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Exam revision Flashcards

1
Q

What is a sine wave?

A

Electromagnetic wave shape

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2
Q

What is a wave length?

A

Length of a single wave

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3
Q

What is the frequency of the radio?

A

Number of cycles passing a given point in a second

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4
Q

What is amplitude?

A

Displacement of wave peaks of troughs from the middle value

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5
Q

What is amplitude used for?

A

Measure the strength of signal

greater the amplitude, the greater the strength

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6
Q

What are sidebands?

A

Additional frequencies which occur whenever a carrier is modulated by frequency lower than itself. In modulation, the sidebands carry the intelligence

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7
Q

What is a ground wave?

A

Part of energy from non directional antenna radio frequency that travels along earth surface

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8
Q

What path does ground wave follow?

A

Roughly parallel to earth surface

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9
Q

What can ground waves be broken into?

A

Direct (follow line from transmitter to receiver)
Surface (follow contour and curvature of earth)
Sky (refracted and reflected by ionosphere

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10
Q

How is the range of surface waves determined?

A

Rate at which signal is absorbed and weakened by surface over which it is travelling (aka attenuation)

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11
Q

What is the THEORETIC RANGE of VHF Signals?

A

Square root of (1.5 x receiver altitude in feet)

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12
Q

Is water a good transmission surface for ground waves?

A

Yes

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13
Q

Why do night time rated coverage of NDBs drop?

A

Increased sky wave interference with higher ionosphere

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14
Q

What is skip distance?

A

Distance from transmitter to point where signal returns to earth after reflecting off ionosphere

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15
Q

What does build up of static electricity do to radio signal?

A

Affects negatively

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16
Q

What frequency does VOR operate in?

A

112.00 to 118.00 VHF band

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17
Q

What does a VOR station produce?

A

30Hz reference and 30 Hz variable phase

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18
Q

How does VOR work with aircraft?

A
  • VOR produces radial pattern signals
  • Nav receiver compares phase of signals to figure what radial its on
  • Compares computer radial to radial pilot selects with OBS and deflects CDI to indicate variation between desired and actual
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19
Q

How is the phase orientated with VOR?

A

Magnetic north

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20
Q

What are the errors for VOR? What are the degree of difference?

A

Airborne equipment error (+/- 2 degrees)
Vertical polarisation error (when VOR antenna is banked out of horizon plane)
Ground station error (transmission equipment (+/- 2 degrees)
Aggregate error (total of all errors (+/- 5 degrees)
Site/terrain error (bending or scalloping of signals due to obstacles close to site (+/- 2 degrees)

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21
Q

What is a doppler VOR?

A

Transmits FM instead of AM to almost eliminate site error effects

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22
Q

What does NDB do?

A

Transmits non directional carrier signal with audio id for morse code

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23
Q

What range is NDB?

A

MF

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24
Q

What instrument is in the aircraft for NDB and how does it work?

A

ADF
Combines signal received from two antenna and gives relative bearing to/from station OR may be overlayed on RMI to give magnetic track to/from

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25
Q

What errors are in NDB?

A

M - Mountain effect (reflects signal from mountain)
I - Interferrence (from other NDB esp at night)
N - Night effect (skywave interference)
T - Terrain effect (sand/rocky country attenuating signal)
C - Coastal refraction (signals bend towards land as cross coast)
H - Height (reduced range at low altitude )
A - Aircraft ( quadrant error, bending due to aircraft)
T - Thunderstorms (thunder storms attract ADF needle)

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26
Q

What frequency is DME?

A

UHF

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27
Q

What does DME do?

A

Provide readout of actual distance (slant range) from ground station

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28
Q

What will aircraft read directly overhead DME?

A

Height above beacon in NM

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29
Q

What does Mode A SSR send?

A

ID Code

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30
Q

What does Mode C send?

A

Altitude info

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31
Q

What is Mode S for?

A

TCAS

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32
Q

What are the components for ILS

A

Localiser (LLZ)
Glideslope (GS)
Marker Beacons

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33
Q

What does One dot on the cockpit represent for ILS?

A

Half a degree of course deviation

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34
Q

What does the blue marker light mean for ILS?

A

Outer marker

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35
Q

What does Amber light mean for ILS?

A

Middle marker

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36
Q

VOR operates under the principle of what?

A

Phase differential

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37
Q

VOR radials are calibrated for magnetic variation that exists where?

A

At the station

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38
Q

What does aircraft bonding do?

A

Ensure even electrical potential between different parts on plane

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39
Q

What is an advantage of the Secondary Radar over primary radar with regards to return signal?

A

Eliminates unwanted return signals (clutter)

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40
Q

What does the ADF loop antena do?

A

Identifies null position

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41
Q

In ILS, full deflection of glide path needle is?

A

0.7 degrees above or below

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42
Q

As an aircraft approaches DME over head, what happens to DME readout?

A

DME readout reduces at decreasing rate to read altitude in nm overhead then increase at increasing rate after passage

43
Q

For the most accurate readout, where are pitot and static systems mounted?

A

Area of minimum air stream disturbance

Parallel to longitudinal axis of aircraft

44
Q

What will a blocked pitot cause?

A

Blocked pitot causes under read on descent

45
Q

What will a blocked static cause?

A

Underread on climb

46
Q

What will a leak in the pitot cause?

A

ASI to underead

47
Q

What will a leak in the static cause?

A

ASI to overread when outside pressure is lower than static

ASI to underread when outside air is higher than static

48
Q

When are turning errors going to occur?

A

Maximum turning through north and south. Minimum east and west.
(Overshoot north, undershoot south)

49
Q

When are acceleration errors going to occur?

A

Max on east and west headings, minimum on north and south (south accelerate, north decelerate)

50
Q

Compass errors are minimum where?

A

At magnetic equator

51
Q

What effect does latitude have on compass errors

A

As latitude increases, error increases

52
Q

What are the advantages of gyrostablised remote indicating compass over direct reading magnetic compass?

A

Reduced turning and acceleration errors

Reduced deviation and slaveable outputs

53
Q

Where is Flux Valve for RMI located?

A

Wingtip or tail

54
Q

With RMI, constant oscillation of annunciator indicates?

A

System operating normally and gyro is hunting for mean position

55
Q

When using a weather radar, the most turbulent areas are?

A

Closest contours near the avoid zone

56
Q

What happens to horizontal axis gyro at the pole?

A

No topple, maximum drift

57
Q

What happens to horizontal axis gyro at the equator?

A

No drift, no topple (axis north to south)

No drift, max topple (axis east to west)

58
Q

What happens to vertical axis gyro at the pole?

A

No drift, no topple

59
Q

What happens to vertical axis gyro at the equator?

A

No drift, max topple

60
Q

How many satellites are needed for 2D nav?

A

3

61
Q

How many satellites are needed for 3d nav?

A

4

62
Q

What is RAIM required by?

A

TSO C129

63
Q

How many satellites are needed for RAIM to operate without satellite failure?

A

5

64
Q

How many satellites are needed for RAIM to continue to follow the detection and deselection of faulty satellite?

A

6

65
Q

In the vertical axis, what happens to the gyroscope at the south pole?

A

Drift and topple will be zero due to earth rate rotation

66
Q

In the horizontal axis, what happens to the gyroscope at the south pole?

A

Drift will be maximum

Topple will be zero

67
Q

For accurate altitude measures, how many channels does a GPS receiver need?

A

4

68
Q

What is the minimum number of satellites to eliminate GPS receiver clock error?

A

4

69
Q

The most significant GPS error is caused by what?

A

Ionosphere

70
Q

What is the minimum number of satellites needed for accurate 3D GPS fix?

A

4

71
Q

What does the pseudo random code allow for?

A

Each satellite to transmit on the same frequency

72
Q

What is GDOP or PDOP caused by?

A

Small distance between satellites

73
Q

What is a rhumb line?

A

Curved line on earth surface which cuts meridians at same angle.
Shortest distance between two points unless at the equator.

74
Q

What will an aircraft following a rhumb line be doing?

A

On a constant track

75
Q

When are rhumb lines also great circles?

A

Meridian and equator

76
Q

What are great circles?

A

Circle on the surface of a sphere whose centre and radius are those of the earth itself
Track between two points is the shortest distance between two

77
Q

What is the convergence factor formula (n)?

A

Bearing change divided by longitudinal change

78
Q

On a polar stereographic chart what do meridians appear as?

A

Straight lines

79
Q

On Lamberts conformal conical projection, a great circle track away from a parallel of origin appears as what?

A

Concave to parallel of origin

80
Q

On Mercators projection, what is a straight line?

A

Rhumb line

81
Q

On a Polar Stereographic projection, rhumb lines are what?

A

Curved concave to the pole

82
Q

On a Polar Stereographic projection, great circles are what?

A

Represented by straight lines at pole, becoming concave to the pole at low altitude

83
Q

In the northern hemisphere, the great circle bearing decreases when flying what direction?

A

West

84
Q

On a Lambert’s conformal conic projection, what is the formula for rhumb line track?

A

Average of great circle track at either end

85
Q

What is the formula for CP?

A

Total distance x GS home from CP / GS Home from CP + GS ON from CP

86
Q

An NDB is what directional beam?

A

Omni directional

87
Q

At the south pole, what happens to vertical axis gyroscope?

A

No drift or topple

88
Q

At the south pole, what happens to horizontal axis gyroscope?

A

No topple, max drift

89
Q

In INS, compensation for Earth rotation must be applied according to what?

A

Specific latitude

90
Q

In INS, compensation for transport rate must be applied according to what?

A

Aircraft speed over ground

91
Q

In INS, the platform of accelerometers are mounted must be aligned with what?

A

True north

92
Q

A machmeter is subject to what errors?

A

Pressure and instrument

93
Q

What is the formula for time to PNR?

A

Safe endurance x GS(H) / GS(H) + GS(O)

94
Q

What is the formula for distance to PNS?

A

Time to PNR * GS(O) / 60

95
Q

What is the formula for CP?

A

(Distance / TAS) x Wind speed

96
Q

What error does Machmeter suffer from?

A

Instrument and Pressure

97
Q

What does the temperature of air do to ASI

A

Cold air over read

98
Q

What does QNH below 1013) do to transition layer?

A

Thiner layer

99
Q

What does QNH above 1013 do to transition layer?

A

Thicker layer

100
Q

What does bending or scalloping occur in?

A

VOR

101
Q

What does the ADF loop antena identfy?

A

Null position

102
Q

What do HF radio waves propagate by/

A

Single and multi hop sky waves

103
Q

What is attenuation?

A

Weakening of radar transmissions and returns

ATPL Nav (1 decks)

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