavioural observations
  • tests used
  • results/findings
  • summary
  • recommendations
  • signature
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11
Q

Name some of the major assessment methods used other than psychological testing

A
  • case history data
  • clinical interviews
  • intellectual and cognitive tests
  • behavioural observation
  • self report
  • psychophysiological measures
  • projective tests
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12
Q

What is classical test theory?

A

Based on the true score model, it states that each person has an observed score on any give test that is made up of their true score, plus or minus any error from the test.

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13
Q

What is error (in statistics)?

A

Error is a component of the test score that is unrelated to the test-taker’s real ability or the trait being measured (we will therefore never be able to actually know the person’s true score)

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14
Q

What is reliability?

A

Reliability refers to the consistency of any given measure, i.e. measures with high reliability will consistently give the same result over and over again

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15
Q

What is systematic error?

A

Any source of error that is constant, proportionate, predictable - generally thought of more in relation to validity than reliability

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16
Q

What is random error?

A

Any source of error that is inconsistent, unrelated and unpredictable - because this sort of error changes each time and could cause a positive or negative change, on average people should score close to their true score

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17
Q

Name five sources of measurement error

A
  • test construction i.e. different items on the same test
  • test administration i.e. variations in testing environment
  • test scoring or interpretation
  • sampling error i.e. non-representative samples
  • methodological errors i.e. poor training, unclear or biased questions
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18
Q

What is Item Response Theory (IRT)?

A

Provides a way to model the probability that a person with X ability level will correctly answer a question that is “tuned” to that ability level, incorporates considerations of item difficulty and discrimination

  • Difficulty relates to an item not being easily accomplished, solved, or comprehended
  • Discrimination refers to the degree to which an item differentiates among people with higher or lower levels of the trait, ability, or construct being measured
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19
Q

What are the four most common ways to estimate reliability?

A
  1. test-retest reliability
  2. parallel and alternative forms reliability
  3. internal consistency reliability
  4. inter-rater reliability
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20
Q

What are some of factors affecting choice of reliability estimates?

A
  • Is the test homogenous (for measures of internal consistency)?
  • Is the trait static or fluid (for test-retest)?
  • Is the range of test results restricted (influence correlations)?
  • Is the test qualitative or quantitative (for inter-rater)?
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21
Q

How are SEMs related to reliability?

A

Standard error of measurement is a standardised reliability estimate (that is also influenced by the SD) that tells us how confident we can be in a single score being reflective of the true score. From here, we can create a confidence interval to understand how broad the band is in which a score might sit.

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22
Q

What influence do SD and reliability have on the SEM?

A
  • larger reliability means smaller SEM
  • larger SD means larger SEM
    Given this we generally want to try to have as good reliability as possible because the SD is hard to change.
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23
Q

What is the SED?

A

The standard error of the difference is a measure of how large a difference in test scores would be considered to be “statistically significant”

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24
Q

What is a standard score and how is it used to interpret test scores?

A

A standard score is a raw score that has been converted from one scale to one with a predefined mean and SD. This is useful because it allows different sets of scores to be compared, and this is particularly relevant when comparing an individual to a set of normal scores to determine where they fall compared to the rest of the population

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25
Q

What is validity?

A

A judgement or estimate of how well a test measures what it purports to measure i.e. scales validly measure weight, but not IQ

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26
Q

What are the four types of validity

A
  • Construct validity: determined through a combination of results matching results from other related tests, and whether the idea behind the test is theoretically valid
  • Content validity: based on the evaluation of content covered by the test
  • Face validity: whether the test appears to cover the relevant content
  • Criterion validity: obtained by evaluating the relationship between scores on your test and other tests/measures
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27
Q

How is face validity measured?

A

a judgement concerning how relevant the questions on a test appear to be

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28
Q

How is content validity measured?

A
  • test blue print to ensure all relevant concepts are covered
  • Lawshe’s content validity ratio (CVR) to determine whether each item is necessary
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29
Q

How is criterion validity measured?

A
  • concurrent reliability: an index of the degree to which a test score is related to some criterion measured concurrently
  • predictive reliability: an index of the degree to which a test score predicts some criterion, or outcome, measured in the future
  • the validity coefficient: a correlation coefficient that provides a measure of the relationship between test scores and scores on the criterion
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30
Q

How is construct validity measured?

A
  • factor analysis
  • convergent evidence
  • divergent tests
  • distinct groups show differences on the test
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31
Q

What is test utility?

A

Utility is the usefulness or practical value of testing

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32
Q

What are three factors that effect utility?

A
  • Psychometric soundness: generally higher validity = greater utility but valid tests aren’t always useful i.e. ones that take hours and hours
  • Costs: economic costs, time costs, ethical considerations can diminish the utility of the test even if the test is valid
  • Benefits: if there are large number of benefits of a test, these might outweigh any potential costs i.e. better data, relevance, more reliable etc.
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33
Q

What is a cut score?

A

A cut score is a score in a range of measures that indicated a test-taker is at a certain level or category, and is used to differentiate people (i.e. score of 24 or above means depressed)

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34
Q

What are the five methods for setting cut scores?

A
  • The Angoff Method: judgements of experts are averaged to produce a cut score
  • The Known Groups Method: entail collection of data on the predictor of interest from groups known to possess a trait, and known not to possess a trait, then a cut score is selected that is best able to discriminate these two groups
  • Item Response Theory (IRT) Methods: use the item difficulty parameter
  • Discriminant Analysis: statistical techniques used to quantify how well a set of identified variables can predict memberships to groups of interest
  • Receiver Operating Curves: derives the sensitivity and specificity associated with different cut points that classify individuals as having or not having a condition of interest
    • Youden Index: cut point selected based on the maximal sensitivity and specificity
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35
Q

What is a base rate?

A

The true prevalence of the condition of interest in the population - must be considered when setting cut scores

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36
Q

What are ethics?

A

a set of principles to guide professional behaviour

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37
Q

Give two reasons why ethics in psychological testing are important

A
  • Many members of the public first encounter psychology through psychological testing (need to uphold the name and standard of the profession
  • Decisions made on the basis of test results may have lifelong implications for the person being tested
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38
Q

What are the 5 steps in making ethical decisions?

A
  1. Recognise that there is an ethical issue present
  2. Clarify the ethical issues
  3. Generate and examine available actions
  4. Choose and implement preferred option
  5. Reflect on and review the process
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39
Q

What are the 3 principles of the APS Code of Ethics?

A
  1. Respect for the rights and dignity of people and peoples
  2. Propriety
  3. Integrity
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40
Q

What does the first APS principle entail?

A

Respect for rights and dignity means valuing and respecting individuals’ rights, including the right to autonomy and justice. This has implications for principles such as informed consent, and the right to withdraw consent at any time, along with privacy and confidentiality

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41
Q

What does the second APS principle entail?

A

Propriety incorporates principles of beneficence, non-maleficence (including competence), and responsibility to the clients, the profession, and society

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42
Q

What does the third APS principle entail?

A

Integrity reflects the need for psychologists to have good character, and acknowledges the high level of trust intrinsic to their professional relationships and the impact of their conduct on the reputation of the profession

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43
Q

Which section of the APS Code of Ethics refers direct to ethics in research, and what does this section outline?

A

B.13; the need to use appropriate and reasonable tests, report results accurately, and keep classified tests available only to those qualified to use them

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44
Q

What is the concept of competence?

A

Refers to the ability of a psychologist to choose, conduct, and interpret tests when they are used, and understand the issues or limitations of any given test

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45
Q

When administering a test, what ethical responsibilities does a psychologist have to their client?

A

They must inform the client of all information relating to the test and the outcomes of the test, including why, what, consent, consequences, results and who they will be shared with

46
Q

Why do psychologists need to be properly qualified to administer a test?

A

Because we need to know the theory that underpins the tests, how tests work, and how to apply this to real people, who differ in crucial ways

47
Q

How does culture influence psychological testing?

A

We must recognise the important influence of culture and language differences on how tests are interpreted and the ability of a individual to perform in a way that best reflects their true abilities. Given this, it is important for tests to be adapted to individual cultures and normed against these cultures.

48
Q

What is intelligence?

A

A multi-faceted construct that includes the ability to:

  • Acquire and apply knowledge
  • Reason, plan, and infer
  • Grasp and visualise concepts
  • Find the right words and thoughts
  • Cope and adjust to novel situations
49
Q

What is the difference between implicit and explicit definitions of intelligence?

A

Implicit are those of laypersons that are influenced by culture, age, and elements of explicit definitions. Explicit definitions are those constructed by scientists based on the findings of empirical research

50
Q

What are the key differences between Galton and Binet intelligence conceptualisations?

A

Galton and Binet had opposing views of intelligence. While Galton, being one of the first to articulate intelligence, believed differences arose in one’s ability to perceive sensory information, Binet thought intelligence was more complex and required measurement of cognitive abilities that were used together to solve complex problems.

51
Q

What was Weschler’s view of intelligence?

A

He viewed intelligence as the global capacity of the individual to act purposefully, think rationally, and deal effectively with their environment. This view hinges on the concept of intelligence being made up of multiple interacting but discriminable abilities that are qualitatively differentiable

52
Q

What are the four factor analytic models?

A
  • Spearman
  • Thurstone
  • Cattell- Horn
  • Carroll
53
Q

What are the two competing “classical theories of intelligence

A
  • Spearman’s ‘g’: believes that the amount of overlap shown in factor analysis between all measures of intelligence is enough to warrant an argument for one sort of general intelligence
  • Thurston’s Multifactor Model: believes the overlap was NOT enough to discount the differences between the models, instead he proposed that there were 7 primary mental abilities
54
Q

How do hierarchical models of intelligence differ from classical theories?

A

They combine ideas of general intelligence with elements of the subcategories/factors to make a hierarchy of levels of intelligence

55
Q

What did Cattell-Horn propose?

A

The existence of two major types of abilities: crystallised and fluid intelligence

  • crystallised is skills and knowledge acquired through education, experience, and practice
  • fluid intelligence is the ability to think in novel ways and apply skills and knowledge
56
Q

What did Carroll propose?

A

A hierarchical model that incorporates features of general intelligence, fluid and crystallised intelligence and other primary factors, along with many many other factors at the base that are dependent on the factor they are linked to

57
Q

What is the CHC model?

A

Combines the Cattell-Horn model and the Three Stratum Model into ten broad stratum abilities and over seventy narrow stratum abilities. This model has no general ability included as the measurement of this doesn’t have many practical applications.

58
Q

What are the differences between factor analytic, information-processing, and developmental models?

A
  • Factor analytic models aim to examine different aspects of a “cognitive” intelligence
  • Information processing models examine the way that information is dealt with in the brain i.e. serial vs. parallel processing
  • Developmental models focus on changes that occur in cognitive abilities across the lifespan
59
Q

What are the implications of the Flynn Effect?

A

The Flynn effect documents the finding that intelligence has increased across generations. Given that intelligence tests are normed regularly, each time with a new and younger sample, adults who have to retake a test are likely to see a drop in IQ that may not actually reflect a decline in their skills.

60
Q

How does intelligence change across the lifespan?

A

Intelligence increase rapidly until around the age of 12, when growth slows but still continues. At around 75, intelligence begins to decrease, however some abilities have been shown to deteriorate faster than others. Because of these changes, the older someone is when their IQ is measured, the more likely it is that their IQ will remain the same for the rest of their life i.e measurement of IQ in children doesn’t have great predictive validity.

61
Q

What was the first IQ test and why was it developed?

A

The first IQ test was developed in 1906 by Binet to allow French schools to screen students, and used the principle of ‘g’. It was further developed in the Stanford-Binet which, in 1960, began using a point scale which allowed for individual scores to be compared to an age matched population

62
Q

What is the difference between ratio and deviation IQ?

A

Ratio IQ is the mental age divided by the chronological age whereas deviation IQ is calculated through the standardisation of scores to allow for comparison to a normative sample. This method accounts for age-related intelligence differences.

63
Q

What are the main features of the SB-5

A

The Stanford-Binet 5th consists of the measurement of ‘g’ along with 5 other factors that are measured through a range of subscales. This test can be used on anyone between the ages of 2-85 and there is only a single form of the test. This means it has the ability to discriminate between items at both the low and high ends of the scale well.

64
Q

What are some of the common reasons for administering an intelligence test in clinical practice?

A
  • monitor recovery from a brain injury
  • in education settings to diagnose a disability or allow for adjustments of individual learning plans
  • to determine an individual’s suitability for a role or task
65
Q

What are the three Weschler Intelligence tests?

A
  • WAIS (adult)
  • WISC (children)
  • WPPSI (preschool and primary)
66
Q

What age range does the WPPSI span?

A

2.6 - 7.3

67
Q

What age range does the WISC span?

A

6 - 16.11

68
Q

What age range does the WAIS span?

A

16 - 90.11

69
Q

What are the four subscales in the WAIS?

A
  • perceptual reasoning index
  • processing speed index
  • working memory index
  • verbal comprehension index
70
Q

A score of ____ or below is consider to be extremely low on the Wechsler scales

A

70

71
Q

The Wechsler “average” band encompasess what scores?

A

90-109

72
Q

What the lowest score needed to be considered “superior” on the Wechsler scales?

A

120

73
Q

What is the mean score on an individual Wechsler subtest?

A

10

74
Q

The VCI is analogous to the _______ because _______

A

librarian; remembers information and applies it to the issue at hand

75
Q

The PRI is analogous to the _______ because _______

A

architect; it thinks with and manipulates images and can interpret and organise visual information

76
Q

The WMI is analogous to the _______ because _______

A

general manager; has to be on top what other parts of the brain are doing and pull together information to solve a problem

77
Q

The PSI is analogous to the _______ because _______

A

clerk; has to complete tasks quickly

78
Q

What is the hierarchy of interpretation?

A

When reporting results from an intelligence test, we start with the most reliable results and work towards to the least reliable result

79
Q

What does the first principle of interpretation discuss?

A

Composite scores should be unitary. They are designed to reflect the global performance across a range of subtests measuring similar abilities. However, the subtests are not identical, and measure different abilities so a composite score is only useful if it describes a unitary ability (i.e. all the subtests are relatively consistent)

80
Q

What does the second principle of interpretation discuss?

A

We must always describe client performance in terms of normative and personal comparisons. When giving the descriptive brackets of the normative comparison, these must correspond with the full range of the CI.

81
Q

What does the third principle of interpretation discuss?

A

Test interpretation requires an integrative approach that draws upon multiple sources of information. We need to weigh up how much information there is that can be used as evidence and we should never interpret a single subtest score on its own.

82
Q

When can the FSIQ be considered unitary?

A

When the difference between the highest and lowest Primary Index Scores is less than 22 points

83
Q

When could an index score be considered a relative strength or weakness?

A

Where there is a discrepancy of more than 9 points between the index and the FSIQ - this is likely to be a significant difference however we should also look at whether the CIs overlap at all.

84
Q

When would an index considered to be non-unitary?

A

When the difference between the highest and lowest subtest within a given index is greater than 5 points

85
Q

What are the four pillars of child assessment?

A
  • Norm-referenced tests
  • Interviews
  • Observations
  • Informal assessment procedures
86
Q

What are the key elements of the definition of a neurodevelopmental disorder, such as intellectual disability

A
  • Must be intellectual deficits (such as below average performance on an IQ test)
  • Impairments in at least one area of adaptive functioning
  • Must be onset during the developmental period
87
Q

How is an intellectual disability distinguished from a global developmental delay?

A

Global Developmental Delay is a term used for children under the age of five showing signs of an ID but are too young to be formally assessed (due to the belief that clinical testing will not allow for accurate diagnosis of severity in children this young)

88
Q

What are the three types of specific learning disorder listed in the DSM?

A
  • Reading disorder
  • Mathematics disorders
  • Disorder of written expression
89
Q

What is the major concept of specific learning disorder diagnosis?

A

A child of average intelligence may fail in school because of a specific deficit or disability that prevents learning - therefore IQ testing must occur along with academic achievement testing

90
Q

How is academic achievement testing used in the diagnosis of a specific learning disorder?

A
  • Achievement tests are different from intelligence tests which measure aptitude or ability to learn
  • Achievement tests assume that if academic skills are accurately measured, educational needs can be identified and met
  • In clinical practice, individually-administered achievement tests measure oral language, reading, writing, and mathematics
91
Q

What is personality?

A

Personality refers to the individual differences in characteristic patterns of thinking, feeling and behaving - an individual’s unique constellation of psychological traits that are relatively stable over time

92
Q

What is a personality trait?

A

Any distinguishable, relatively enduring way in which one individual varies from another

93
Q

Distinguish between normative and ipsative interpretations of performance?

A

Normative comparisons are made by comparing an individual to the rest of the population, whereas ipsative comparisons are made by comparing different areas of performance within the individual to find relative strengths and weaknesses

94
Q

What is “adaptive behaviour”?

A

Refers to an individual’s ability to cope with everyday life demands and act independently according to age and social expectations. These abilities MUST be diminished for the diagnosis of ID.

95
Q

Why might the Wechsler Scales be problematic for assessing ID?

A

Because these scales are split into tests for different parts of the lifespan, the floor of the adult test does not go particularly low. This might mean that someone with an intellectual disability cannot answer more than one or two questions, and there is no ability to discriminate the severity of the disorder, or identify relative strengths and weaknesses.

96
Q

What assessment methods would be used in the evaluation of a specific learnign disorder?

A
  • intelligence test
  • academic achievement test
  • measure of emotion and behaviour
  • interviews with parents, child, and teacher
  • medical, family, and educational history would be examined
  • school reports might be examined
97
Q

What is the difference between state and trait personality?

A

Trait personality refers to the relatively stable patterns we tend to return to in our cognition, emotion, and behaviour. Conversely, state personality is momentary and may change from one situation to the next.

98
Q

What is the difference between self-report and informant in personality assessment?

A

Self-reports are filled out by the individual whose personality is under examination while an informant is someone other than that person who gives information about their personality

99
Q

What are the four different approaches to personality testing?

A
  • Nomothetic
  • Idiographic
  • Normative
  • Ipsative
100
Q

What does the nomothetic approach to personality examine?

A

Attempts to learn how a limited number of traits can be applied to all people

101
Q

What does the idiographic approach to personality involve?

A

Attempts to measure each individual’s unique pattern of traits

102
Q

What does the normative approach to personality involve?

A

Shows the individual’s scores relative to the broader population

103
Q

What does the ipsative approach to personality involve?

A

Shows relative strengths and weaknesses in traits measured

104
Q

What are the four commonly used methods for developing a personality assessment?

A
  • use a theory
  • use logic and reason
  • factor analysis
  • criterion groups
105
Q

What are the differences between objective and projective measures of personality?

A
  • Objective measures ask the participant to rate their own personality in response to items that require an indication of agreement.
  • Projective measures use ambiguous stimuli to prompt responses from the test-taker.
106
Q

What is clinical assessment?

A

Focusses on the prevention, assessment, diagnosis, and treatment of psychological disorders varying from mild to severe (i.e. DSM disorders)

107
Q

What are the strengths of a categorical approach to diagnosis?

A
  • ease of communication between clinicians
  • organisation of information
  • allows for relationships between diagnoses
  • easy plan for treatment
  • provides an explanation for an indvidual’s experience
108
Q

What are the limitations of a categorical approach to diganosis?

A
  • stigmatisation

- loss of focus on an individual’s experience

109
Q

What is a disorder?

A
  • A syndrome characterised by clinically significant disturbance in an individual’s cognition, emotion regulation, or behaviour that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological, or developmental processes underlying mental functioning - usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities
  • IT IS NOT an expectable or culturally approved response to a common stressor or loss, or socially deviant behaviour and conflicts that are primarily between the individual and society are not mental disorders unless resulting from a dysfunction in the individual
110
Q

What do the 4 P’s in the 4 P’s Framework stand for?

A
  • precipitating
  • predisposing
  • perpetuating
  • protective
111
Q

What are the strengths and weaknesses of stuctured or semi-structured interviews?

A

Strengths:
- standardised, straightforward
- assist in diagnosis
- ensure all relevant criteria are examined
Weaknesses:
- lengthy in nature
- training to administer properly
- don’t allow for shortcuts for experienced clinicians
- rigidity may impact building of rapport

Psychological Assessment (1 decks)

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