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exam revision Flashcards

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1
Q

what is eustress with an example

A

a positive psychological response to a stressor, characterised by positive psychological states, that helps the body perform at an optimal level. for example, the thrill you experience when watching a horror movie

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2
Q

what is distress with an example

A

a negative psychological response to a stressor, characterised by negative psychological states, that impedes optimal performance. for example, the death of a loved one

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3
Q

what are daily pressures? with eg

A

frequently experienced stressors consisting of relatively minor events that require adjustments in behaviour. or example, missing the bus

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4
Q

what are life events? with eg

A

stressors that consist of significant but relatively rare events that require substantial adjustments in behaviour within a relatively short time. for example, wedding or family death

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5
Q

what is acculturative stress? with eg

A

stressed caused by attempting to psychologically and socially adapt to the demands and values of a foreign culture. for example, relocating to a new country

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6
Q

what are major catastrophes? with eg

A

a sudden, unpredictable, uncontrollable, intense event that causes large scale damage and suffering for a group. for example, a war

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7
Q

why are the symptoms of PTSD

A
  • reoccurring vivid flashbacks and/or nightmares about event
  • avoiding reminders of the event
  • feeling detached from others
  • negative thought pattern
  • increased anger
  • disruption to sleep
  • prolonged autonomic arousal
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8
Q

what is chronic stress?

A

a state if prolonged physiological arousal in response to a persistent stressor that negatively affects health and well being

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9
Q

what is acute stress?

A

a state of brief but intense physiological arousal in response to an immediate perceived stressor that normally has no negative effects on health and well being

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10
Q

what is stress?

A

a state of mental or physical tension that occurs when an individual must adjust or adapt to their environment but they do not feel they have the capacity to do so

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11
Q

what is a stressor?

A

the object or event that causes a feeling of stress

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12
Q

what is selves GAS model

A

a biological process

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13
Q

what happens in the alarm reaction (shock) stage

A

the resistance to stress is below normal, the body acts as though its injured as blood pressure and body temperature drop

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14
Q

what happens in the alarm reaction (counter shock) stage

A

the resistance to stress is above normal, the sympathetic NS is activated as well as the FFF response and adrenalin is released

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15
Q

what happens in the resistance stage

A

the resistance to stress is above normal, cortisol is released and all unnecessary functions are shut down, individual appears as if all is normal

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16
Q

what happens in the exhaustion stage

A

the resistance to stress is below normal, resources are depleted, the immune system is left weakened and prolonged release of adrenalin has negative effects on the body, the individual is susceptible to illness & disease

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17
Q

what is cortisol?

A

Cortisol is a steroid hormone that is produced by the adrenal glands (above kidneys) and it is directly secreted into the bloodstream for quick tranposrtation throughout the body

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18
Q

what is the function of cortisol?

A

Cortisol can help control blood sugar levels, regulate metabolism, help reduce inflammation, and assist with memory formulation

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19
Q

what is the role of cortisol in the stress response

A

cortisol energises the body by increasing availability of blood glucose and enhanced metabolism and is controlled by the HPA axis

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20
Q

strengths of gas model

A
  • it measures a predictable pattern that can be measured in individisuals
  • tracks biological patterns in different types of stress
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21
Q

limitations of gas model

A
  • research wasn’t conducted on humans

- does not account for individual differences and psychological factors

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22
Q

differences between primary and secondary appraisals

A

the primary appraisal focuses on whether the stressor will have a positive or negative effect on us or if it is relevant or not. the secondary appraisal is to figure out what resources are available to cope with the stressor

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23
Q

different between problem and emotion focused coping

A

problem focused strategies directly target the stressor and aim to reduce it, whereas emotion focused strategies aim to manage the emotional distress caused by a stressor by changing the unpleasant emotions associated with it

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24
Q

strengths of transactional model

A
  • human subjects
  • accounted for both mental processes and emotions
  • acknowledged that its a personal/individual/subjective model
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25
Q

imitations of transactional model

A
  • initial appraisal may not be clear cut
  • difficult to test experimentally
  • less emphasis on physiological elements
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26
Q

what happens with too much cortisol

A

causes a biochemical imbalance and hormone imbalance that can cause blood sugar imbalances and higher blood pressure, increased weight

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27
Q

what is coping

A

all the things we do to manage and reduce stress

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28
Q

what is coping strategy

A

behavioural or psychological responses a person uses to manage or reduce a stressor

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29
Q

what is context specific effectiveness

A

whether there is a match or good fit between coping strategy that is used and stressful situation

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30
Q

what is coping flexibility

A

individuals ability to effectively modify or adjust ones coping strategy according to demand of situation. high - readily adaptable
low - rely on same strategy

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31
Q

physical benefits of exercise

A
  • increases energy levels
  • strengthens your immune system
  • lowers risk of disease
  • maintains healthy heart rate, blood pressure and core temperature threshold
  • relaxes tense muscles and tissues to reduce pains
  • promotes release of serotonin and endorphins
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32
Q

psychological benefits of exercise

A
  • reduces mental fatigue
  • improves alertness and concentration
  • reduces stress related anxiety
  • promotes a positive modd because of increased levels of seratonin and endorphins
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33
Q

what are approach strategies

A

effort to confront stressor and deal with it directly
- activity focused towards stressor, causes and solutions that address underlying issues and minimise impact of stressor eg. plan of action, seeking info, alertness

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34
Q

what are avoidant strategies

A

effort to evade stressor and deal indirectly with its effects
- activity focused away from stressor, no attempt to actively confront stressor/causes eg. ignore it, change subject, use of alcohol or drugs

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35
Q

what is neural plasticity

A

the ability of the brain’s neural structure or function to be changed in response to the environment, influenced by genetic and environmental factors

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36
Q

what is synaptogenisis

A

the process by which synapses are forms between neurons, this occurs throughout life but most rapidly during infancy up to 2 years.

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37
Q

what is learning

A

a relatively permanent change in behaviour due t experience

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38
Q

what is memory

A

the process of encoding, storage and retrieval of information

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39
Q

in what ways can neural plasticity occur?

A
  • producing growth of new syntactic connections
  • pruning away existing (unused) synaptic connections
  • modifying the strength or effectiveness of synaptic transmission
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40
Q

what is long term potentiation

A

long lasting strengthening of synaptic connections resulting in enhanced or more effective synaptic transmission.

  • more vesicles, neurotransmitters and receptor sites
  • increased communication
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41
Q

what is long term depression

A

long lasting decrease in the strength of synaptic transmission, resulting from lack of stimulation

  • less vesicles, neurotransmitters and receptor sites
  • decreased communications
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42
Q

neurotransmitters

A
  • chemical substance that is released at the synapse to interact between pre and post synapse neuron
  • only function as a neurotransmitter
  • can dampen or enhance a response
  • released quickly and travel short distances
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43
Q

neurohormones

A
  • a chemical substance that is released by a neuron and is secreted into circulation
  • can function as a hormone or a neurotransmitter
  • can dampen or enhance a response
  • slower release and travel longer distances
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44
Q

similarities between neurohormones and neurotransmitters

A
  • chemical messengers

- can enhance or inhibit a response

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45
Q

what is the role of glutamate in memory and learning

A
  • main excitatory neurotransmitter for learning and memory
  • promotes growth and strengthening of synaptic connections between neurons
  • vital role in LTP and LTD: the more glutamate can excite the post synaptic neuron the more it contributes to LTP(&vice versa)
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46
Q

what is the role of adrenalin in memory and learning

A
  • can enhance the encoding process of log term memories of emotionally arousing experiences
  • affects memory by activating the amygdala for a fear response. tends to enhance our memory retention and consolidation
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47
Q

what is consolidation

A

the process of making a newly formed memory stable and enduring after learning

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48
Q

what is operant conditioning

A

a type of learning in which behaviour becomes controlled by its consequences. it is a voluntary behaviour

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49
Q

3 phase model of OC

A

A- antecedent (discriminative stimulus)–Stimulus conditions that exist in the environment prior to response
B- behaviour–Response or voluntary behaviour of the organism
C- Consequence–Consequence that is applied to the response

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50
Q

what are reinforcers

A

any stimulus that strengthens or increases a response
Positive reinforcement - a reward which strengthens a response by providing a pleasant consequence eg. a star on a chart
Negative reinforcement - the removal, reduction or prevention of an unpleasant stimulus eg taking a panadol for headache, if it works you’ll take it again

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51
Q

what are punishers

A

any stimulus that weakens decreases the likelihood of a. response
Punishment - a behaviour followed by a negative experience eg detention
Response Cost - a form of punishment that entails something pleasurable being removed eg phone taken away

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52
Q

what is classical conditioning

A

a form of learning where two normally unrelated stimuli are repeatedly linked so that existing reflex responses are elicited by new stimuli; also known as respondent conditioning

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53
Q

what is the neutral stimulus (NS)

A

a stimulus that does not naturally elicit any specific response eg bell

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54
Q

what is the unconditioned stimulus (UCS)

A

a specific stimulus that is innately capable of eliciting a reflex response eg food

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55
Q

what is the unconditioned response (UCR)

A

the natural, automatic response to a specific unconditioned stimulus eg salivation

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56
Q

what is conditioned stimulus (CS)

A

a stimulus that evokes a specific response due to learning eg bell

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57
Q

what is the conditioned response (CR)

A

a reflex response to a previously neutral stimulus that occurs after learning has taken place eg salivation

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58
Q

phases of classical conditioning

A

phase 1 – before conditioning (before learning)
phase 2 – during conditioning (During learning) known as acquisition; the learning itself, gaining of knowledge
phase 3 – after conditioning (after learning)

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59
Q

limitations of punishment

A
  • doesn’t teach whats right, only whats wrong
  • it could be too harsh or too soft
  • might not be the right timing
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60
Q

what is observational learning

A

when learning occurs by watching others and noting the consequences of their actions, then imitating or not imitating their behaviour

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61
Q

steps in observational learning (ARRMR)

A

All Rude Rats Make raspberries

  • Attention - focus on distinctive features of model’s behaviour.
  • Retention – need to be able to remember model’s behaviour
  • Reproduction – must be capable of imitating behaviour
  • motivation – needs to be an incentive in imitating behaviour
  • reinforcement – must be some reward for modelling behaviour (internal satisfaction, vicarious reinforcement or external reinforcement)
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62
Q

comparing classical and operant conditioning

A

classical is passive, operant is active
classical involves the stimulus then a response, operant is response then stimulus
classical is a reflex so is involuntary, operant is voluntary
classical involves autonomic NS, operant involves somatic NS
classical can substitute one stimuli for another, operant cannot

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63
Q

similarities of classical and operant conditioning

A

both learning models

both 3 stage models

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64
Q

stimulus generalisation in classical conditioning

A

when stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus produce the conditioned response

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65
Q

stimulus discrimination in classical conditioning

A

the ability to discriminate between stimuli so that only a specific stimulus produces the conditioned response

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66
Q

extinction in classical conditioning

A

gradual decrease in strength or frequency of a CR when the UCS is no longer available

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67
Q

spontaneous recovery in classical conditioning

A

the reappearance of a CR to the CS after a period of apparent extinction

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68
Q

operant stimulus generalisation

A

the tendency to respond to stimuli similar to stimuli that precede operant reinforcement

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69
Q

operant stimulus discrimination

A

the ability to differentiate between similar stimuli to the stimuli that signal reinforcement and non reinforcement

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70
Q

operant extinction

A

when the learnt response gradually decreases in strength or rate of response after reinforcement stops

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71
Q

operant spontaneous recovery

A

reappearance of a previously reinforced response after a period of operant extinction

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72
Q

acquisition difference for CC and OC

A

CC - Association of two stimuli NS and UCS.

OC - Association of response with a consequence.

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73
Q

ethical considerations breach in little Albert

A

informed consent - alberts mother claims she was not told of what the experiment would entail so there was not adequate permission given
confidentiality- Watson published the results of the experience, Albert wasn’t remained anonymous
experience trauma- Albert suffered emotionally after the experiment
debrief- Albert and his mother were not told of the conditioning experiment and what they were actually doing while he was conditioned

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74
Q

what are the four p’s

A
  • predisposing
  • precipitating
  • perpetuating
  • protective
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75
Q

what are predisposing factors

A
  • factors that increase vulnerability to developing mental health problems eg. inherited traits, exposure at birth, neglect, illness
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76
Q

what are precipitating factors

A

factors that trigger the onset or exacerbation of mental health problems eg. poor sleep, losing job, loss of relationship, substance use

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77
Q

what are perpetuating factors

A

factors that inhibit recovering from mental health problems eg. poor health, no social support, social isolation, substance use, rumination, unemployment

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78
Q

what are protective factors

A

the factors that prevent the occurrence or reoccurrence of mental health problems eg. good health/sleep/exercise, hormonal balance, resilience, resources and strong social support

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79
Q

biological factors approach to mental health

A
  • genetic vulnerability
  • poor response to medication due to genetic factors
  • poor sleep
  • substance use
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80
Q

psychological factors

approach to mental health

A
  • impaired reasoning and memory
  • stress
  • poor self efficacy
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81
Q

social risk factors

approach to mental health

A
  • disorganised attachment
  • loss of a significant relationship
  • stigma
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82
Q

what is cumulative risk

A

multiple risk factors interacting together to precipitate a mental disorder

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83
Q

what is a high level of functioning

characteristics of a mentally healthy person

A
  • being able to interact and involve oneself in society and to undertake everyday tasks such as personal hygiene, work or eating
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84
Q

what is social and emotional wellbeing

characteristics of a mentally healthy person

A
  • social well-being is a sense of belonging to a community, this can involve having a job or being a member in a sporting team
  • emotional wellbeing is the experience of positive relationships such as happiness
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85
Q

the most important ethical considerations on mental health research

A
  • informed consent - as mentally unhealthy people are more vulnerable it is required to gain their consent so they fully agree to the experiment
  • placebos -
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86
Q

what is stress

A
  • subjective
  • psychological and physiological response to a stressor
  • chronic and acute
  • helps to avoid danger with the activation of FFF and perform optimally
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87
Q

what is anxiety

A
  • normal emotion
  • feelings of apprehension, uneasiness and dread
  • ambiguous or unclear threat
  • affects daily functioning, ongoing, persistent, out of proportion to the event = disorder
  • most common disorder, 1 in 6 ppl
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88
Q

what is a phobia

A
  • 3% of Australians experience
  • intense, persistent, irrational fear of a particular object or event
  • interrupts daily functioning
  • has to be present for 6 months to be diagnosed
  • 4 types: animal, situational, blood/injection, natural environment
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89
Q

continuum for phobia

A

healthy - reacting - injured - disorder

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90
Q

biological factors

development of specific phobia

A
  • > GABA dysfunction - inhibitory role so post synaptic neuron less likely to fire. GABA regulates arousal, anxiety and sleep so if it is low it can mean high levels of anxiety
  • > stress response - activated by a perceived threat or impending harm at the sight of a phobic stimulus, role shouldn’t be considered in isolation of other factors
  • > LTP - amygdala plays a role in initiating and processing emotional responses such as fear, the hippocampus is responsible for the formation of declarative memories. the fear stimulus will strengthen memory circuit via amygdala producing fear responses
  • the development of phobias are influenced by learning and experienced
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91
Q

psychological factors

developing a phobia

A

-> behavioural model - classical conditioning - the consistent pairing of a neutral stimulus with an unpleasant stimulus will cause a phobic responses. Operant conditioning - likelihood of the behaviour repeating is determined by the consequence of the behaviour
-> cognitive models - cognitive bias - error in thinking when interpreting information can lead to inaccurate judgement .
memory bias - error in thinking that can enhance or impair memory
catastrophic thinking - overestimating the potential dangers of an object or event assuming the worst

92
Q

social factors

developing a specific phobia

A

-> specific environment triggers - social learning theory - behaviour is learnt from the environment through observational learning
modelling - learning by observing other peoples behaviour and the consequences
-> stigma - the social disapproval can make it hard for people to empathise with those who have a phobia which can make them feel shameful and stop them from seeking treatment in fear a negative reaction

93
Q

evidence based treatments

biological interventions

A
  • > benzodiazepine medication - short term treatment that enhances GABA induced inhibition of overexcited neurotransmitters. by stimulating the GABA activity they reduce the physiological arousal
  • > breathing retraining - identifies incorrect breathing habits and replaces them with correct ones. this involves learning to breath through the diaphragm rather than chest
  • > exercise - burns up stress chemicals of cortisol and adrenalin to relax people
94
Q

evidence based treatments

psychological interventions

A
  • > psychotherapy - any technique used to facilitate positive changes in personality, behaviour or adjustment \
  • > CBT (type of psychotherapy) - helps to change unhealthy and unwanted thoughts, feelings and behaviours and replaces them with realistic thoughts
  • > systematic desensitisation - exposure to the fear producing stimulus very slowly, by degrees, under relaxed conditions until the fear response is extinguished, relies on reciprocal inhibition that one emotion is used to block another
95
Q

evidence based treatments

social interventions

A
  • > psychoeducation - education about mental illness provided to sufferer, families and supporters this aims to help people understand the illness so they can develop strategies to cope
  • > challenging unrealistic or anxious thoughts - families and friends can help the phobic person change their unhealthy thoughts by making them consider if it is realistic and the probability fit actually happening
  • > not encouraging avoidance behaviour - avoiding phobic stimulus creates negative reinforcement because they avoid the unpleasant fear symptoms associated with it which becomes a reward and increases the avoidance behaviour
96
Q

resilience

maintenance of mental health -

A

using skills and strengths to cope which helps to adapt tot the stressor

97
Q

biological factors

maintenance of mental health

A
  • > diet - adequate diet increases the healthy emotional impact and can help promote good mental health to provide sufficient energy, nutrients etc
  • > adequate sleep - getting enough slept function optimally can promote good mental health
98
Q

psychological factors

maintenance of mental health

A

-> cognitive behavioural strategies - recognises that a persons way of thinking and acting affects the way they feel. this can include educating patients, helping patients recognise unhealthy thoughts, identifying avoided situations, teaching relaxation techniques and establishing routines

99
Q

social factors

maintenance of mental health -

A

-> support from friends and family acts as a cushion to support the impact of stressful events

100
Q

transtheoretical model

models for behavioural change

A
  • > individuals trying to change behaviour move through stages
    1. pre contemplation- not considering change in near future
    2. contemplation-intend to change in 6 months
    3. preparation - start taking action within 30 days
    4. action- made behavioural change within last 6 months
    5. maintenance - sustained bahvioural change for 6 month
101
Q

limitations and strengths of transtheoretical model

A

strengths - enabled more effective intervention to suit a persons stage readiness for change
limitations - focuses on one behaviour, doesn’t address biopsychosocial issues related to behaviour change

102
Q

decisional balance and self efficacy

models for behaviour change

A
  • > decisional balance - weighs the pros and cons of decision making and the pros should outweigh the cons
  • > self efficacy - peoples beliefs in their capabilities to produce desired effects by their own actions
103
Q

nervous system

A

a network of neurons that coordinate actions and transmit signals between different parts of the body, it consists of 2 divisions; Central NS & peripheral NS.

104
Q

brain

A

responsible for memory, attention, concentration, language, spatial skills

105
Q

spinal cord

A

3 major functions;

  1. transmits sensory information from PNS to brain
  2. transmits motor information from brain to PNS enabling movement
  3. reflex arc
106
Q

sensory neurons

A

aka afferent neurons, send sensory info (from environment) from sense organs (skin receptors, eyes, ears etc) to the brain via the spinal cord (central NS) for further processing

107
Q

motor neurons

A

aka efferent neurons, sends motor info (originating in primary motor cortex) via spinal cord to skeletal muscles in PNS enabling voluntary movement.

108
Q

interneurons

A

can only be found in the CNS; they integrate information with other neurons ie. sensory and motor

109
Q

dendrites

A

are the branched projections of neurons that receive input from other neurons

110
Q

synapse

A

a junction that permits a neutron to pass on a chemical signal to another cell

111
Q

neurotransmitters

A

chemicals which allow transmission of signals from 1 neutron to another

112
Q

soma

A

the cell body which contains most of the cells genetic material

113
Q

axon

A

a long projection of a neutron that conducts electrical impulses away from the soma

114
Q

PNS

A

contains all the neurons outside the CNS

115
Q

CNS

A

division of the NS which processes and interprets incoming information, stores memories, sends out neural information that initiates actions; made up of brain and spinal cord

116
Q

somatic NS

A

a division of the PNS, responsible for voluntary movement & transmission of sensory information to CNS

117
Q

autonomic NS

A

division of PNS which connects CNS to visceral muscles, which keeps vital organs going with conscious thought

118
Q

visceral muscles

A

muscles that regulate the internal organs (without conscious thought) eg. heart, lungs

119
Q

skeletal muscles

A

muscles attached to bones, which require a command from the brain (motor cortex) to move

120
Q

sympathetic NS

A

a division of the autonomic NS which prepares the body for action, by increasing the body physiological arousal when the organism is under threat

121
Q

parasympathetic NS

A

a division of the PNS which counterbalances the effects of the sympathetic NS and maintains an optimum level of functioning during low stress times

122
Q

homeostasis

A

a steady internal body environment, that is maintained by the parasympathetic NS during low stress times

123
Q

myelin

A

a white fatty substance that protects the axon and enhances the transmission of the electrical impulse

124
Q

neurons

A

the core components of the NS

125
Q

receptors

A

the structures on the dendrites neurons that recognise and bind specific neurotransmitters

126
Q

neurohormone

A

similar to a neurotransmitter but it can be released into the bloodstream or in the brain via a presynaptic neuron

127
Q

glutamate

A

the most abundant excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS. it plays a key role in learning (LTP), memory, thinking and movement

128
Q

GABA

A

the most abundant inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS. it regulates arousal, by counteracting the effects of glutamate

129
Q

dopamine

A

a neurotransmitter that plays a key role in pleasure, reinforcement, movement, dependancy

130
Q

inhibitory neurotransmitters

A

when these types of neurotransmitters bind with postsynaptic neurons, they Arte less likely to fire an action potential

131
Q

excitatory neurotransmitters

A

when these types of neurotransmitters bind with postsynaptic neurons, they are more likely to fire an action potential

132
Q

presynaptic

A

the sending neuron

133
Q

postsynaptic

A

the receiving neuron

134
Q

vesicles

A

storage sites of neurotransmitters that can be found in axon terminals

135
Q

define consciousness

A

our awareness of internal and external environments at any given moment in time. consciousness can be described as being personal, selective, changing and continuous.

136
Q

what is meant by the consciousness continuum

A
  • this is a range from complete lack of awareness (unconscious) to total awareness (focused attention). at the high end of the spectrum your attention os focused and selective, you are able to focus on important tasks and ignore others. at the other end of the spectrum, you may be unaware of thoughts, feelings and sensations
137
Q

why is it consciousness considered a psychological construct

A
  • because it cannot be directly measured just by observing subjects
  • it is something that were believe to exist because we can measure its effects, however we can’t directly measure or observe it itself
138
Q

what is subjective data

A
  • data collected through personal observations and are based on opinions/interpretations
  • cannot be scientifically measured
    eg. researchers may make assumptions about a participants level of awareness of the things going on around them
139
Q

what is objective data

A
  • measurements of data collected under controlled conditions and can be measured scientifically
  • this removes any bias and represents a more accurate method of collection
    eg. data collected from a sleep lab
140
Q

what is normal waking consciousness (NWC)

A
  • a state of consciousness characterised by clear and organised alertness to internal and external stimuli. this state of consciousness is at the high end of the spectrum.
    characteristics:
  • high level of awareness, good memory, focused attention, accurate perception of reality
141
Q

what is an altered state of consciousness (ASC)

A
  • a state of consciousness that is characteristically different from normal waking consciousness in terms of attention, sensation and perception
    characteristics:
  • low levels of awareness, memory difficulty, lack of self control etc
142
Q

what is a naturally occurring ASC

A
  • an ASC that is produced spontaneously without any conscious effort or decision making
    eg. sleep, day dreaming and psychosis
143
Q

what is an induced ASC

A
  • an ASC that is intentionally produced

eg. being under the influence of drugs or alcohol. hypnotised or anaesthetised

144
Q

what is divided attention?

A
  • the ability to attend to two different stimuli at the same time
  • the quality of the way these tasks are completed are decreased and have poor results
145
Q

what is selective attention

A
  • focusing on a particular stimuli while simultaneously ignoring other stimuli
  • this is focused attention and is when you have total awareness, found at the top of the spectrum
146
Q

what is divided attention?

A

when an individual simultaneously focuses 2 or more stimuli, or undertakes 2 or more tasks

147
Q

what is selective attention

A

attending to a particular stimulus while ignoring others, requiring a high level of awareness

148
Q

what is an electroencephalograph (EEG)

- physiological measure

A
  • detects, amplifies and records electrical activity of the brain, measured in the form of brainwaves
  • this shows the frequency and amplitude of brainwave activity
149
Q

what is an electrooculography (EOG)

- physiological measure

A
  • detects, amplifies and records the electrical activity of the muscles surrounding the eyes as they move and rotate in their sockets
  • informed recorded through electrodes that’re attached to the skin around the eyes
  • this determines whether someone os awake or asleep and what stage of sleep they’re in
150
Q

what is an electromyograph (EMG)

- physiological measure

A
  • detects, amplifies and records the electrical activity created by active, skeletal muscles on a continuously moving chart paper
  • records the degree of tension or relaxation in the muscles
  • electrodes are attached to the skin surface of the chin, arms and legs
151
Q

other techniques to measure consciousness

A
  • psychometric vigilance test (PVT)
  • self report
  • sleep diary
  • video monitoring
152
Q

what is a psychometric vigilance test

A
  • a test used to measure behavioural alertness, where the participants respond to a visual stimulus and their speed and accuracy of the task are measured
153
Q

what is a self report

A
  • involves an individual keeping a record of they own subjective experiences (thoughts, feelings and behaviours)
154
Q

what is a sleep diary

A
  • a log of subjective behavioural and psychological experiences surrounding a persons sleep
155
Q

what is video monitoring

A
  • video taping a person while they are sleeping to record and then analyse any observable disturbances in their sleep
156
Q

what are stimulants

A
  • a group fo drugs that elevate mood, increase alertness and reduce fatigue by exciting neural activity in the brain, which increases bodily functions
    eg. caffeine, nicotine, cocaine, amphetamine
157
Q

effect of stimulants on brainwaves

A
  • associated with higher levels of beta brainwaves and sometimes an increase in alpha brainwaves
158
Q

what are depressants

A
  • a group of drugs that calm neural activity and slow down bodily functions
    eg. alcohol, opioids and cannabis
159
Q

effect of depressants on brainwaves

A
  • associated with the onset of alpha, theta and brainwaves
160
Q

explain beta brainwaves

A
  • associated with NWC and are most present during the day when we are awake
  • low amplitude and high frequency
161
Q

explain alpha brainwaves

A
  • associated with a more relaxed and calm state. can be present while relaxing, in an ASC such as daydreaming
  • low-medium amplitude and medium-high frequency
162
Q

explain theta brainwaves

A
  • associated with deep relaxation, such as meditation practises and also in early/light stages of sleep
  • medium-high amplitude and medium-low frequency
163
Q

explain delta brainwaves

A
  • associated with deep stages of sleep (NREM 3 & 4) that helps restore and rejuvenate body and mind
  • high amplitude and low frequency
164
Q

effects of sleep deprivation on mood

A
  • irritable
  • short tempered
  • impatient
  • positive mood decreases and negative mood increases
165
Q

effects of sleep deprivation on cognition

A
  • unable to make decisions that are logical and consistent
  • unable to solve problems
  • impaired memory
  • dampens frontal lobe activity
  • difficulty processing declarative memories
166
Q

effects of sleep deprivation on concentration

A
  • generally deteriorates
  • simple and routine tasks are more difficult
  • problems with attention and accuracy
167
Q

physiological effects of sleep deprivation

A
  • trembling hands
  • dropping eyelids
  • fatigue
  • slurred speech
  • lack of energy
  • increased pain sensitivity
  • headaches
168
Q

effects of BAC concentration 0.05

A
  • impaired memory ability, difficulty to problem solve
  • decline in concentration
  • intensified mood and emotions
169
Q

comparing bAC with sleep deprivation

A
  • going without sleep for 17-19 hours is = to a BAC of 0.05

- 24-38 hours of sleep deprivation = BAC of 0.10

170
Q

what is NREM sleep

A
  • a type of sleep that is broken into 3 stages, where the sleeper falls into a deeper and deeper sleep as the stages progress; characterised by relaxation of the muscles, slowing down of physiological functions and brainwaves that decrease in frequency and increase in amplitude
171
Q

what is REM sleep

A
  • a type of sleep characterised by brainwaves with high frequency and low amplitude; the muscles of the body are in a state of paralysis and dreams maybe experienced
172
Q

stage 1 NREM

A
  • NS begins to slow, heart rate slows and breathing becomes irregular
  • lasts several minutes
  • slow, rolling eye movements
  • light sleep, marked by alpha waves & theta waves appear
  • characterised by a hypnic jerk (muscle contraction)
173
Q

stage 2 NREM

A
  • body temperature drops, heart/respiratory rate slow
  • solid type of sleep but still receptive of external stimuli
  • high theta wave activity
  • sleep spindles (short burst of high frequency) and k complex’s (large burst of high amplitude waves) are shown
  • lasts 20-30 mins
174
Q

stage 3 NREM

A
  • physiological responses begin to steady
  • theta waves continue to appear, delta waves also appear
  • slow wave sleep has begun
  • lasts 3-10 minutes and is quite deep
175
Q

stage 4 NREM

A
  • deep sleep is reached
  • waves are almost pure delta
  • lasta approx 20-30 minutes but decreases as the night progresses
  • appearance of sleep walking or bed wetting
176
Q

REM sleep

A
  • rapid eye movements
  • brain is active and 80% of dreams occur
  • beta-like waves
  • quite a deep sleep
  • referred to as ‘paradoxical sleep’
  • heart beats faster, breathing rapid and irregular, genitals become aroused
  • muscles in a state of atone (paralysis)
  • needed for consolidating information and replenishing the mind
177
Q

what are circadian rhythms

A
  • regular automatic physiological changes that occur during a 24 hour cycle to regulate bodily processes
  • controlled by internal biological processes such as the body temperature cycle
  • also influenced by external cues such as light
  • dominant cycle is the sleep wake cycle and is largely controlled by our internal body clock found in the hypothalamus known as the suprachiasmatic nucleus
178
Q

what is the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)

A
  • a cluster of 20 000 nerve cells found deep within the brain located above the optic chiasm.
  • SCN receives information from the optic nerve about light.
  • triggers the pineal gland to release a hormone known as melatonin
  • controls body functions associated with sleep eg, body temperature, urine production and blood pressure
179
Q

what is rem behavioural disorder

A
  • a lack of muscle paralysis in REM sleep
180
Q

what are ultradian rhythm

A
  • a biological rhythm that follows a cycle of less than 24 hours, such as eye blinks, heartbeats and sleep patterns
  • they are affected by internal body clock through the release of hormones
  • external factors such as light, noise and other environmental stimuli
181
Q

what is the restoration theory?

A
  • suggests that sleep is vital for replenishing and revitalising the physiological and psychological resources depleted by our waking activities
  • prepares the body for action the next day
  • explains why sleep is important
    REm replenishes mind, NREM replenishes body
182
Q

support for restoration theory

A
  • marathon runners spend more time in NREM sleep
  • sleep activates growth and increases Immunity
  • increases alertness and enhances mood
  • cognitive decline occurs with sleep deprivation
183
Q

criticism for restoration theory

A
  • assume we need more sleep when active but those who do little exercise also have similar sleep need eg. disabled
  • assume the body rests during sleep but the brain is active. REM sleep causes an increase blood flow and energy expenditure
184
Q

what is the evolutionary theory

A
  • sleep isn an evolutionary response that adapts based on the demands of how much food we need, our energy requirements and our safety when we sleep
  • sleep increases an animals chance of survival
  • evolved around the circadian days of animals
185
Q

support for evolutionary theory

A
  • animals such as cows graze, they therefore get little sleep because they need more time to find and consume food
  • animals vulnerable to predators sleep more because they are inactive and hide safely
  • sleep conserves energy
186
Q

criticism for evolutionary theory

A
  • it doesn’t explain why we need sleep
  • animals could be vulnerable while asleep
  • small animals should stay awake rather than sleep to be alert under attack
187
Q

sleep in newborns and infants

A
  • newborns sleep for 16 hours a day approximately, 50% in REM and 50% in NREM
  • end of infancy they sleep 12-13 hours
  • this supports restorative theory because they need more REM sleep to replenish their mind from learning all day
188
Q

sleep in children

A
  • on average, children sleep 10-11 hours of sleep, 20-25% of this is in REM and 75-80% in NREM
189
Q

sleep in adolescents

A
  • sleep approximately 9 hours with 20% in REM and 80% in NREM
190
Q

sleep in adults

A
  • 7-8 hours of sleep a night

- 20% in REM and 80% in NREM

191
Q

sleep in elderly

A
  • 6 hours of sleep on average in a day

- 15-20% in REM and 80-85% in NREM

192
Q

what is a sleep disorder

A
  • a condition that consistently disrupts the normal NREM-REM sleep cycle
193
Q

what is a circadian phase disorder

A

-a sleep disorder that disturbs a person’s ability to sleep and wake for the periods of time necessary to maintain good health and wellbeing, caused by the sleep-wake cycle being out of sync with the natural night-day cycle of the external environment

194
Q

types of circadian phase disorders

A
  • jet lag
  • night shift
  • adolescence sleep-wake shift
195
Q

sleep wake shift in adolescence circadian phase disorder

A
  • delay in sleep onset or the transition period between sleep and wakefulness
  • causes them to only feel tired late at night and therefore not be able to wake up early in the morning
  • occurs because of a delay in the release of melatonin by 1-2 hours
  • means they don’t feel sleepy until 11pm
  • melatonin slows in the approach of dawn but cortisol increases
196
Q

effects of sleep wake shift in adolescence

A
  • daytime tiredness and fatigue
  • impaired cognitive functioning
  • difficulty concentrating
  • increase in moodiness
  • diminishing motivation- can develop into a delayed sleep phase disorder
197
Q

what is a delayed sleep phase disorder

A
  • a disorder in sleep timing where a persons sleep-wake cycle is routinely delayed by 2 hours or more from a normal sleep pattern, causing a person to go to sleep later and wake up later
198
Q

coping with adolescence sleep wake shift

A
  • avoid electronic devices an hour before bed
  • avoid alcohol and caffeinated drinks
  • establish. sleep routine
199
Q

shift work circadian phase disorder

A
  • occurs when a persons work hours are scheduled in the normal sleep period
  • circadian rhythms are therefore out fo sync
  • extrinsic circadian phase disorder
200
Q

effects of shift work

A
  • difficult to stay asleep
  • difficult to adjust to night time activity
  • miss out on NREM sleep
  • digestive problems
  • fatigue
  • headaches
201
Q

reducing effects of shift work

A
  • stay on one shift as long as possible so circadian rhythms can adjust
  • avoid foods that are hard to digest
  • ensure sleeping environment is conductive to sleep in
202
Q

jet lag circadian phase disorder

A
  • temporary extrinsic circadian phase disorder the occurs from long periods of air travel cross different time zones
  • exposed to light that their circadian rhythms aren’t prepared for
203
Q

effects of jet lag

A
  • fatigue
  • sleep disturbances
  • impaired judgement
  • poor performance
  • lack of daytime awareness
204
Q

reducing effects of jet lag

A
  • travel in a westerly direction because they are behind in time
  • adjust yourself an hour a day before u fly
  • avoid exposure to light
205
Q

acute partial sleep deprivation

A
  • a lack of adequate sleep time required for optimal daytime functioning; usually lasting 1-2 days
206
Q

chronic partial sleep deprivation

A
  • routinely sleeping less that the normal time needed for optimal daytime functioning
207
Q

affective functioning effects of sleep deprivation

A
  • mood swings
  • increased negative emotions
  • irritability
  • reduced motivation
208
Q

behaviour functioning effects of sleep deprivation

A
  • difficulty completing routine tasks
  • reduced ability to assess risky tasks
  • increase in risk taking behaviour
209
Q

cognitive functioning effects of sleep deprivation

A
  • memory lapses
  • difficult processing info
  • easily bored
  • reduced motivation
210
Q

physical functioning effects of sleep deprivation

A
  • trembling hands
  • droopy eyelids
  • lack of energy
  • extremely tired
211
Q

what are dysomnias

A
  • a group of sleep disorders characterised by disturbance of normal sleep pattern, including quality, amount and timing of sleep
  • eg. narcolepsy and insomnia
212
Q

what is insomnia

A
  • a sleep disorder characterised by the inability to fall asleep, frequent night-time waking, waking too early, or a combination of these, which results in sleep deprivation
213
Q

what are parasomnias

A
  • a group of sleep disorders characterised by abnormal or unusual behaviour or physiological occurrences during sleep
214
Q

what is sleep walking

A
  • a sleep disorder characterised by a sleeping person walking and sometimes completing routine tasks or activities, often when in deep sleep (Stages 3 &4 NREM)
215
Q

what is cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

A
  • a type of psychotherapy that uses a range of cognitive and behavioural therapies and learning principles to help people change unhealthy or unwanted thought processes, feeling and behaviours.
  • there is a feeling, behavioural and cognitive component
    techniques for insomnia include:
  • stimulus control therapy
  • sleep hygiene
  • relaxation training
216
Q

bright light therapy (circadian phase disorder treatment)

A
  • a treatment that expires people to intense but safe amounts of artificial light to help synchronise their sleep wake cycle
217
Q

what is encoding

A

converting information to a useable form so that it can be entered and be stored

218
Q

what is storage

A

retaining information in memory over time

219
Q

what is retrieval

A

locating and recovering the stored information from memory when needed so that we can use it

220
Q

Atkinson-shiffrin multi store model of memory

A

information passes through 3 levels of memory as its encoded, stored and retrieved.
Sensory –> Short Term –> Long Term

221
Q

iconic memory

A

visual sensory memory

images only last for about one third of a second, long enough for the identification of the stimulus to begin

222
Q

echoic memory

A

auditory sensory memory

stores around 3-4 seconds

223
Q

sensory memory

A

the entry point for memory
each sensory register is able to hold information for anything between a fraction of a second to several seconds
unlimited capacity

224
Q

short term memory

A
  • capacity is 7 + or - 2 (5-9 pieces of information)
  • duration is 12-20 seconds
  • helps to store information while you work on it
225
Q

long term memory

A
  • unlimited capacity
  • unlimited duration
  • relatively permanent storage
    2 types: implicit and explicit

Psychology 3/4 (7 decks)

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