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Oral Pathology > Exam Revision > Flashcards

Exam Revision Flashcards

1
Q

Which form Leishmaniasis can start with primary mucosal lesions?

a. visceral
b. cutaneous
c. mucocutaneous
d. all 3 clinical forms

A

d. all 3 clinical forms

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2
Q

Treatment for Noma disease?

A

a. Antibiotics: Penicillin and metronidazole
b. Correction of inadequate nutrition, hydration, and electrolyte imbalances and local wound care
c. Conservative débridement

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3
Q

What kind of infection is Actinomycosis?

a. viral
b. fungal
c. gram -ve anaerobic bacterial
d. gram +ve anaerobic bacterial

A

d. gram +ve anaerobic bacterial

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4
Q

What causes Tuberculosis?

A

Mycobacterium

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5
Q

What side does Tuberculosis affect?

a. Lung
b. Extra pulmonary
c. Both

A

c. Both Lung and extra pulmonary involvement

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6
Q

What causes Syphilis: (NAME)

a. bacteria
b. virus

A

Treponema Pallidum (anaerobic filamentous spirochete bacteria)

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7
Q

At which stage of Syphilis can we observe oral lesions?

a. 1st stage
b. 2nd stage
c. 3rd stage
d. Any stage

A

Any stage, but mostly on 2nd stage

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8
Q

What is the specific name of Primary Syphilis lesion?

A

Chancre

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9
Q

What is chancre?

A

= painless ulcer

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10
Q

When does Secondary Syphilis appear?

A

4 - 10w after initial infection

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11
Q

What are the clinical features of Secondary Syphilis?

A 
Multiple lesions
Rash
Mucous patches
Condylomata lata
Nodular syphilitic lesions
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12
Q

What is Tertiary Syphilis?

A

= syphilitic leukoplakia

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13
Q

Chancre Vs Gumma

A

Chancre = inflammatory infiltration of ly and Ma
->T. pallidum present

Gumma = granulomatous lesion w/ necrotic center
– MOST CHARACTERISTIC LESION OF 3RY SYPHILIS

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14
Q

Which jaw does actinomycosis affect?

a. maxilla
b. mandible
c. both

A

c. both

actinomycotic osteomyelitis of mandible and maxilla

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15
Q

What kind of infection is Aspergillosis?

a. viral
b. bacterial
c. fungal

A

c. deep fungal infection

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16
Q

What is Aspergillosis?

a. non - invasive
b. localized invasive
c. both

A

c. can be localized invasive or non-invasive

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17
Q

What can cause non-invasive Aspergillosis?

A

After tooth extraction or endo treatment, as an allergic reaction or a duster of fungal hyphae (dental treatments)

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18
Q

What are the clinical features of Aspergillosis?

A
  • Gingival ulcerations
  • Peripherally mucosa and soft tissue develop diffuse swelling with gray / violaceous hue
  • Yellow or black ulcer (necrosis)
  • Facial swelling
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19
Q

What kind of infection is Histoplasmosis?

a. fungal
b. viral
c. bacterial

A

a. deep fungal infection

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20
Q

In which form of Histoplasmosis can you find oral lesions?

a. Acute histoplasmosis
b. Disseminated histoplasmosis
c. Chronic histoplasmosis

A

Disseminated histoplasmosis

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21
Q

What are the Histopathological features of Histoplasmosis?

A

Granulomatous inflammation

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22
Q

What are the clinical Features of Denture Stomatitis?

A
  • Erythema

- Petechial hemorrhage on denture bearing areas of maxillary RPD

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23
Q

What are the clinical feautures of Central papillary atrophy of the tongue?

A
  • Demarcated erythematous zone affecting midline, posterior dorsal tongue
  • Erythema due to loss of fillform papillae
  • Smooth to lobulated, symmetrical lesion
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24
Q

What are the clinical features of Pseudo membranous candidiasis?

A
  • White plaques resemble cottage cheese or cudled milk on oral mucosa
  • Composed of tangled masses of hyphae, yeasts desquamated ep cells, debris
  • Underlying mucosa: normal/ erythromatous
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25
Q

What are the symptoms of Pseudo membranous candidiasis?

A
  • Mild

- Burning sensation of oral mucosa or unpleasant taste (salty or bitter)

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26
Q

What other forms of candidiasis have this burning sensation?
a. central papillary atrophy of the tongue
b. chronic multifocal
candidiasis
c. median rhomboid glossitis
d. acute atrophic candidiasis
e. central papillary atrophy

A

Erythematous Candidiasis

d. acute atrophic candidiasis

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27
Q

At what age does Dentigerous Cyst appear?

A

10 – 30y

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28
Q

Where does Dentigerous Cyst originate?

A

By separation of follicle from around an unerupted tooth crown

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29
Q

What are the radiographical features of Dentigerous Cyst? (2 answers)

a. unilocular
b. multilocular
c. radiolucent
d. radiopaque

A

unilocular, radiolucent area

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30
Q

What are the histopathological features of non-inflamed dentigerous cyst?

A
  • Loosely fibrous CT wall
  • Contains glycosaminoglycan ground substance and small islands / cords of inactive-appearing odontogenic ep rests
  • Ep lining consists of 2-4 layers of flattened nonkeratinizing cells, and ep and CT interface is flat
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31
Q

What is an Eruption cyst?

A

=cyst associated with an eruption of a tooth

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32
Q

What are the histopathologic Features of an Eruption cyst?

A
  • Surface oral ep on superior aspect
  • Underlying LP->inflammatory cell infiltrate
  • The deep portion of specimen (cyst roof) shows a thin layer of nonkeratinizing squamous ep
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33
Q

Why are Odontogenic keratocysts (OKC) significant?

A
  • Greater growth potential than most other odontogenic cysts
  • Higher recurrence rate
  • Association with nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome
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34
Q

What are the histopathological features of Odontogenic keratocysts (OKC)?

A
  • Ep lining composed of uniform layer of str sq ep – 6-8 cells thickness
  • Luminal surface has wavy/corrugated, flattened parakeratotic ep cells
  • Isolated foci of orthokeratin production
  • Palisaded basal layer composed of cuboidal/columnar cells – hyperchromatic
  • In fibrous wall 7-26% small satellite cysts, cords, or islands of odontogenic ep
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35
Q

Where is more likely for Odontogenic keratocyst (OKC) to occur?

a. mandible
b. maxilla
c. both

A

a. mandible: 60%-80% (more than maxilla)

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36
Q

What does Gingival (alveolar) cyst of the newborn contains?

A

filled with keratin

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37
Q

What is Micrognathia?

a. hyperplasia of maxilla
b. hypopasia of maxilla
c. hypoplasia of mandible
d. hyperplasia of mandible

A

= Hypoplasia of the mandible but results in posterior displacement of the tongue to newborns or children

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38
Q

What is Micrognathia?

a. Excessive secretion of growth hormone from ant pituitary
b. Excessive secretion of growth hormone from post pituitary
c. Excessive secretion of growth hormone from hypophysis

A

= Excessive secretion of growth hormone from ANTERIOR PITUITARY

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39
Q

What are the clinical features of Macrognathia?

A
  • Macrognathia
  • Enlarged lips
  • Enlarged tongue
  • Supraorbital bulging
  • Enlarged nose
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40
Q

What is Eagle Syndrome?

A

Elongated stylohyoid process and/or calcification of stylohyoid ligament

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41
Q

What are the 2 types of Eagle Syndrome?

A
  • Classical stylohyoid syndrome

- Styloid process-carotid syndrome – of CAROTID A!!!!

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42
Q

What are Fordyce Granules?

A

Sebaceous glands

43
Q

Which chromosome is affected in Paramedian lip pits?

A

chromosome locus 1q32-q41

44
Q

Which syndrome is Paramedian lip pits in combination with cleft lip?

A

Van der Woude syndrome

45
Q

What are the clinical features of Paramedian lip pits?

A

Bilateral and symmetric

Depth: 1,5cm

46
Q

What is Double Lip?

A

=a component of Ascher syndrome

=a result from trauma or oral habits

47
Q

Which lip is affected more with Double Lip?

a. lower lip
b. both lips
c. upper lip

A

c.upper lip

48
Q

Which syndrome is Microglossia associated with?

A

oromandibular-limb hypogenesis syndromes

49
Q

What is the cause of Gorlin and Goltz Syndrome?

a. recessive
b. dominant

A

b. inherited autosomal dominant

50
Q

What is the treatment for Treacher Collins Syndrome?

A
  • Mild forms: no treatment
  • More severe forms: cosmetic surgery, multiple surgical procedures, operations
  • Combined orthodontic therapy and orthognathic
51
Q

What is Peutz - Jegers Syndrome?

a. recessive
b. dominant

A

b. Inherited autosomal dominant

52
Q

How is the diagnosis made for Rendu-Osler-Weber?

A
  • Recurrent spontaneous epistaxis
  • Telangiectasias of the mucosa and skin
  • Arteriovenous malformation involving the lungs, liver, or CNS
  • Family history of HHT
53
Q

How is Papillon-Lefevre Syndrome inherited?

a. recessive
b. dominant

A

a. autosomal recessive

54
Q

What are the characteristics of Papillon-Lefevre Syndrome?

A

premature loss of the primary and permanent teeth and hyperkeratosis of the palms, soles, and sometimes of the knees and elbows

55
Q

What are the radiographic features of Papillon-Lefevre Syndrome

A
  • Floating teeth

- Bone loss

56
Q

What is Desquamative Gingivitis?

a. diagnosis
b. clinical term

A

b. clinical term

57
Q

What are the predisposing factors of Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis (NUG)?

A
  • Immunosuppression
  • Smoking
  • Local trauma
  • Poor nutritional status
  • Poor oral hygiene
  • Inadequate sleep
  • Recent illness
  • Immunocompromised status associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
  • Psychologic stress
58
Q

What are the clinical features of Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis (NUG)?

A
  • Hemorrhagic, Edematous, Inflamed interdental papillae
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Fever, malaise
  • Fetid odor
  • Pain
  • Accumulations of necrotic debris
  • “Punched-out” papillae craterlike necrosis that are covered with a gray pseudomembrane
59
Q

What is the treatment for Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis (NUG)?

A
  • Debridement by scaling, curettage, or ultrasonic instrumentation
  • Topical or local anesthetic
  • Rinses with chlorhexidine
  • Antibiotics: penicillin, metronidazole
60
Q

What is the cause of Hand-Foot-And-Mouth Disease?

A

coxsackievirus

61
Q

What is the cause of Herpangina?

A

coxsackievirus

62
Q

What is the WHO classification calcifying odontogenic cyst?

A
  • Calcifying cystic odontogenic tumor (95%)
  • Dentinogenic ghost cell tumor (solid tumor like growths)
  • Ghost cell odontogenic carcinoma
63
Q

Which are the diseases the DG may imitate?

A
  • Vesiculoerosive diseases: mucous membrane pemphigoid
  • lichen planus
  • linear IgA disease
  • pemphigus vulgaris
  • epidermolysis bullosa acquisita
  • systemic lupus erythematosus
  • chronic ulcerative stomatitis
  • paraneoplastic pemphigus
  • chronic bacterial, fungal, viral infection - reaction to mouth rinses and chewing gum
64
Q

What are the histopathological features of Calcifying odontogenic cyst?

A
  • fibrous capsule and odontogenic ep lining of 4-10 cell thickness
  • cuboidal or columnar basal cells similar to ameloblasts
  • “ghost cells”: altered ep cells w/o nuclei w/ basic cell outline and calcification
  • intraosseous and extraosseous dentinogenic ghost cell tumors
65
Q

Description of Herpangina lesions:

A

a small number of lesions develop on the soft palate/tonsillar pillars begin as red macules and then rapidly ulcerate

66
Q

What are the symptoms of Herpangina?

A
  • sore throat
  • dysphagia
  • fever, occasionally accompanied by cough
  • rhinorrhea
  • anorexia
  • vomiting
  • diarrhea
  • myalgia
  • headache
67
Q

Where are cutaneous lesions found in Hand-Foot-And-Mouth Disease?

A
  • on borders of palms and soles
  • on the ventral surfaces
  • on fingers and toes sides

oral and hand lesions arise without prodromal symptoms!!

68
Q

What is the therapy for Herpes Simplex Virus?

A

-antiviral
-dietary
-mouth rinse
-relief => w/ non-steroidal
anti-inflammatory drugs (medication)

69
Q

What are the symptoms for Herpes Simplex Virus?

A
  • Sore throat
  • Fever
  • Malaise
  • Headache
70
Q

What are the clinical features of Herpes Simplex Virus?

A

mucosa develops numerous pinhead vesicles, which rapidly collapse to form numerous small red lesions which enlarge and develop central ulceration covered by yellow fibrin

71
Q

What is the onset of Herpes Simplex Virus?

A
  • abrupt and accompanied by anterior cervical lymphadenopathy
  • chills
  • fever
  • nausea
  • anorexia
  • irritability
  • sore mouth lesions
72
Q

At what age does Herpes Simplex Virus appear?

A

6m to 5y (peak: 2-3y)

73
Q

What are the clinical features of Desquamative Gingivitis?

A
  • smooth erythema
  • loss of stippling
  • desquamation and gingiva erosion
  • involves the attached and free gingiva
  • chronic onset all over mouth
  • multifocal or generalized pattern
  • vesicle/bulla formation filled with clear fluid or blood
  • mostly asymptomatic, but when symptomatic ranges from mild burning sensation to pain
74
Q

What is Sturge Weber?

A
  • congenital, non-familial disorder

- RARE alveolar bone destruction

75
Q

What are the characteristics of Sturge Weber?

A

congenital hemangiomatous facial lesion in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve associated with similar lesion intracranially and neurological abnormalities

76
Q

What is the Intraoral involvement of Sturge Weber?

A

common, resulting in hypervascular changes to the ipsilateral mucosa

77
Q

What are the clinical features of Peutz - Jegers Syndrome?

A
  • size: 1 to 4mm
  • color: brown to blue-gray macules affecting vermilion zone, labial and buccal mucosa and tongue
  • pigmentation
78
Q

What are the characteristics of Peutz - Jegers Syndrome?

A

freckle - like lesions of the hands, perioral skin, and oral mucosa, in conjunction with intestinal polyposis and predisposition to develop cancer (especially: GΙ tract, pancreas, lungs, breast, ovaries, testicles)

79
Q

What are the characteristics of Gorlin and Goltz Syndrome?

A
  • Multiple basal cell carcinoma
  • Odontogenic keratocysts
  • Bifid ribs
  • Frontal bossing
  • Rib anomalies
80
Q

What are the diffuce enlargement of Macroglossia?

a. Amyloidosis
b. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
c. Neuromuscular disorders
d. Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia, type 2B
e. Hypothyroidism
f. Neurofibromatosis

A

e. Hypothyroidism
b. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
c. Neuromuscular disorders

81
Q

What are the multinodular appearance of Macroglossia?

a. Amyloidosis
b. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
c. Neuromuscular disorders
d. Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia, type 2B
e. Hypothyroidism
f. Neurofibromatosis

A

a. Amyloidosis
f. Neurofibromatosis
d. Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia, type 2B

82
Q

Description of Condular Hyperplasia type 1?

A
  • During puberty
  • Condylar and mandibular elongation
  • 2 subtypes (1A and 1B).
  • 1A occurs bilaterally
  • 1B occurs unilaterally
83
Q

What are the clinical features of Fordyce Granules?

A
  • 1 to 3mm multiple yellow or yellow-white papules
  • most common on buccal mucosa and lateral portion of vermilion of upper lip
  • also in retromolar area and anterior tonsillar pillar
  • more common in adults than in children
  • asymptomatic, roughness to the mucosa
  • few lesions/ hundreds of these “granules”
  • hyperplastic and adenomatous
84
Q

What is Progressive hemifacial atrophy (Parry-Romberg Syndrome)?

A

Slowly progressive hemifacial atrophy of the skin, subcutaneous tissue, fat, and, in severe cases, underlying muscle and bone

85
Q

What is the oral involvement of Progressive hemifacial atrophy (Parry-Romberg Syndrome)?

A

affects the tongue, gingiva and soft palate

86
Q

What is the dental involvement of Progressive hemifacial atrophy (Parry-Romberg Syndrome)?

A

includes delayed dental eruption, dental root exposure and resorption

87
Q

What is glandular odontogenic cyst?

A

Rare type of developmental odontogenic cyst

88
Q

What is the size of Glandular odontogenic cyst?

A

from small lesions less than 1 cm to large destructive lesions that may involve most of jaw

89
Q

What are the radiographic features of Glandular odontogenic cyst?

A

unilocular / multilocular radiolucency - well defined margins w/ corticated rim

90
Q

What are the genetic factors involving the clefts?

A
  • Genes that control cell patterning, cell proliferation, extracellular communication, and differentiation
  • Over 30 candidate genes have been identified
  • Genetic overlap between nonsyndromic and syndromic etiologies
91
Q

What are the environmental factors involving the clefts?

A
  • Drugs
  • Cigarette smoking
  • Folate deficiency
  • Maternal obesity
  • Amniotic band sequence
  • Other (viral infection, radiation, significant metabolic perturbation)
92
Q

Description of Clefts?

A
  • 35 days post conception as the lateral nasal, median nasal, and maxillary mesodermal processes merge
  • failure of closure of any one of the 3 normal sites of fusion can produce: unilateral (most common), bilateral (less common), or median (rare) lip clefting.
93
Q

What is the most characteristic lesion of tertiary syphilis?

A

gumma

94
Q

What are the most common extrapulmonary sites in the head and neck for Tuberculosis?

A

cervical lymph nodes

95
Q

What is the most common form of Actinomycosis?

A

Actinomycetes

96
Q

What is the cause of Leishmania?

A

protozoan called Leishmania

97
Q

How is Leishmania trasmitted?

A

b/w hosts by the bite of female sand fly

98
Q

What is the classical stylohyoid syndrome?

A

Found after tonsillectomy or trauma and is characterized by cervical, facial, pain and headache

99
Q

What is the most common cause of Macrognathia?

A

somatotroph (GH-secreting)

adenoma of the anterior pituitary

100
Q

Which is the best recognized form of candidal infection?

A

Pseudo membranous candidiasis

101
Q

Is Denture Stomatitis symptomatic?

A

it is rarely symptomatic

102
Q

What is the treatment of Aspergillosis?

A

-depends on the clinical presentation
-For immunocompetent patients with a noninvasive aspergilloma: surgical
débridement
-For localized invasive aspergillosis in the immunocompetent host, débridement
followed by antifungal medication

103
Q

What is the treatment of Denture Stomatitis?

A

Nystasin
Fluconazole
Itraconazole

Oral Pathology (1 decks)

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