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162.101 Biology of Cells > Exam Revision > Flashcards

Exam Revision Flashcards

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1
Q

What is a hypothesis?

A

An explanation based on observations and assumptions that leads to a testable prediction.

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2
Q

What is deductive reasoning?

A

Reasoning that flows in the opposite direction - predictions of results that will be found if a particular premise is incorrect.

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3
Q

What are polymers?

A

Long chains of covalently joined monomers.

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4
Q

What are nucleic acids?

A

Polymers of nucleotides.

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5
Q

What are proteins?

A

Polymers of amino acids.

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6
Q

What is polymer synthesis?

A

The set of dehydration reactions that removes water and creates a longer polymer.

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7
Q

What is polymer hydrolysis?

A

The set of hydrolysis reactions which adds water and breaks the polymer down.

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8
Q

What is a nucleotide composed of?

A

A sugar, a base and a phosphate group.

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9
Q

Which part of DNA is charged?

A

The phosphate group.

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10
Q

What are the pyrimidines?

A

CUT - Cytosine, Uracil and Thymine.

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11
Q

What are the purines?

A

Adenine and Guanine.

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12
Q

Where is the DNA of a prokaryotic cell found?

A

In the nucleoid.

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13
Q

What is the average cell size of a prokaryotic cell?

A

1um to 0.001mm

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14
Q

What are the three components of the cell theory?

A

All cells arise by division of pre-existing cells.
Cells are the basic unit of life.
All living organisms are composed of cells.

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15
Q

What is protein primary structure?

A

The specific sequence of amino acids.

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16
Q

What is protein secondary structure?

A

The regular coiling or folding which is produced by by hydrogen bonds between NH and CO groups of the polypeptide backbone.

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17
Q

What is protein tertiary structure?

A

The irregular folding pattern which is produced by weak interactions between R groups of the polypeptide.

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18
Q

What is protein quaternary structure?

A

The overall structure of an oligomeric protein.

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19
Q

What is the fluid mosaic model?

A

The fluid mosaic model proposes that proteins are embedded in the phospholipid bilayer in a mosaic or discontinuous fashion.

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20
Q

What are the roles of the endomembrane system?

A

Sorting and directing proteins, metabolic functions and carrying out different chemical reactions.

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21
Q

What is the cell size range for a eukaryotic cell?

A

10-100 um

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22
Q

What is the endosymbiont theory?

A

The theory states that an early ancestor of eukaryotic cells engulfed an oxygen-using non-photosynthetic prokaryotic cell. Eventually the engulfed cell formed a relationship with the host cell and over the course of evolution it evolved into a single cell.

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23
Q

What is the cytoskeleton?

A

A network of fibres extending throughout the cytoplasm.

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24
Q

What is the role of microtubules?

A

Maintenance of cell shape, cell motility, chromosome movement and organelle movement.

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25
Q

What is the role of microfilaments?

A

Contribute to cell shape.

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26
Q

What is the role of intermediate filaments?

A

Contribute to overall cell shape and also are the major component of nuclear lamina.

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27
Q

What is step one of cell signalling?

A

The signal must be detected by binding to a protein receptor.

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28
Q

What is step two of cell signalling?

A

Signal transduction from an activated receptor to another molecule within the cell.

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29
Q

What is the third step of cell signalling?

A

The response itself. Could be converting a specific enzyme from an inactive form to an active form or vice versa.

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30
Q

What enzymes catalyse DNA synthesis?

A

DNA polymerases.

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31
Q

What direction of synthesis does it always go?

A

5’ to 3’

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32
Q

What does DNA helicase do during DNA replication?

A

Separates strands by breaking hydrogen bonds.

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33
Q

What does DNA gyrose do during DNA replication?

A

Removes strains in the DNA molecule by underwinding.

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34
Q

What does DNA primase do during DNA replication?

A

Synthesis short lengths of RNA attached to base pairing to provide an attachment point for DNA polymerase.

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35
Q

What does DNA polymerase do during DNA replication>

A

Removes RNA primer and replaces it with DNA.

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36
Q

What are Okazaki fragments?

A

Short lengths of DNA formed between RNA primers.

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37
Q

What does DNA ligase do during DNA replication?

A

Sets up gaps between fragments.

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38
Q

What are the challenges in replication of DNA?

A

Unwinding the DNA strands, the fact that DNA synthesis needs to be very accurate and the antiparallel nature of DNA strands poses a problem in replication.

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39
Q

What is interphase?

A

Interphase is when the cell is produced, where DNA replication occurs.

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40
Q

What happens during G2?

A

The chromosomes are still uncondensed and cannot be distinguished individually.

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41
Q

What is G1?

A

The first period before DNA replication.

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42
Q

What is the order of the lytic cycle of a bacteriophage?

A

The viral DNA enters the cell, it is then transcribed into mRNA, then translated into protein. When 100 progeny viruses have been assembled, a virus encoded enzyme punctures the cell membrane, ruptures the cell and releases progeny viruses.

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43
Q

How do viruses rapidly evolve?

A

The way viruses reproduce within their host cells makes them particularly susceptible to genetic changes which subsequently drives their rapid evolution.

44
Q

What is a germline mutation?

A

A germline mutation is a mutation which occurs in gametic cells and can be passed onto offspring.

45
Q

What is a somatic mutation?

A

A mutation that occurs within a single body cell and cannot be inherited.

46
Q

What best describes the logic of scientific theory?

A

If my hypothesis is well formulated, I can make predictions which can be tested.

47
Q

If DTTP is added to a culture of rapidly growing bacterial cells, where in the cell would you expect to find the greatest concentration of radioactivity?

A

The nucleoid.

48
Q

What is the difference between DNA and RNA?

A

RNA has a hydroxyl group on the 2’ carbon of the ribose and DNA does not.

49
Q

When biological membranes are frozen and then fractured they tend to break along the middle of the bilayer. Why>

A

The hydrophobic interactions that hold the membrane together are weakest at this point.

50
Q

At which level of protein structure are interactions between the side chains most important?

A

Tertiary.

51
Q

What is a function of a signal peptide?

A

To direct polypeptides into the ER lumen.

52
Q

What is the arrangement of an Okazaki fragment?

A

5’ RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 3’

53
Q

Where does transcription start?

A

At a promoter.

54
Q

What is a description of chromosomes, genes and DNA.

A

A chromosome consists of one double-stranded DNA molecule, which contains discrete units of hereditary information called genes.

55
Q

After the first meiotic division…

A

Each chromosome is still in the two-chromatid state.

56
Q

What are the three primary mechanisms that contribute to horizontal gene transfer in bacteria are?

A

Transformation, transduction and conjugation.

57
Q

Why do RNA viruses have a higher rate of mutation?

A

Because RNA polymerase introduces more errors than DNA polymerase.

58
Q

Bacteria containing recombinant plasmids are often identified by which process?

A

Exposing the bacteria to an antibiotic that kills cells lacking the resistant plasmid.

59
Q

What is the key enzyme used in PCR?

A

DNA polymerase,

60
Q

What kind of sequence occurs in front of a gene and initiates gene transcription?

A

Promoter.

61
Q

What is a silent mutation?

A

A mutation which does not affect the amino acid specified.

62
Q

What is a missense mutation?

A

A mutation that causes an amino acid substitution.

63
Q

What is a nonsense mutation?

A

A mutation that specifies an animo acid into a stop codon.

64
Q

What is an insertion/deletion mutation?

A

A mutation which involves the gain or loss of one or several base-pairs.

65
Q

What is a frameshift mutation?

A

A mutation which causes the reading frame of the mRNA codons to be altered. This occurs if the number of bases is deleted or added is not three or a multiple of three.

66
Q

What is a spontaneous mutation?

A

A mutation that occurs randomly during DNA replication, repair or recombination.

67
Q

What is an induced mutation?

A

A mutation that has been caused by a mutagen such as radiation or chemicals.

68
Q

What is translation?

A

Translation is the synthesis of a polypeptide using the information in the mRNA. The cell must translate the nucleotide sequence of an mRNA molecule into the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide.

69
Q

What is the site of translation?

A

Ribosomes.

70
Q

What is transduction?

A

Transduction is the process of gene transfer between bacteria that is mediated by the action of bacterial viruses.

71
Q

What is polymer synthesis?

A

Polymer synthesis in the cell is a set of dehydration reactions which removes water and creates a longer polymer.

72
Q

What is polymer hydrolysis?

A

Polymer hydrolysis in the cell is a set of hydrolysis reactions which adds water and breaks the polymer down into monomers.

73
Q

How are the chromosomes when the cell is in the interphase stage?

A

The chromosomes are quite uncondensed and the genes are accessible for the processes of gene expression and the interphase cell is active in protein synthesis, respiration etc.

74
Q

What are the stages of mitosis?

A

Prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase then cytokinesis.

75
Q

What is prophase?

A

A preparatory stage when the chromosomes uncondense so they can be moved without becoming tangled.

76
Q

What is prometaphase?

A

Prometaphase is the stage when the nuclear envelope breaks down.

77
Q

What is metaphase?

A

Metaphase is where the microtubules have moved the chromosomes so that they are aligned at the midpoint of the spindle apparatus.

78
Q

What is anaphase?

A

Anaphase is where the sister chromatids are pulled apart.

79
Q

What is telophase?

A

Telophase is where the preparatory events of prophase are undone.

80
Q

What is cytokinesis?

A

Cytokinesis is the process by which the cell divides to place the separated sets of chromosomes into two individual daughter cells.

81
Q

What happens in prophase 1 (meiotic division)?

A

During Prophase 1 crossing over or recombination of non-sister chromatids occur.

82
Q

What happens in metaphase 1 (meiotic division)?

A

Homologous pairs of chromosomes line up.

83
Q

What happens in anaphase 1 (meiotic division)?

A

The two members of the pairs of homologous chromosomes are separated, this is called segregation.

84
Q

And the end of meiotic division what are the two cells called?

A

Haploid.

85
Q

What are the details about the second meiotic division?

A

There is no DNA replication between the two divisions.
The second meiotic division is similar to mitotic division.
During Anaphase 2 the sister chromatids are separated from each other.

86
Q

What is the final outcome of meiosis?

A

Four, haploid nuclei.

87
Q

How does meiosis produce genetic variation?

A

Meiosis creates genetic variability by producing new combinations of alleles in gametes. This occurs through independent assortment and recombination. Random fertilisation provides a third mechanism.

88
Q

What are the female chromosomes?

A

XX.

89
Q

What are the male chromosomes?

A

XY.

90
Q

How would you tell if a cell was eukaryotic or prokaryotic?

A

Whether or not the cell was partitioned by internal cell membranes.

91
Q

Why is the electron microscope useful in studying bacteria?

A

Because bacteria are so small.

92
Q

Why do biological macromolecules have specific conformations?

A

Because weak interactions bring different parts of the molecule together.

93
Q

Why can humans digest starch but not digest cellulose?

A

Because humans have enzymes that can hydrolyse the alpha glucoside linkages of starch but not the beta glycoside linkages of cellulose.

94
Q

What observations give support to the endosymbiont theory?

A

The similarity in size between the cytosolic ribosomes of prokaryotes and the ribosomes within mitochondria and chloroplasts.

95
Q

What organelles are in abundance in the liver to detoxify poisons and drugs?

A

Smooth ER.

96
Q

The nucleus of a human somatic body cell contains..

A

Four copies of every gene.

97
Q

What best describes the genetic code?

A

The set of rules defining how nucleotide triples specify amino acids.

98
Q

What are the three stages of PCR?

A

Denaturation
Extension
Annealing

99
Q

What does a frequency of recombination of 50% indicate?

A

That two genes are likely to be located on different chromosomes.

100
Q

Two ways that eukaryotic cells can regulate transcription are?

A

DNA methylation and histone acetylation.

101
Q

The ability of genes from one species to be expressed in a different species is possible because of which property of the genetic code?

A

The near universality.

102
Q

Most of the human genome is made up of?

A

Repetitive DNA

103
Q

Three differences between RNA and DNA

A

DNA is double stranded, RNA is single stranded.
RNA has a ribose sugar, DNA has a deoxyribose.
RNA has uracil and DNA has thymine.

104
Q

What are the three major steps in processing eukaryotic m-RNA transcripts?

A

5’ capping
Polyadenylation
Splicing

105
Q

Why are lipids not polymers

A

Because the monomers are not covalently bonded

106
Q

What is an example of beneficial bacteria and pathogenic bacteria?

A

E.Coli adds digestion.

Salmonella causes food borne illness.

162.101 Biology of Cells (1 decks)

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