Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Human Factors > Exam Revision > Flashcards

Exam Revision Flashcards

1
Q

What height is considered to be the Physiological Zone?

A

MSL - 10000feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What height is considered to be physiologically deficient zone?

A

10000-50000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is considered to be the Space Equivalent Zone?

A

50000 feet and above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the break down of the atmosphere?

A

78% Nitrogen
21% Oxygen
1% other gases (ozone, CO2, methane etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Does the percentage of gases in atmosphere change?

A

No, pressure may change but percentage relationship stays the same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What height is pressure approximately half that of atmosphere?

A

18000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

Lack of 02 to tissue sufficient to cause impairment of function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the four types of hypoxia?

A 
Hypoxic hypoxia (due to low o2 levels)
Anaemic Hypoxia (insufficient blood)
Stagnant (lack of flow, g force)
Histotoxic hypoxia (poison)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

At 33000 feet on 100% oxygen, what is this equivalent to?

A

Sea level on air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

At 40000 feet on 100% oxygen, what is this equivalent to?

A

10000 feet on air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are some signs of hypoxia?

A 
Tingling cyanosis
Loss of judgement
Loss short term memory
Slower reaction times
Mental 'Tunnel vision"
Hot flushes, (cherry cheeks)
Sense of euphoria
Muscular in-coordination and tremors
Loss of peripheral, colour and night vision
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What factors will increase risk of hypoxia?

A 
Rate of ascent
Exercise/fitness (lack there of)
Illness/cold
Fatigue
Drugs and alcohol (hangover)
Smoking
Stress/workload
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do you ‘recover’ from hypoxia?

A 
O2 mask, 100% oxygen
Descend below 10000 feet
Breathe normal rate and depth
Declare emergency
Land ASAP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is oxygen paradox?

A

Worsening of symptoms following re-introduction of O2 after period of exposure to hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is you useful level of conciousness at FL180?

A

20-30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is your useful level of conciousness at FL250?

A

3-5 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is your useful level of conciusness at FL300?

A

1-2mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is your useful level of conciusness at FL350?

A

30-60 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is your useful level of conciusness at FL400?

A

15-30seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is your useful level of conciusness at FL430?

A

9-12 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are some post hypoxic symptoms?

A

Fatigue
Headache
Lethargy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are some causes of hyperventilation?

A 
Hypoxia
Vibration
Pain
Excessive G forces
Anxiety/fear/stress
Motion sickness
Voluntary over breathing
Environmental stressors (high temperatures)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are some symptoms of hyperventilation?

A 
Dizziness
Lightheaded
Sensory changes
Tingling
Apprehension
Unconsciousness then recovery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are some body cavities that contain gas?

A 
Teeth
Lungs
Gastrointestinal tract
Middle ear
Sinuses
Post op sites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Gas expansion in lungs can lead to what illnesses?

A

Pneumothorax
Air embolism (air bubbles)
Pnemomediastinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What can lead to gas expansion in the lungs?

A

Pressure changes and holding your breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When is pain in the ears likely to occur?

A

During descent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where in the ear are you likely to feel affects of pressure change?

A

Middle ear (known as barotrauma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Why do we feel pain in the ear?

A

Air cannot easily escape Eustachian tube to equalise pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the four sinuses

A

Ethmoidal
Sphenoidal
Frontal
Maxillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are some techniques to avoid trapped gas problems?

A

Valsava technique
Fly when healthy
Equalise ear pressure regularly when on descent
Eat non gaseous type foods/maintain healthy diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the two types of pressure systems in aircraft?

A

Pressured and sealed cabins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What altitude is high differential systems normally set at?

A

About that of 5000-8000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the advantages of high differential systems?

A

Minimal 02 consumption
No Decompression illness
Don’t need special equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the disadvantages of high differential systems?

A

Payload and endurance penalty

Large decompression on failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

If the high differential system fails, how can you prevent hypoxia from occurring?

A

Breath cabin air

Supplementary 02 available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the advantages of low differential systems?

A

Optimum payload and endurance

Minimum decompression on failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the disadvantages of low differential systems?

A

Greater risk of hypoxia and DCI

Greater O2 requirement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are some physiological effects of cabin depressurisation?

A 
Pressure changes (ears, stomach, lungs sinuses)
Hypoxia
Decompression illness
Cold (-56 degrees)
Noise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is spatial disorientation?

A

Inability to correctly interpert a/c, altitude or attitude or airspeed in relation to Earth or other points of reference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the three types of spatial disorientation?

A

Recognised
Unrecognised
Incapacitating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the make up of orientation?

A

Eyes 80%
Proprioceptors 10%
Vestibular 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the stimulation threshold of the semi circular canals?

A

2 degrees / second squared

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does the semi circular canals pick up?

A

Angular acceleration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How many semi circular canals do we have in each ear?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What do our otolith organs detect?

A

Linear acceleration and sense gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How many otolith organs do we have?

A

2 per ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are proprioceptors?

A

Sensitive to touch

‘Seat of pants’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are some vestibular illusions?

A

Somatogravic
Somatogyral
Leans
Cyrolis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is somatogravic illusion?

A

Dark night, acceleration, think you are pitching up.

Deceleration = pitch down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is somatogyral illusion?

A

False sense of rotation
‘graveyard spin’
poor visual clues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the leans?

A

False sense of roll

cause pilot to lean to cancel sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is coriolis illusion?

A

False sense of tumbling

May cause nausea and vomitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is autokinesis?

A

Illusion involving apparent moving of single point source of light.
Eyes normal movement are interpreted by the bran as movement of object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is empty field myopia?

A

Eyes naturally rest at 1-2 m resulting in distance vision being reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How can you ‘cure’ empty field myopia?

A

Focus on something in distance (ie wingtip)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What a focal traps?

A

Object (Bugs/dirt/oil etc) on the windscreen leading to your eyes focusing on that object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How can you deal with visual illusions?

A 
Being aware of them, signs, symptoms etc
Prior planning
Good visual scans
Trust instruments
Fly when healthy
Limit head movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the cornea and how much focusing % does it make up?

A

Majority of focusing ability of eye

75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the lens and how much focusing % does it make up?

A

Fine tunes the visual image

25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the retina?

A

Light sensitive area where light converted to electrical impulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Where do the rods and cones ‘live’?

A

In the retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What does the iris do?

A

Controls the amount of light entering the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What does the pupil do?

A

Operative in iris through which light enters the eye

65
Q

What do the cones do and where are they concentrated?

A

High resolution and detail (colour, red green and blue)
Gives best visual acuity
Concentrated in fovea

66
Q

What is each cone connected to?

A

Single optic nerve fibre

67
Q

What are rods and where are they located?

A

Give poor visual acuity, resolution and detail.
Not sensitive to colour
Night vision
Located in peripheral retina outside fovea

68
Q

What is the blind spot?

A

Where there is a lack of rods and cones at optic disc

69
Q

What can blind spot do to an object?

A

Block an 18m object at 200m away

70
Q

What degrees does blind spot affect?

A

2-6 degrees

71
Q

On average, what is the total time to perceiver and react to oncoming traffic?

A

5 seconds

1 second to detect, 2 seconds to decide what to do 2.5 seconds for muscle movement

72
Q

How long does it take for rods to adapt to the dark?

A

30-45 minutes

73
Q

What are some techniques to assist with night blind spot?

A

Look off centre
Never fixate more than 2-3 s
15 degrees overlap

74
Q

With night vision, what does it deteriorate at, at 4000 feet?

A

5% worse

75
Q

With night vision, what does it deteriorate at, at 10000 feet?

A

20% worse

76
Q

What is the OHS limit for noise exposure?

A

85db

77
Q

If noise level is 88db, what is OHS exposure limit?

A

4 hours

78
Q

If noise level is 82 db, what is OHS exposure limit?

A

16 hours

79
Q

What are the primary signs and symptoms of motion sickness?

A 
Pallor (pale)
Cold sweats
Nausea
Vomitting
Increased saliva
Burping/flatulence
Stomach awareness
Headache
Drowsiness/lethargy
Yawning/sighing
80
Q

Which sex is more likely to suffer from motion sickness?

A

Female

81
Q

What are the age tolerances to motion sickness?

A 
0-2 = rare
3-12 = peak
13+ = tolerance improves
82
Q

How can you best manage motion sickness?

A 
Minimise head movements
Lie down
Keep mind occupied
Stay in the most stable part of AC (middle and window)
View horizon
83
Q

What is the G tolerance window?

A

4.5-5.5 g

84
Q

What is the G continum

A 
Weight increase
Grey out
Black out
ALOC
GLOC
85
Q

When are you likely to grey out?

A

3-4 g

86
Q

When are you likely to black out?

A

4-4.5 g

87
Q

Do you lose consciousness at blackout?

A

no

88
Q

What is ALOC?

A

Almost loss of consciousness

Short duration to 6+ g’s(approx 5 seconds)

89
Q

What is GLOC?

A

When blood flow to brain ceases (4.5-5.5g)

90
Q

What is the recovery time for GLOC?

A

1-5mins

91
Q

After exposed to GLOC, how long and you at absolute and relative incapacation?

A

15 seconds each

92
Q

What are symptoms of GLOC?

A 
Euphoria
Confused/disorientated
Muscle spasm
Seizures
Light headed
Amnesia (50%)
Denial
93
Q

What factors affect G Tolerance?

A 
Being unprepared
Rapid onset of G
Fatigue
Dehydration
Alcohol
Hypoxia
Negative G
94
Q

What condition can occur for Negative G?

A

Red out

95
Q

What happens in the body when exposed to negative G?

A 
Blood goes to head
Mental confusion
Headache
Facial pain
Fullness in head
96
Q

What G protection options are there?

A 
Anti g straining manoeuvre
Anti g suits (1-1.5g)
Regular exposure to G
Positive pressure breathing
Centrifuge training
Avoiding stresses that lower tolerance
97
Q

How many hours of sleep do you require?

A

7-8 hours

98
Q

What is sleep driven by?

A

Circadian rhythm

99
Q

What is REM and NREM?

A

Rapid Eye Movement

Non Rapid Eye Movement

100
Q

How many stages of sleep are there?

A

4

101
Q

With your Circadian rhythm, when is your performance best/worst?

A

Approx 6pm

After midnight, between 2am-5am

102
Q

Which stage of sleep is your recovery stage?

A

Stage 4

103
Q

What happens in REM sleep?

A

Dreaming, laying down memory

104
Q

What are some affects of fatigue?

A 
Increased irritability
Impaired judgement
Diminished check lists
Fumbling
Decreased crew coordination
Lack of concern
105
Q

After being awake for 17 hours, what is your approx performance %?

A

30% equivalent of 0.05BAC

106
Q

What is sleep inertia?

A

Transition phase between sleep and awakeness

Can last approx 30 mins

107
Q

What is the IMSAFE fitness model?

A 
I-Illness
M-Medication
S-Stress
A-Alcohol
F-Fatigue
E-Eating
108
Q

What can a common cold increase the risks of when flying?

A 
Disorientation
Barotrauma
Fatigue
Dizziness
Poor flight performance
109
Q

How long do you need to be sick with a CPL before seeing a DAME?

A

7 days

110
Q

How long do you need to be sick with a PPL before seeing a DAME?

A

30 days

111
Q

Is malignancy a permanent grounding?

A

Not necessarily, can be restricted and depends on risk of sudden incapacitation

112
Q

What can medications do to your performance in the air?

A 
Impair cognitive functions
Sedation
Altered arousal/alertness
Alter mood
Impairment of vision, hearing and balance
Allergic reactions
Gastro upset
113
Q

How long can it take to be rid of canabis effects?

A

24 hours

114
Q

What does alcohol do to your performance?

A

Increase risk of dehydration
risk of hypoxia
reduced g tolerance

115
Q

How long should your last drink be before flying?

A

8 hours bottle to throtte

116
Q

What is the leading cause of total pilot incapacitation?

A

Gastro (58%)

117
Q

When should you eat before flight?

A

6 hours

118
Q

What is low blood sugar also known as?

A

Hypoglycemia

119
Q

How many litres of water should you drink on a normal day?

A

1-2 litres

120
Q

What is your blood alcohol content limit?

A

0.02%

121
Q

What is your drugs limit for flying?

A

0

122
Q

What does DAMP stand for?

A

Drugs and Alcohol Management Policy

123
Q

What is the CREEP model?

A 
C-Container
R-Restraint
E-Energy Absorption
E-Escape
P-Post crash factors
124
Q

What are the four principles of survival?

A

Protection
Location
Water
Food

125
Q

Describe immersion suits

A

Stops water getting into suit providing insulating layer.

Provides insulating layers only in combo with layers underneath

126
Q

What is the standard survivability in 14 degrees and 6 degrees water in normal clothes?

A 
14 = hour
6 = half an hour
127
Q

What is the standard survivability in 14 degrees and 6 degrees in an immersion suit?

A 
14= 15hours
6 = 13 hours
128
Q

What is the airway freeboard and floatation angle for lifejackets?

A

120mm and 45 degrees

129
Q

What are the three categories of hypothermia

A

Mild (>32)
Moderate (28-32)
Severe (<28)

130
Q

How was the statue law of the Occupational Health and Safety Act passed?

A

Through parliament by govenment

131
Q

Under the new Workplace Health and Safety Laws, a PCBU (person conduction business or undertaking) can be what?

A

Volunteer organisation
Sole trader
Employer

132
Q

What is the main OHS document in Victoria?

A

OH&S Act 2004

133
Q

What does Section 25 of OH&S Act 2004 state?

A

While at work, employee must take reasonable care for his or her own safety

134
Q

What can effective consultation lead to?

A

More informed management decisions
Stronger commitment to decisions
More openness, respect and trust

135
Q

What is a hazard?

A

A source or situation with a POTENTIAL for harm of human injury or ill health, damage to property, environment, or a combo

136
Q

What are the three processes for risk assessment?

A

Identification
Analysis
Evaluation

137
Q

Describe two considerations for Reasonably Practice

A

Likelihood of hazard or risk occurring
degree
Degree of harm that may result from hazard or risk

138
Q

When is a Safe Work Method Statement used?

A

Used in high risk construction work

139
Q

What does a Safe Work Method Statement do?

A

Considers and documents a risk assessment of the identified hazards for each job step and the controls

140
Q

What are the hierarchy for dealing with a hazard?

A

Eliminate the hazard altogether
Substitute the hazard with a safer alternative
Isolate the hazard
Use engineering controls to reduce the risk
Use admin controls to reduce the risk
Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

141
Q

What is the process for OHS Management Systems?

A 
OHS Policy
Planning
Implementation
Measurement
Evaluation
142
Q

What is the framework for ICAO safety management system?

A

Safety Policy and objectives
Safety risk management
Safety Assurance
Safety Promotion

143
Q

Who do you report workplace incidents to?

A

Victorian Workcover Authority

144
Q

Within how long do you need to send an incident for to Victorian Workcover authority?

A

48 hours

145
Q

How long must you keep a record of an incident notification form?

A

At least 5 years

146
Q

When is notification required if a serious injury or death has occurred?

A

Phone call immediately

Written within 48 hours

147
Q

What are the most common type of workplace injury?

A

Sprains and strains

148
Q

What are the components of the spine?

A 
Disc
Vertebrae
Liagaments
Muscles
Spinal cord
149
Q

What is the best way to protect your back before you lift?

A

Stabilise your core

150
Q

When does hearing loss occur?

A

When hair cells are damaged to a point that they can no longer move back and forth freely

151
Q

What is the most effective way of reducing risk when dealing with heights?

A

Seek to perform task on ground

152
Q

What personal protection equipment is to be used on an elevated work platform?

A

Safety harness connected to platform
Hard hat
Insulated footwear

153
Q

What is the first step in the lock out-tag process?

A

Shut down the machinery and equipment, ensure it can’t be operated

154
Q

At what height is Armstrongs Line?

A

65000 feet

155
Q

What is Boyle’s Law?

A

At a constant temperature, the volume of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure to which it is subjected

156
Q

What is Dalton’s Law?

A

Total pressure of a mixed gas is equal to the sum of partial pressures of the constituent gases

157
Q

What is the oxygen pathway?

A 
Atmosphere
Trachea and Bronchi
Alveoli
Blood (haemoglobin)
Tissues
158
Q

3 factors that affect ergonomics

A

Manual handing
movement
posture

159
Q

What is WRMSD?

A

Work Related Muscular Skeletal Disorder

Human Factors (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions