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Aviation and Regulations > Exam Revision > Flashcards

Exam Revision Flashcards

1
Q

Does the aviation industry have a high or low contribution to Australian economy?

A

Relatively low, approximately 19th in Australia’s gross domestic product (GDP)

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2
Q

What are some defining characteristics of airline industry?

A 
High entry barrier
Few sellers in market
Product of similar nature
Growth through mergers
Mutual dependence of airlines
Price transparency and collusion
Close Government finance assistance and regulation
high technology turnover
sensitive to economic fluctuations
International standardisation
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3
Q

What is the air transport industry primarily drive by?

A

Economic development and increased urbanisation

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4
Q

What are some predictions for 2031 for the air transport industry?

A

London/Heathrow will remain largest airport in terms of long haul traffic
Dubai will be number 2
8 of the top 20 largest airports will be in Asia pacific
Regional jet growth (big future in India/China)

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5
Q

What are the factors affecting world air traffic growth?

A 
P-Political
E-Economical
S-Social
T-Technological
E-Environmental
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6
Q

What are some of the recent advances in technology for the industry?

A

Concentration on efficiency/fuel emissions
Lighter materials
ETOPS
Cabin improvements (ipads etc)

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7
Q

What are some of the challenges the industry will face in the next few years?

A

Additional aircraft needed to meet increased demand
New infrastructure needed for airports (A380)
More airports and expansions on existing airports
Improved transportation to airports
Fuel (bio fuel, carbon taxes)
Environmental protection
Skills shortage
Competition from high speed rail

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8
Q

When was the Wright Bros first flight?

A

17 December 1903 by Orville Wright

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9
Q

What did the Paris Peace Conference do?

A 
1919
Set up Int Commission for air navigation (ICAN)
Treaties for:
National sovereignty over airspace
Freedom of air travel
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10
Q

When was the Chicago Conference?

A

November to December 1944

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11
Q

What four committees were set up from the Chicago Conference?

A
  1. Multilateral Aviation Convention and International Aeronautical Body
  2. Technical Standards and Procedures
  3. Provisional Air Routes
  4. Interim Council
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12
Q

What were three critical issues for the Chicago Conference?

A

Exchange of air rights (freedoms of air)
Control of airfares and freight traffic
Control of flight frequency and aircraft capacity

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13
Q

Which freedoms of the air were formulates in the Chicago Conference?

A

1st-5th Freedoms (official freedoms)

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14
Q

Which freedoms were added after the Chicago conference and not officially recognised under international bilateral treaties?

A

6th to 9th Freedoms

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15
Q

What is the first freedom?

A

Overflight right

Right to overfly territory without landing providing notification and approval in advance

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16
Q

What is the second freedom?

A

Landing right

Right to land for technical reasons (refuelling, maintenance etc)

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17
Q

What is the third freedom?

A

Passenger Deplaning

Right to carry traffic TO another country from country of registry

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18
Q

What is the fourth freedom?

A

Passenger Emplaning

Right to carry traffic from another country

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19
Q

What is the fifth freedom?

A

Beyond Right
Right to carry traffic between 2 countries outside country of registry PROVIDING the flight originates or terminates in country of registry

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20
Q

What is the sixth freedom?

A

Right to carry traffic between foreign countries VIA country of registry

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21
Q

What is the seventh freedom?

A

Right for airlines to operate entirely outside its country of registry while carrying traffic between other states

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22
Q

What is the eighth freedom?

A

Allows airline service originating or terminating in home territory of airline the right to carry traffic between two point in foreign state

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23
Q

What is the ninth freedom?

A

Right to carry traffic between 2 points within foreign state

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24
Q

What freedom of air is a China Air flight from Beijing to Sydney?

A

1st and 3rd

Overflight right and Passenger deplaning

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25
Q

What freedom of air is a China Air flight from Sydney to Beijing?

A

1st and 4th

Overflight right and Passenger Emplaning

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26
Q

What freedom of air is a Qantas flight from Melb - Auckland - LA?

A

3rd and 5th

Passenger deplaning and Beyond right

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27
Q

What freedom of air is a Singapore Airlines flight from London Heathrow - Singapore - Melbourne?

A

6th and 3th and 4th

Right to carry traffic between foreign countries via country of registry, passenger deplaning and passenger emplaning

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28
Q

What freedom of air is Air China flight from Beijing - Chicago - Washington DC?

A

3rd and 8th
Passenger deplaning and allow right to carry traffic between 2 points within foreign state, originating/terminating in home territory

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29
Q

What freedom of air is British Airways flight from New York - Dallas?

A

9th

Right to carry traffic between 2 points within foreign state

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30
Q

What freedom of air is Qantas flight from San Fran to Vancouver?

A

7th

Right for airlines to operate entirely outside its country of registry while carrying traffic between other states

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31
Q

Which convention did the Chicago Conference supersede?

A

Paris Convention

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32
Q

What are three main provisions of the Chicago conference?

A

Standardisation of customs and immigration rules
Standardisation of ATC rules
Standardisation of documents

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33
Q

What are the 18 Annexes?

A

Technical standards of practice in a number of areas eg licensing, rules of air (VFR, IFR), airworthiness, charts etc

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34
Q

When was ICAO started and where are its headquarters?

A

1947 and Montreal, Canada

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35
Q

What was the main aim of ICAO?

A

Develop principles and techniques of international air navigation and to foster the planning and development of international air transport

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36
Q

What does ICAO stand for?

A

International Civil Aviation Organisation

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37
Q

What does IATA stand for?

A

International Air Transport Association

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38
Q

When was IATA started and where?

A

1945 and in Havana Cuba

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39
Q

What is IATA’s principal focus?

A

Originally tariffs and airfares, now economics

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40
Q

What are IATA’s responsibilities?

A 
T-taxation
U-user charges
F-fuel
S-scheduling
F-facilitation
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41
Q

Who is in the ICAO?

A

190 of the UN members and Cook Islands

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42
Q

Who is in IATA?

A

240 members from 126 nations

Air carriers

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43
Q

What is the bilateral air service agreement?

A

treaty/contract between countries allowing their airlines to operate to agreed conditions (frequency, capacity and pricing)

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44
Q

What is an air services agreement?

A

Negotiated and interpreted as trade agreements between two governments, each trying to secure best deal

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45
Q

What are the three types of bilaterals?

A

Chicago (detailed supervision by gov)
Bermuda (agreement in capacity/price)
Liberalised (minimal restrictions)

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46
Q

What is replacing the bilateral agreements?

A

Open Skies Agreements

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47
Q

What are open sky agreements

A

Negotiated agreements between governments attempting to liberalise air travel between nations

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48
Q

What is ICAO SARPS?

A

Standards and Recognised Practices
Standards (spec’s necessary for safe travel, must notify ICAO if cant comply)
Recognised Practices (desirables in interest of safety, states are invited to inform council of non compliance)

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49
Q

What is the main purpose of Civil Aviation Act of 1988?

A

To establish regulatory framework for maintain enhancing and promoting the safety of civil aviation.
CASA shall perform its functions in manner consistent with obligations of Australia under Chicago Conference

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50
Q

What must an aircraft do with regards to its type certificate?

A

Must conform to it and be in good condition for safe operation

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51
Q

When a new aircraft is introduced, how do they get a type certificate?

A

Go through design phase
Initial production
Testing and demonstration
Certification by ICAO

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52
Q

What must a company prove to obtain a type certificate?

A

Provide satisfactory evidence that aircraft type is in compliance with design aspect of appropriate airworthiness requirements.
Must pass/comply with several Federal Aviation Regulations

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53
Q

After obtaining a type certificate, what will a manufacture seek to be issued with?

A

Production certificate

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54
Q

When will a production certificate be obtained?

A

When regulator is satisfied that the manufacturer can produce the aircraft in accordance with type certificate

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55
Q

What does an airworthiness Certificate do?

A

Document that allows you to operate aircraft

May have limitations imposed by regulator

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56
Q

What documents must be carried in Australian aircraft going overseas?

A 
Cert of registration
Cert of airworthiness
Maintenance release
Licence and medical of operating crew
Flight manual
FROL
List of names, places of embarkation and destination
Cargo bill of lading and manifests
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57
Q

What documents are required if aircraft operating wholly within Australia?

A

Maintenance release
Licence and medicals
Flight manual
Cargo manifest and bill of lading (if any)

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58
Q

How do we determine probability of failure for mechanical component?

A 
Fatigue test (test till destruction)
SN curve
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59
Q

How do you do software certification?

A

Develop a process that provides level of confidence that possibilities of errors is below allowable threshold
DO-178B

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60
Q

What does DO178B do?

A

Uses fault trees
Failure modes and effect analysis
Determines criticality of software failure

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61
Q

With DO-178B, what are the categories of software failure?

A 
Catastrophic (failure may cause crash)
Hazardous (large negative impact on safety or performance)
Major (significant but less than hazardous)
Minor (noticeable, cause inconvenience to passengers)
No Effect (no impact on safety)
62
Q

What is ETOPS?

A 
Extended Range Twin Operations (with two engines)!prior 2007
Extended operations (after 2007)
63
Q

What does ETOPS allow airliners to do?

A

Fly long distance routes previously unavailable to piston twin engine aircraft
Refers to flight time between airports.
Aircraft type can have certification to fly certain ‘plots’

64
Q

What sort of plots are there for ETOPS?

A

60, 120 and 180 minute plots

65
Q

If an aircraft is certified for ETOPS flight of 180minutes, what does this mean?

A

Permitted to fly any route not more than 180minutes single engine flying time to airport

66
Q

What has ETOPS been upgraded to?

A

Now extended operations including ETOPS, LROPS and POLAROPS

67
Q

What is the philosophy behind ETOPS?

A

Preclude and protect

68
Q

What is the impact of ETOPS on industry?

A

Reduced flight distances
Reduced flight time
Reduced fuel used
Tri engine gradually phased out

69
Q

How do you plan your ETOPS route?

A 
Identify your adequate airports 
Evaluate your route
Establish boundary 60 min boundary
Check ETOPS alternate airports
Draw ETOPS Areas (90, 120, 180)
70
Q

What is the future of ETOPS?

A

No diversion policy

Means you can cope with your problem until you reach the destination

71
Q

What happens to the reliability of a piston ac with increase in size?

A

Decrease reliability

72
Q

What were the procedures for aircraft with 2 piston engines on long flights before 1936?

A

Required to have intermediate fields around them within 100miles.
Required to draw circles around airport and keep route within circles

73
Q

What happened in 1953 with regards to ETOPS?

A

US regulations prohibited 2 & 3 engine a/c from routes 60 mins from adequate airport (single engine fly time) unless approved by Civil Aeronautics Board

74
Q

In the 1950s, what was the recommendation from ICAO?

A

Restricting 2 engine a/c to routes 90mins from adequate airport with both engines running. (4 engines not restricted)

75
Q

What happened in 1964 with regards to ETOPS?

A

60 minute restriction removed on 3 engine aircraft (leaving only 2 engine aircraft with this)

76
Q

What happened in the 70s and 80s with regards to ETOPS?

A

Engine reliability had improved and was now not the most limiting factor for ac

77
Q

In 1985 AC 120-42 was introduced, what was it?

A

Permitted twin ac operation to seek approval for routes up to 120 mins from adequate airport on single engine aircraft

78
Q

After 3 years (in 1988), what happened with regards to the 120 min rule?

A

Were now permitted to operate up to 180 from adequate airport

79
Q

What was the first aircraft to receive 180min ETOPS approval?

A

Boeing 777

80
Q

What was the driving force behind ETOPS?

A

Increase reliability of turbojet engine
Increase polar flights
Increase demand for more efficient flight operations
Political and funding forced closure of number of airports

81
Q

What was the main setback of 60 min plot?

A

Barely could get you anywhere (even crossing australia!)

82
Q

What were some restrictions of the 120 min plot?

A

Some routes, i.e. Aus to North america were difficult

83
Q

How do you plan your 180min restriction ETOPS route?

A

Draw 180min circle around airports and make sure route stays between circles

84
Q

What is SWOT analysis

A

Strengths (helpful, internal)
Weakness (harmful, internal)
Opportunities (helpful, external)
Threats (harmful, external)

85
Q

What is the formula for Simulator?

A

Simulation = Model + Technology + Execution

86
Q

What is the model for the simulator?

A

Representation of an object or phenomena

can be mathematical, physical etc

87
Q

When was the Link Trainer introduced and why?

A

1934

Introduced because there was a lot of US military pilot incidents/deaths

88
Q

What did the Link Trainer assist with?

A

Bomber aiming
Radio and Nav aids
Navigators in celestial navigation

89
Q

What is zero flight time training (ZFTT)?

A

Should be permissible that both the captain and copilots first flight in an aircraft be carrying fair paying passengers. That is, there should be no requirements that any member of crew have flown any real aircraft prior to conducting line operations.

90
Q

What does ZFTT only apply to?

A

Transition training to new model (i.e. does not apply to abintio training for new pilots)

91
Q

What three elements make up a simulator?

A

Motion
Visual
Other Elements (sound, special effect, malfunction simulator, instructor console, avionics)

92
Q

What 6 things does motion do in the simulator?

A 
Surge
Sway
Heave
Pitch
Roll
Yaw
93
Q

What two components make up motion in the simulator?

A

Physical actuators

Mathematical programs that convert aircraft model into commands

94
Q

With regards to the visual component of flight simulator, what is latency and what does it need to be?

A

Latency is delay between pilot control input and visuals showing aircraft responding.
Latency needs to be 150 milliseconds or less

95
Q

What can excessive latency lead to?

A

Motion sickness (simulator sickness) and can lead to person being unable to fly for 12 hours

96
Q

What are the different classes of simulators?

A

Level A,B,C,D

97
Q

What does Level A simulator need?

A

3 degrees of freedom, aircraft only

98
Q

What does Level B Simulator need?

A

3 axis of motion and higher fidelity that A.

Lowest level for helicopter sim

99
Q

What does Level C Simulator need?

A

All 6 degrees of freedom.
Lower latency than A and B.
Outside visual horizontal view of 75 degrees

100
Q

What does Level D Simulator need?

A

highest level of FFS qualification currently available.
Must have all 6 degrees
Visual system must have horizontal view of at least 150 degrees
Realistic sounds required

101
Q

Who approves air operator certificates?

A

A National Aviation Authority (NAA)

102
Q

Who can apply for an AOC?

A

Person, company/associate or body corporate

103
Q

What activities require an AOC?

A 
Commercial:
Aerial Work
Charter
Regular Public Transport (RPT)
Flying schools
104
Q

What form do you need to send in to apply for the AOC?

A

AOC Application form 1049

105
Q

What are the two stages of of assessment for AOC?

A

Document evaluation

Inspection an proving flights

106
Q

What is the MMEL?

A

Master Minimum Equipment List
An approved document created specifically to regulate dispatch of AC Type with inoperative equipment. Establishes equipment allowed to be inoperative for certain types of operations and still provide adequate amount of safety.

107
Q

Is MMEL aircraft type specific?

A

Yes

108
Q

Who is the MMEL produced by and approved by?

A

Produced by the manufacturer and approved by regulatory authority (i.e. FAA or CASA)

109
Q

What is the MEL?

A

Minimum Equipment List

Originates from MMEL and is tailored to specific aircraft type and operations

110
Q

What can the MEL be dependent on?

A

Route structure

Geographic location of airport and number of airports where spare parts and maintenance available

111
Q

Each carrier who carries passengers needs to have compensation with respect to death or personal injury to passengers for an amount not less than what?

A

$725,000

112
Q

What is an SDR?

A

Special Drawing Right

Claim to currency held by IMF countries

113
Q

What are the four SDR currencies?

A

US Dollar
Euro
British Pound
Japanese Yen

114
Q

How many SDR are carriers liable for, for proven damages?

A

113,100

115
Q

What are some things to consider with route analysis’?

A 
Length of route
Time in climb/descent vs cruise
ATC issues
Airport (length of runway, elevation, taxiway strength, instrument approaches, lighting, refuelling etc)
Typical weather
Available diversions en route
Noise abatements
Any approach/departure peculiarities
116
Q

What are the different types of maintenance checks?

A

A,B,C and D checks

117
Q

What is an A check like for maintenance?

A

every 500-800 hours

overnight at airport gate

118
Q

What is a B check like for maintenance?

A

every 3 months

overnight at airport hanger

119
Q

What is a C check like for maintenance?

A

every 12-18 months

week or so at maintenance base

120
Q

What is a D check like for maintenance?

A

every 4-5 years

longer then a week at maintenance base or MRO

121
Q

What is the REASON model (also known as Swiss cheese model)?

A

All accidents are a combo of active and latent conditions

122
Q

What is the difference between latent and active conditions?

A 
Latent = conditions that exist once the defences have been breached
Active = actions or inactions, including violations, that have an immediate adverse affect
123
Q

What makes up the reason model?

A 
Organisation
Local Conditions
People
Regulation (latent and defence)
Procedures (latent and defence)
Technology (latent and defence)
124
Q

What is the risk management process?

A

Identify
Analysis probability, severity and tolerance
Risk control/mitigation

125
Q

What elements make up crude oil?

A 
Carbon
Hydrogen
Nitrogen
Oxygen
Sulfur
Metals
126
Q

What are the classifications of crude oil?

A

Light
Medium
Heavy
Extra Heavy

127
Q

What criteria must oil reserves satisfy?

A

Discovered through one or more well
Recoverable using existing technology
Commercially viable
Remaining in the ground

128
Q

Any data about oil reserves is classified as what?

A

An estimate

129
Q

Which global region has the largest oil reserves?

A

Middle east

130
Q

Who are the top 4 oil producing countries (as at 2008)?

A

Russia
Saudi Arabia
USA
Iran

131
Q

Who are the top 4 oil consumption countries (as at 2008)?

A

USA
China
Japan
India

132
Q

What is GSPR?

A

Global Strategic Petroleum Reserves

Crude oil inventories held by the government and private industry

133
Q

What is the purpose of GSPR?

A

Help calm markets
Mitigate sharp price spikes
Reduce economic dislocation
Provide national and economic security in energy crisis

134
Q

What is OPEC?

A

Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries

135
Q

What is the objective of OPEC?

A

To coordinate and unify petroleum policies among members in order to secure fair and stable prices, an efficient and regular supplu and fair return on capital

136
Q

Why is the driving factors behind biofuels?

A

Oil price spikes
Concern over greenhouse gas emissions
Government subsidies
Carbon tax

137
Q

Who was the first flight to use biofuel in commercial operations?

A

Virgin 747 London to Amsterdam in 2008

20% biofuel to 80% kero in one of its 4 engines

138
Q

When and where was first extended operations using biofuel used?

A

Lufthansa July 2011 to December 2011

50% on one engine

139
Q

When was bio fuel first used in Australia?

A

QF1211 in 2012

50/50 blend of biofuel in one engine

140
Q

What are some disadvantages of bio fuel?

A 
Price
Forced global food prices up by 75%
Sustainability (limited production)
Performance (still not as good as fossil fuel)
Possible engine redesign
141
Q

What is avgas used in

A

Piston engines

142
Q

What is the difference between Jet A and Jet A1 fuel

A

Pretty much the same just Jet A1 freezes at -47 degrees (vs -40)

143
Q

What Jet B fuel?

A

Highly volatile and difficult to handle

Freezes at -60

144
Q

What are the advantages of Polar operations?

A

Saves fuel

Saves time

145
Q

What must be taken into consideration for polar operations?

A

Effective comms (combo of VHF, HF and SATCOM)
Fuel freeze
Passenger Recovery Plan

146
Q

For a single engine ac, fleet size of 1 what is the minimum hours and experience for a Chief Pilot?

A

300 hours
6 months commercial ops experience
*may be part time

147
Q

For a single engine ac with a fleet size greater than 1, what is the minimum hours and experience for a Chief Pilot?

A

500 hours

9 months commercial ops

148
Q

For a multi engine ac, fleet size of 1 what is the minimum hours and experience for a Chief Pilot?

A

500 hours including 50 hours in command of multi engine

9 months commercial ops

149
Q

For a multi engine ac with a fleet size greater than 1, what is the minimum hours and experience for a Chief Pilot?

A

1000 hours including 200 hours in command of multi engine

12 months commercial ops

150
Q

For a multi engine ac for which 2 or more flight crew are required, with a fleet size of any number, what is the minimum hours and experience for a Chief Pilot?

A

2000 hours including 400 hours in command multi engine ac require 2 or more crew (400 may be waived by CASA)
2 years commercial ops

Aviation and Regulations (1 decks)

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