EXAM REVISION Flashcards
1
Q
You would expect to find the highest gas velocity in a turbojet engine -
A) At the face of the compressor
B) Leaving the diffuser
C) Entering the turbine
D) At the end of the exhaust nozzle
A
D) At the end of the exhaust nozzle
2
Q
The purpose of a diffuser in a gas turbine engine is to -
A) Lower pressure and lower temperature
B) Raise pressure and lower velocity
C) Raise pressure and raise velocity
D) Raise density and lower temperature
A
B) Raise pressure and lower velocity
3
Q
The correct statement regarding the variations of MSL full throttle thrust of a jet engine is -
A) Thrust increases as air temperature increases
B) Thrust decreases as air temperature increases
C) Thrust increases as humidity increases
D) Thrust increases as air pressure decreases
A
B) Thrust decreases as air temperature increases
4
Q
You would expect to find the highest gas pressure in the turbojet engine?
A) In the diffuser
B) In the beginning of the jet pipe
C) In the last stage of the turbine
D) at the inlet of the compressor
A
A) In the diffuser
5
Q
You would expect to find the highest gas temperature in the turbojet engine -
A) In the jet pipe
B) At the end of the compressor
C) In the combustion chamber
D) At the last stage of the turbine
A
C) In the combustion chamber
6
Q
The ‘engine core’ of the turbofan refers to
A) The fan
B) the compressor, combustion chambers, turbines and exhaust
C) the n1 spool
D) the accessory drive shaft
A
B) the compressor, combustion chambers, turbines and exhaust
7
Q
The maximum thrust output of a turbojet engine will increase with -
A) A decrease in ambient temperature
B) a decrease in ambient air pressure
C) a decrease in ambient air density
D) an increase in ambient air temperature
A
A) A decrease in ambient temperature
8
Q
The effect an increase in altitude alone will have on the low pressure compressor of a gas turbine engine if constant thrust in maintained is
A) It will stall more readily
B) discharge pressure will increase
C) RPM will decrease
D) RPM will increase
A
D) RPM will increase
9
Q
A pure turbojet engine in comparison to a turbofan engine has -
A) A bypass ratio less than 1:1
B) A bypass ratio more than 1:1
C) no bypass air
D) a reduction gearbox for the compressor
A
C) no bypass air
10
Q
Subsonic gas flow decreases in velocity and increases in pressure when flowing through
A) A convergent duct
B) A divergent duct
C) a parallel duct
D A helical duct
A
B) A divergent duct
11
Q
RAM effect
A) Has a negligible effect on the efficiency of a jet engine
B) lowers the efficiency of a jet engine as the aircraft speed increases
C) raises the thrust output of a jet engine as aircraft speed increases
D) Cools the air entering the engine intake
A
C) raises the thrust output of a jet engine as aircraft speed increases
12
Q
In passing through the turbine section of a pure turbojet engine
A) Gas pressure, velocity, and temp all decrease
B) Gas pressure increases, velocity falls and temperature increases
C) gas pressure remains constant and temp increases
D) gas pressure reduces, velocity increases and temp decreases
A
D) gas pressure reduces, velocity increases and temp decreases
13
Q
‘Tertiary creep’ is
A) Blade creep experienced on the test bench by the manufacturer
B) normal blade creep over the life of the engine
C) blade creep where it would be detrimental to continue to run the engine
A
C) blade creep where it would be detrimental to continue to run the engine
14
Q
Gas turbine engine compressor stall may be caused by
A) Prolonged group running with air intake guard screens fitted
B) An unserviceable igniter plug
C) An unstable airflow through the compressor
A
C) An unstable airflow through the compressor
15
Q
The maximum gas pressure in the gas turbine is obtained
A) in the cooling airflow around the flame tube
B) within the combustion chamber
C) at the entry to the exhaust unit
D) at the compressor exit
A
D) at the compressor exit
16
Q
For a given RPM thrust output from a gas turbine engine will be greatest
A) At MSL under ISA conditions
B) at high altitude
C) at MSL under ISA plus conditions
A
A) At MSL under ISA conditions
17
Q
If compressor blade stall occurs in a turbine engine
A) the compressor ceases to rotate
B) the smooth flow of air over the blading breaks away and causes an interruption of airflow through the engines
C) the fuel flow to the burners ceases immediately
A
B) the smooth flow of air over the blading breaks away and causes an interruption of airflow through the engines
18
Q
The purpose of variable inlet guide vanes in a gas turbine engine is to
A) Prevent turbine blade stall at high engine rpm
B) Prevent compressor blade stall during operation off design RPM
C) prevent ice entering the engine
D) prevent excessive cooling due to large mass air flow through the engine
A
B) Prevent compressor blade stall during operation off design RPM
19
Q
Turbojet aircraft range increases as altitude increases toward the optimum FL because at high altitude
A) The decrease in mass airflow permits an increased fuel/air ratio
B) the higher ambient temp results in a greater pressure rise through the engine
C) The engine can operate at design RPM to maintain an efficient wind angle of attack
A
C) The engine can operate at design RPM to maintain an efficient wind angle of attack
20
Q
The use of bleed air from a gas turbine engine compressor for anti icing equipment will result in -
A) an increase in the gas temperature, reduced thrust and increase in SFC
B) an increase in thrust since less air will be mixed with fuel in the combustion chambers
C) in increase in RPM and decrease in gas temp
A
A) an increase in the gas temperature, reduced thrust and increase in SFC
21
Q
Maximum gas pressure in a gas turbine engine is found -
A) between the final compressor stage and the inlet to the combustion chamber
B) in the exhaust unit
C) at the downstream end of the combustion chamber
D) at the turbine entry point
A
A) between the final compressor stage and the inlet to the combustion chamber
22
Q
The main reason for a limit on the maximum gas temperature in a gas turbine engine is-
A) To prevent overheating of the turbine
B) to provent buckling
C) to prevent burning of thermocouples
D) to prevent thermal runaway
A
A) To prevent overheating of the turbine
23
Q
Burning fuel in the combustion chambers of a gas turbine engine is necessary to -
A) Raise the pressure and reduce the velocity of the gas
B) increase the density and reduce the temp of the gases
C) Increase the volume and velocity of the gasses
A
C) Increase the volume and velocity of the gasses
24
Q
On leaving the compressor in a gas turbine the air passes through
A) Nozzles designed to increase velocity of the air
B) Divergent ducts which lower the velocity and raise the pressure of the air
C) special passages with drop the pressure of the air
A
B) Divergent ducts which lower the velocity and raise the pressure of the air
25
To reduce fuel tank condensation overnight -
A) Leave the fuel filler caps off
B) leave the min amount as possible
C) leave as full as possible
D) fill the tank airspace with carbon dioxide
C) leave as full as possible
26
In a free turbine turboprop engine the propeller is driven by-
A) both the HP and LP turbine
B) the front HP turbine
C) The rear LP turbine
C) The rear LP turbine
27
The action which should be taken if a gas turbine compressor begins to stall during start
A) open the throttle watch the RPM increase to optimum range
B) close the throttle manually operate bleed valves
C) shut off the fuel supply and maintain starter motor rotation
C) shut off the fuel supply and maintain starter motor rotation
28
The term Specific Fuel Consumption (SFC) means -
A) Units of fuel used per unit of thrust per hour
B) the actual amount of fuel per shaft horsepower developed
C) amount of fuel used in a specific engine RPM rage
D) distance travelled per unit of fuel
A) Units of fuel used per unit of thrust per hour
29
Some turbojet engine turbine blades shrouded at the tips to
A) prevent blade tips rubbing against the shroud ring on expansion
B) prevent gas leaking past blade tips, increase rigidity and reduce vibration
C) prevent hot gasses distorting the turbine blades
B) prevent gas leaking past blade tips, increase rigidity and reduce vibration
30
The fuel flow in a jet engine increases, thrust increases because exhaust gas -
A) temp increases
B) pressure increases
C) volume increases
D) velocity increases
D) velocity increases
31
The times the surge bleed valve is open and closed during normal gas turbine engine operation are
A) Open from idling to nearly design RPM, then closed up to max RPM
B) closed from idling to nearly design RPM, then opened to max rpm
C) open over entire RPM range unless compressor stall occurs
A) Open from idling to nearly design RPM, then closed up to max RPM
At low power settings without the surge bleed valve the compressors would be providing too high volume of compressed air than the combustor could process.
The excess air is bled off the compressor either into the atmosphere or back into the engine inlet.
If the excess air is not bled off than the compressor would surge. The engine is sucking in air it can't use.
32
The propulsive efficiency of a turboprop decreases with an increase in speed because
A) of compressibility effects on the blades
B) slipstream losses increase
C) blade interference increases
D) blade angle of attack becomes too great
A) of compressibility effects on the blades
33
The gas turbine (Brayton) cycle is called an open or continuous cycle because
A) All events are occurring at the same time
B) the engine is open from the end to end
C) the cycle can stop and start at any time
D) there are no limits to the size of the cycle
A) All events are occurring at the same time
34
A modest increase in speed in a slow flying jet aircraft leads to a small initial decrease in max thrust available because
A) of intake choking
B) combustion chamber back pressure increasing
C) ram pressure decreasing
D) the difference between exhaust and intake velocities is reduced
D) the difference between exhaust and intake velocities is reduced
35
Pressure through the combustion chambers in a gas turbine engine
A) Rises steadily
B) is constant or falls slightly
C) Rises initially and then steadily falls
D) falls initially and then steadily rises
B) is constant or falls slightly
36
EPR Engine pressure ratio is the ratio of -
A) engine compressor inlet pressure to propelling nozzle pressure
B) engine compressor outlet pressure to jet pipe pressure
C) engine compressor discharge pressure to turbine discharge pressure
D) jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure
D) jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure
37
When climbing in a jet engine aircraft the engine parameter which would stay constant if the thrust lever setting remained unchanged would be
A) RPM
B) EPR
C) EGT
D) torque
A) RPM
38
Thrust is produced in a jet engine by
A) reaction to impingement of exhaust gases on the outside atmosphere
B) reaction to the pressure difference between exhaust and intake air pressures
C) the force required to accelerate a mass of air through the engine
D) reaction to the temperature difference between compressor and turbines
C) the force required to accelerate a mass of air through the engine
39
Fuel boost pumps in a jet aircraft system are usually located in the
A) accessory housing
B) fuel control unit
C) fuel manifold
D) fuel tanks
D) fuel tanks
40
41
Comparing a swept wing aircraft and a straight wing aircraft both with an increasing angle of attack
A)
the swept wing aircraft will have a greater drag increase and a lesser lift increase
B)
the swept wing aircraft will have a greater drag increase and a greater lift increase
C)
the swept wing aircraft will have a lesser drag increase and a greater lift increase
D)
the swept wing aircraft will have a lesser drag increase and a lesser lift increase
A)
the swept wing aircraft will have a greater drag increase and a lesser lift increase
42
An aircraft is flying with its CG at the forward limit.
Compared with flying the aircraft at it's aft limit, the induced drag is -
1
greater
2
lesser
3
the same
4
independent of the gross weight
1
greater
43
Reverse thrust is not used at low forward aircraft speed because -
1
of excessive vibration
2
it is too effective at low speeds
3
hot or turbulent air can lead to engine damage through the ingestion of foreign objects
4
it is a waste of fuel
3
hot or turbulent air can lead to engine damage through the ingestion of foreign objects
44
In a turboprop powered aircraft, the pilot controls the engine power output in flight -
1
by direct CSU control
2
by varying the fuel flow via the fuel control unit
3
by increasing prop RPM
4
by varying the prop blade angle directly
2
by varying the fuel flow via the fuel control unit
45
The combination of flight director/autopilot modes not selectable together is -
1
HDG SEL and V/S
2
HDG SEL and ALT HOLD
3
HDG HOLD and LOC
4
HDG SEL and HDG HOLD
4
HDG SEL and HDG HOLD
46
The least advisable combination of autopilot/flight director modes is -
1
to fly with the flight director on and the autopilot on
2
to fly with the flight director off and the autopilot on
3
to fly with the flight director on and the autopilot off
4
to fly with the flight director off and the autopilot off
4
to fly with the flight director off and the autopilot off
47
The autothrottle and flight director are engaged and the autopilot is off during cruise. ALT HOLD is the pitch mode. SPD is the autothrottle mode.
In this case -
1
the system is inoperable
2
the autothrottle will adjust thrust to hold a steady IAS while the flight director command bars command pitch to hold the reference altitude
3
the flight director will not engage in this situation
4
the flight director command bars will be hidden in this situation
2
the autothrottle will adjust thrust to hold a steady IAS while the flight director command bars command pitch to hold the reference altitude
48
The F/O is flying an aircraft equipped with 3 autopilots in cruise.
The autopilot/s to engage are -
1
R or C only
2
L and R
3
C and R
4
L, C and R
1
R or C only
49
Blocker doors in a turbofan engine reverse thrust system are used to divert the -
1
cooling air
2
cold stream
3
hot stream
4
bleed air
2
cold stream
50
Concerning the effect of increasing altitude on the spiral stability of a particular aircraft -
1
spiral stability increases with increase in altitude
2
spiral stability decreases with increase in altitude
3
spiral stability remains the same with increase in altitude
4
spiral stability only changes with changing CG position
1
spiral stability increases with increase in altitude
51
A B767 aircraft is in cruise with the L autopilot engaged and the FMC is commanding the autopilot with LNAV and VNAV engaged. The autothrottle is engaged in SPEED mode.
If the pilot wished to fly the aircraft manually and deselected the autothrottle, FMC, and autopilot, the correct statement concerning the IAS/MACH speed selector and display window is -
1
the window would be blanked
2
the window would show the FMC flight plan speed and could not be changed unless VNAV was again selected
3
the window would show the current speed and could only be changed by entering the new speed on the CDU
4
the window would show the speed at the time VNAV was deselected and could be used to control the command airspeed bug on the ASI
4
the window would show the speed at the time VNAV was deselected and could be used to control the command airspeed bug on the ASI
52
The purpose of the interconnectors between the combustion chambers in a gas turbine engine is -
1
to provide pressure equalisation and consistent fuel propagation
2
to provide pressure equalisation and flame propagation
3
to provide temperature equalisation and flame propagation
4
to provide temperature equalisation and consistent fuel propagation
2
to provide pressure equalisation and flame propagation
53
In an aircraft with powered flight controls, the component which is always part of the system is -
1
artificial feel
2
manual reversion
3
hydraulics
4
pneumatics
1
artificial feel
54
The purpose of a restrictor valve in the undercarriage hydraulic system of a large aircraft is -
1
to prevent the undercarriage from extending past the stop position and to hold the undercarriage in the up position when pressure is removed from the system
2
to limit the maximum PSI in the system
3
to prevent hammering in the lines
4
limit the speed of operation of the system and prevent hydraulic cavitation during gear extension
4
limit the speed of operation of the system and prevent hydraulic cavitation during gear extension
55
In a large jet transport category aircraft, fuel moving around in the tanks could cause uncommanded attitude changes after pitching or rolling manoeuvres.
This is prevented by -
1
high speed fuel pumps
2
baffles in the fuel tanks
3
fuel orifices
4
flying the aircraft in balance during all stages of flight
2
baffles in the fuel tanks
56
On the CDU of an FMC some pages contain lines for data entry by the crew to programme the FMC for the flight under the prevailing conditions of weather and gross weight.
Concerning the entry of data into the CDU -
1
data which is required to be entered as mandatory information for the operation of the FMC is indicated by boxes on the corresponding line on the CDU screen, while data which is optional but not essential for FMC computations is indicated by dashed lines
2
data which is required to be entered as mandatory information for the operation of the FMC is indicated by dashed lines on the corresponding line on the CDU screen, while data which is optional but not essential for FMC computations is indicated by boxes
3
all crew data inputs to the FMC are mandatory for the computation of flight plan performance
4
the FMC is able to perform all functions without any crew data inputs, however data input by crew members will enhance FMC flight performance efficiency
1
data which is required to be entered as mandatory information for the operation of the FMC is indicated by boxes on the corresponding line on the CDU screen, while data which is optional but not essential for FMC computations is indicated by dashed lines
57
The approximate percentage of the mass airflow through a gas turbine engine entering the combustion chamber through the front entry section is -
1
10%
2
15%
3
20%
4
50%
3
20%
58
In a TCAS II equipped aircraft the pilot has the option of selecting either the Traffic Advisory (TA)/ Resolution Advisory (RA) mode or Traffic Advisory (TA) only mode of operation.
With the TA only mode selected, RA's will -
1
only be available for other TCAS I equipped aircraft
2
be inhibited and appear as TA's
3
be displayed as in RA mode
4
only be available for other non transponder equipped aircraft
2
be inhibited and appear as TA's
59
When a sweptwing aircraft suffers a wingtip stall, the centre of pressure moves -
1
inwards and forward
2
outwards and aft
3
inwards and backwards
4
outwards and forwards
1
inwards and forward
60
In steady asymmetric flight in a light twin piston engined aircraft -
1
the slip indicator (ball) must be centred with rudder
2
zero bank at zero sideslip is possible
3
bank and rudder are normally used to counteract the yaw produced by the live engine
4
bank is used to balance the drag of the dead engine
3
bank and rudder are normally used to counteract the yaw produced by the live engine
61
If wing sweepback is increased for the same wing area, wing section and aspect ratio, for a given angle of attack -
1
lift coefficient will decrease, drag will increase
2
lift coefficient will increase, drag will decrease
3
lift coefficient and drag will both increase
4
lift coefficient and drag will both decrease
4
lift coefficient and drag will both decrease
62
As the speed of a large jet transport aircraft increases from the stall speed flaps up to the maximum allowable cruise speed, the power required to fly straight and level will -
1
increase
2
decrease
3
increase then decrease
4
decrease then increase
4
decrease then increase
63
On the typical EHSI display, the vertical deviation indicator shows variation from the profile during a descent.
When the cursor reaches the extreme bottom end of the scale the aircraft is -
1
400 ft above the profile
2
400 ft below the profile
3
1000 ft above the profile
4
1000 ft below the profile
1
400 ft above the profile
64
A typical flight control system uses 3 separate and independent hydraulic systems to power flight controls. If all functions are normal the system/s which power the pilot controls are -
1
all systems at all times
2
one system at a time
3
two systems at all times
4
the system with highest pressure
5
the system with highest accumulator pressure
1
all systems at all times
65
As an aircraft gross weight decreases during cruise -
1
the available speed range increases, and drift down altitude increases
2
the available speed range decreases, and drift down altitude decreases
3
the available speed range increases, and drift down altitude decreases
4
the available speed range decreases, and drift down altitude increases
1
the available speed range increases, and drift down altitude increases
66
In order to be able to provide the desired pressure schedule in pressurised aircraft, the ranges the cabin pressure control system operates in are the -
1
isobaric and differential range
2
positive and differential range
3
negative and differential range
4
negative and positive range
5
isobaric and negative range
1
isobaric and differential range
67
The factor most significantly affecting the cockpit cut off angle is -
1
the pilot's eye position and seat height
2
the instrumentation placement
3
the pilot's posture
4
VREF
1
the pilot's eye position and seat height
68
cockpit voice recorder provides a record of the -
1
captain's radio transmissions between take off and landing
2
captain's and first officer's radio calls and cockpit dialogue with engines running
3
flight crew's voices and radio transmissions from ATC
4
sounds on the flight deck including voices when power is supplied to the cockpit
4
sounds on the flight deck including voices when power is supplied to the cockpit
69
A digital flight data recorder provides a record of -
1
airframe configuration, engine parameters, attitude information and ADC data
2
control positions, airframe configuration, engine parameters, attitude and ADC data
3
airspeed, altitude, heading, and cockpit voices
4
airframe configuration, engine parameters, attitude, ADC data, and cockpit voices
2
control positions, airframe configuration, engine parameters, attitude and ADC data
70
Large fast high flying jet transport aircraft use flight spoilers for -
1
pitch control
2
altitude control
3
yaw control
4
roll control
4
roll control
71
If the SPD annunciator on the EADI changes to a blank display while on an ILS, accompanied by an aural warning, the likely cause is -
1
autopilot disengagement
2
autothrottle disengagement
3
vertical navigation mode disengagement
4
lateral navigation mode disengagement
2
autothrottle disengagement
72
A fly by wire system of control as used on the latest generation of jet transport aircraft uses -
1
electrical signals and wires in place of linkages and cables to connect the control surface actuating rams to the flight deck controls
2
wire cables instead of solid linkages to provide manual reversion capability
3
a combination of electrical signals and mechanical linkages to move the control surfaces
4
single power actuating units on all control surfaces and does not need manual reversion capability
1
electrical signals and wires in place of linkages and cables to connect the control surface actuating rams to the flight deck controls
73
When configured for take off, the command speed bug on the airspeed indicator and speed tape on the EADI is referenced to -
1
V1
2
VREF
3
VR
4
V2
4
V2
74
Hydraulic fluid pumps are lubricated and cooled by -
1
turbine oil
2
hydraulic fluid
3
air
4
turbine fuel
2
hydraulic fluid
75
In an axial flow compressor, the blades experiencing the greatest air loads are -
1
the stators
2
the large front rotors
3
the small rear rotors
4
the inlet guide vanes
3
the small rear rotors
76
A problem associated with NICAD aircraft batteries is -
1
low current at the end of the charge cycle
2
thermal runaway
3
acid spillage
4
low storage capacity
2
thermal runaway
77
An aircraft in level flight with a relatively forward centre of gravity, compared to a rear centre of gravity will have -
1
more induced drag
2
less induced drag
3
reduced longitudinal stability
4
more parasite drag
1
more induced drag
78
An advantage of an axial flow compressor over a centrifugal flow compressor in a gas turbine engine is -
1
shorter length
2
higher compression ratio
3
more resistant to foreign object damage
4
cheaper to manufacture
2
higher compression ratio
79
Large transport category aircraft are often fitted with several artificial devices to provide protection against various undesirable flight characteristics. The yaw damper is one such device designed to prevent the development of uncommanded yaw at high altitude and speed by automatic rudder input controlled by a gyro stabilised feedback system. There are two main types of yaw dampers in common use today, the parallel type and the series type.
The statement which correctly describes the difference between these two types of yaw damper is -
1
the parallel type yaw damper uses two independent circuits to provide redundancy and both circuits operate simultaneously in normal operation. The series type yaw damper uses one circuit at a time with manual switching required to activate the backup in the event of a failure
2
the parallel type yaw damper operates in parallel with the autopilot's or pilot's rudder inputs and so the pedals move when the yaw damper operates. This increases rudder loads and this type must be switched off for take off and landing. The series type operates without moving the pedals and may be used during all stages of flight
3
the series type yaw damper uses two independent circuits to provide redundancy and both circuits operate simultaneously in normal operation. The parallel type yaw damper uses one circuit at a time with manual switching required to activate the backup in the event of a failure
4
the series type yaw damper operates in series with the autopilot's or pilot's rudder inputs and so the pedals move when the yaw damper operates. This increases rudder loads and this type must be switched off for take off and landing. The parallel type operates without moving the pedals and may be used during all stages of flight
2
the parallel type yaw damper operates in parallel with the autopilot's or pilot's rudder inputs and so the pedals move when the yaw damper operates. This increases rudder loads and this type must be switched off for take off and landing. The series type operates without moving the pedals and may be used during all stages of flight
80
For a turbojet aircraft flying at a particular altitude at a constant power lever setting, an increase in air density will result in -
1
an increase in thrust and a decrease in fuel flow
2
an increase in thrust and an increase in fuel flow
3
a decrease in thrust and an increase in fuel flow
4
a decrease in thrust and a decrease in fuel flow
2
an increase in thrust and an increase in fuel flow
81
The stall speed of an aircraft at a particular gross weight will be highest with -
1
a rearward centre of gravity
2
a forward centre of gravity
3
low altitude
4
power on
2
a forward centre of gravity
82
The correct procedure to follow in the event of a hot start to prevent torching in a gas turbine engine is to -
1
gradually open the throttle to richen the mixture and cool the combustion temperatures
2
open the bleed valves to increase the mass air flow through the compressor
3
motor the engine with the fuel supply cut off
4
close the bleed valves to decrease mass flow through the compressor
3
motor the engine with the fuel supply cut off
83
Bleed air for thermal ice protection on a modern jet transport aircraft should be used -
1
continuously in icing conditions
2
for short periods cyclically in icing conditions
3
for long periods cyclically in icing conditions
4
continuously in all phases of flight
1
continuously in icing conditions
84
The function of a pressure relief valve in an aircraft pneumatic system is to -
1
prevent pump cavitation
2
prevent seals from blowing
3
preserve accumulator pressure
4
ensure pump supply at all times
2
prevent seals from blowing
85
The least important factor in determining aircraft tyre hydroplaning risk is -
1
tyre pressure
2
tyre size
3
tyre tread pattern
4
tyre wear
2
tyre size
86
The function of the follow up linkage in the nose wheel landing gear system of a jet transport category aircraft is -
1
to prevent nose wheel shimmy
2
to hold the nose wheel steering at the correct angle
3
to stop tyre scuffing
4
to permit the tiller to turn the nose wheel
2
to hold the nose wheel steering at the correct angle
87
A method of reducing the engine air bleed load in an air cycle airconditioning system of a jet transport aircraft is to -
1
increase the vapour pressure
2
recirculate the air
3
lower the cabin temperature
4
lower the cabin altitude
2
recirculate the air
88
The function of a reverse current relay in a jet aircraft electrical system is to -
1
isolate the generator in the event of reverse current flow
2
deenergise the generator field
3
reverse the current flow direction
4
permit current to flow in the reverse direction
1
isolate the generator in the event of reverse current flow
89
The main difference between blocker type and clamshell type engine thrust reversers is -
1
none, both operate to reverse the fan air
2
none, both operate to reverse the engine air
3
blockers reverse fan air and clamshells reverse engine air
4
blockers reverse engine air and clamshells reverse fan air
3
blockers reverse fan air and clamshells reverse engine air
90
In a gas turbine engine at engine design RPM -
1
an OAT decrease leads to thrust decrease
2
an OAT increase leads to thrust increase
3
an OAT increase leads to thrust decrease
4
humidity increase leads to thrust increase
3
an OAT increase leads to thrust decrease
91
jet flying a the appropriate speed for max L/D will achieve best performance for -
1
angle of climb and endurance
2
angle of climb and range
3
rate of climb and range
4
rate of climb and endurance
1
angle of climb and endurance
92
jet flying a the appropriate speed for max L/D will achieve best performance for -
1
angle of climb and endurance
2
angle of climb and range
3
rate of climb and range
4
rate of climb and endurance
1
angle of climb and endurance
93
The variable most directly affecting aircraft hydroplaning speed is -
1
tyre pressure
2
aircraft weight
3
runway surface
4
tyre width
1
tyre pressure
94
The variable most directly affecting aircraft hydroplaning speed is -
1
tyre pressure
2
aircraft weight
3
runway surface
4
tyre width
1
tyre pressure
95
VMCA of a twin engine turbo prop aircraft is determined on control after engine failure under a number of conditions, one of which is CG position which shall be -
1
most forward
2
mid range
3
CP position
4
most rearward
4
Most rearward
96
VMCA of a twin engine turbo prop aircraft is determined on control after engine failure under a number of conditions, one of which is CG position which shall be -
1
most forward
2
mid range
3
CP position
4
most rearward
4
most rearward
97
Concerning the operation of autobrakes set at level 2 -
1
if the pilot applies any brake pressure during the landing, the autobrakes will disarm
2
if the pilot exceeds autobrake 2 pressure, the autobrakes will disarm, if the pilot applies less than autobrake 2 pressure, the system will supply autobrake 2 pressure
3
if the pilot applies any brake pressure during landing the system will continue to supply autobrake 2 pressure
4
the autobrake system may only be disconnected manually once armed
1
if the pilot applies any brake pressure during the landing, the autobrakes will disarm
98
On a B767 EHSI display, either a full or expanded compass scale is available in -
1
Plan and Map
2
VOR (NAV) and ILS
3
Plan and VOR (NAV)
4
Map and ILS
2
VOR (NAV) and ILS
99
Regarding the relationship between the different components of the Flight Management System (FMS) -
1
each component is dependent on the other system components for its operation and cannot operate in isolation
2
each component is independent of other system components and can be used separately or in conjunction with the other system components
3
the flight director must be engaged for any other system component to operate
4
the autopilot must be engaged for any other system component to operate
2
each component is independent of other system components and can be used separately or in conjunction with the other system components
100
The 'ram ratio' in a gas turbine engine is defined as the ratio of -
1
total pressure to dynamic pressure in the compressor
2
total pressure to static pressure in the compressor
3
total pressure to dynamic pressure at the air intake
4
total pressure to static pressure at the air intake
4
total pressure to static pressure at the air intake
101
If the FMC detects a difference between the FMC computed (calculated) fuel quantity and the fuel gauge indicated (sensed) quantity, the system will -
1
automatically use the higher value for subsequent navigational computations
2
automatically use the lower value for subsequent navigational computations
3
alert the pilot(s) to the discrepancy with a fuel quantity error message
4
recalibrate the sensed fuel quantity shown on EICAS to agree with the computed quantity
3
alert the pilot(s) to the discrepancy with a fuel quantity error message
102
Advantages of a tricycle undercarriage configuration include -
1
greater braking effectiveness, better visibility during landing and taxiing, the CG is forward of the main gear which minimises ground loop tendencies
2
the CG is behind the main wheels which minimises ground loop tendencies, better rough strip capability, less drag
3
higher descent rates during approach and landing, better visibility during landing and taxiing, the CG is behind the main wheels which minimises ground loop tendencies
4
lower landing speeds, better rough strip capability, the CG is forward of the main gear which minimises ground loop tendencies
1
greater braking effectiveness, better visibility during landing and taxiing, the CG is forward of the main gear which minimises ground loop tendencies
103
The component used for converting 28 volts DC to 115 VAC at 400 Hz in large modern jet transport category aircraft is -
1
the static rectifier
2
the static (fullwave) inverter
3
the rotary inverter
4
the transformer-rectifier (TR)
2
the static (fullwave) inverter
104
A flap load relief system (flap limiter) on a large jet aircraft operates whenever -
1
the flap load limit is exceeded and the flaps retract one stage automatically with the flap lever moving automatically and the flaps returning to the commanded position once the limit is no longer being exceeded
2
the flap limit speed is exceeded and the flaps retract one stage automatically with the flap lever moving automatically and staying at the new setting
3
the flap load limit is exceeded and the flaps retract one stage automatically with the flap lever not moving and the flaps staying at the new setting
4
the flap limit speed is exceeded and the flaps retract one stage automatically with the flap lever not moving and the flaps returning to the commanded position once the limit is no longer being exceeded
4
the flap limit speed is exceeded and the flaps retract one stage automatically with the flap lever not moving and the flaps returning to the commanded position once the limit is no longer being exceeded
105
The main hazards associated with undissolved water in the fuel system of a turbine powered aircraft are -
1
corrosion, lowered specific gravity and microbial infestation
2
corrosion, ice crystal formation and microbial infestation
3
static build up, lowered specific gravity and corrosion
4
excess weight, lowered specific gravity and microbial infestation
2
corrosion, ice crystal formation and microbial infestation
106
The freezing point of Jet A-1 fuel is closest to -
1
-20 degrees C
2
-30 degrees C
3
-40 degrees C
4
-50 degrees C
4
-50 degrees C
107
Advantages of air spray nozzles in the combustion chamber of a gas turbine engine compared to conventional fuel nozzles include -
1
reduced carbon build up, cleaner combustion, and more even mixture distribution
2
cooler combustion temperatures and leaner mixtures
3
better flame stabilisation and better cooling
4
hotter combustion temperatures and leaner mixtures
1
reduced carbon build up, cleaner combustion, and more even mixture distribution
108
High energy capacitor discharge igniter plugs as used in the ignition system of a gas turbine engine are used to provide -
1
a hot (high value) spark at high voltage
2
a cool (low value) spark at low voltage
3
a hot (high value) spark at low voltage
4
a cool (low value) spark at high voltage
1
a hot (high value) spark at high voltage
109
In a modern turbo-prop powered aircraft the power lever is used to control -
1
pitch and torque in the Beta range
2
pitch only in the reverse thrust range
3
pitch and torque in the normal flight (Alpha) range
4
pitch and torque in all operating ranges
1
pitch and torque in the Beta range
110
With respect to yaw damper operation in an aircraft with two independent yaw dampers, which are used in all flight conditions -
1
only one yaw damper operates at any one time with the other available as a backup with the rudder pedals moving as the yaw damper inputs are made
2
both systems operate continuously to improve directional stability and do not cause the rudder pedals to move as inputs are made
3
both systems operate when desired to improve lateral stability and cause the rudder pedals to move as inputs are made
4
both systems operate continuously to improve directional stability and cause the rudder pedals to move as inputs are made
2
both systems operate continuously to improve directional stability and do not cause the rudder pedals to move as inputs are made
111
The principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design is -
1
an increase in M CRIT
2
an increase in the changes of the size of the force coefficients due to compressibility
3
an acceleration of the onset of compressibility effects
4
a decrease in M CRIT
1
an increase in M CRIT
112
As altitude increases towards the aircraft's maximum cruising flight level -
1
the low speed buffet boundary approaches the high speed buffet boundary and the available speed range decreases significantly
2
aircraft manoeuvre capability is increased
3
increased pitch stability and Dutch Roll may become evident
4
the low speed buffet boundary approaches the high speed buffet boundary and the available speed range increases significantly
1
the low speed buffet boundary approaches the high speed buffet boundary and the available speed range decreases significantly
113
A variable incidence tailplane with stabiliser trim, as an alternative to a conventional elevator with trim -
1
is required to cope with high altitude and high gross weights
2
can produce excessively high control forces if out of trim
3
has very limited control authority
4
reduces residual control forces
2
can produce excessively high control forces if out of trim
114
In high speed flight, aileron effectiveness may be reduced because of shock wave formation near the ailerons or wing twisting.
To overcome these problems, most jet airliners incorporate -
1
powered flight controls
2
spoilers to assist roll control
3
automatic coupling of rudder with aileron input
4
a moderate degree of sweepback
2
spoilers to assist roll control
115
As an aircraft Mach Number increases from subsonic, through M 1.0 to low supersonic speeds, the drag coefficient of the aircraft -
1
increases steadily
2
decreases steadily
3
remains approximately constant
4
increases, then decreases
increases, then decreases
116
If the Angle of Attack is increased on a swept wing compared with an unswept wing of similar area and aspect ratio, the swept wing will produce -
1
less lift and more drag
2
less lift and less drag
3
more lift and more drag
4
more lift and less drag
1
less lift and more drag
117
The last minute addition of 1000 kg of fuel to a large transport category aircraft before take off will most seriously affect -
1
the take off distance required
2
the climb speed
3
the cruise altitude
4
the landing distance available
1
the take off distance required
118
Powered control systems require an artificial feel system to simulate air loads as feedback for the pilot.
A common system uses 'q' feel, which means control feel feedback is a function of -
1
airspeed
2
control input force
3
centre of pressure movement
4
control input speed
1
airspeed
119
On a conventional Machmeter/ASI (MASI), a masked Mach speed display indicates that -
1
the instrument has failed
2
the data from the CADC is unreliable
3
the Mach number is below M 0.6
4
the power supply to the instrument has been interrupted
2
the data from the CADC is unreliable
120
On a conventional attitude indicator, the fast/slow indicator opposite the glideslope deviation indicator shows the current speed as fast or slow relative to -
1
V1
2
VREF
3
the command bug speed
4
V2
3
the command bug speed
121
The formula: nine times the square root of the tyre pressure in PSI gives the -
1
maximum speed for hydroplaning in meters per second
2
minimum speed for hydroplaning in knots
3
maximum speed for hydroplaning in knots
4
minimum speed for hydroplaning in meters per second
2
minimum speed for hydroplaning in knots
122
The unsafe takeoff configuration warning system on a large jet transport will activate when the thrust levers are advanced for takeoff and an incorrect selection is made on the -
1
flaps and spoilers, stabiliser trim or brakes
2
flaps, elevator trim, brakes or flight director
3
spoilers, stabiliser trim or GPWS
4
EADI, EHSI, autothrottle or stabiliser trim
1
flaps and spoilers, stabiliser trim or brakes
123
The TCAS system fitted to the modern jet transport category of aircraft is able to provide two main types of messages to alert crew to the presence of traffic in the area. These messages are traffic advisories (TA's) and resolution advisories (RA's).
The statement correctly listing the differences between TA's and RA's is -
1
traffic advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Resolution advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descent at a minimum rate will be announced
2
traffic advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Resolution advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descent at a minimum rate will be announced
3
resolution advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Traffic advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descent at a minimum rate will be announced
4
resolution advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Traffic advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descent at a minimum rate will be announced
1
traffic advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Resolution advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descent at a minimum rate will be announced
124
Modern airline aircraft have tubeless tyres fitted with fusible alloy plugs. The function of the plugs is to provide -
1
an emergency plug for a puncture inflicted on landing
2
pressure relief during conditions of excessive tyre heat -
3
termperature cooling during conditions of excessive tyre heat
4
indication of excessive hard braking during landing
5
allow heat to escape without deflating the tyre
2
pressure relief during conditions of excessive tyre heat -
125
Concerning the operation of the ground proximity warning system -
1
a hard warning is not always preceded by a soft warning
2
a soft warning is always followed by a hard warning
3
all modes provide both hard and soft warnings
4
all modes provide hard warnings
1
a hard warning is not always preceded by a soft warning
126
The purpose of a divergent passage in a gas turbine engine is to -
1
raise velocity, lower pressure and lower temperature
2
lower velocity, raise pressure and raise temperature
3
lower velocity, lower pressure and lower temperature
4
raise velocity, raise pressure and raise temperature
2
lower velocity, raise pressure and raise temperature
127
The main reason for the combustion of fuel in a gas turbine engine is -
1
to raise gas pressure
2
to raise gas temperature
3
to raise gas velocity
4
to raise gas density
3
to raise gas velocity
128
The main advantage of kerosene compared to wide cut type fuel for use in a gas turbine engine is that kerosene has a relatively -
1
lower volatility and higher flash point
2
lower flash point and lower volatility
3
higher volatility and lower flash point
4
higher flash point and higher volatility
1
lower volatility and higher flash point
129
A swept wing stalls at a higher speed than an equivalent unswept wing due to -
1
increased spanwise flow
2
decreased spanwise flow
3
increased chordwise flow
4
increased CL Max
1
increased spanwise flow
130
In order to delay flow separation on an aerofoil at the stall, the characteristics of the boundary layer should ideally be -
1
laminar due to the reduced surface friction
2
turbulent due to the increased surface friction
3
laminar due to the minimum boundary layer depth
4
turbulent due to the higher velocities at the wing surface
4
turbulent due to the higher velocities at the wing surface
131
In an aircraft equipped with a Flight Management Computer (FMC), a holding pattern programmed into the FMC LNAV active route will command the holding pattern track taking account of -
1
the wind in the CASA wind model
2
the forecast wind
3
the actual wind
4
nil wind
3
the actual wind
132
The power response of a turbojet engine compared to a turboprop at various RPM settings is -
1
faster at high RPM
2
faster at both high and low RPM
3
slower at high RPM
4
slower at low RPM
4
slower at low RPM
133
In event of total generator failure in the electrical system of a modern jet transport aircraft, the component which supplies AC power is -
1
the TRU
2
the voltage regulator
3
the rotary inverter
4
the full wave inverter
4
the full wave inverter
134
The input not used by the autothrottle system of a large jet transport category aircraft is -
1
N1
2
EGT
3
INS
4
AIR/GROUND LOGIC
3
INS
135
The Flight Management Computer of a large transport category jet aircraft does not provide -
1
aircraft systems warnings and cautions
2
fuel monitoring
3
navigational information
4
descent planning
1 aircraft systems warnings and cautions
136
Regarding inner and outer loops of automatic flight control systems -
1
outer loops control the aircraft attitude based on rate gyro error sensing and feedback to a control surface actuator. Inner loops are external inputs from air data which can be fed to the inner loop to achieve a desired flight profile
2
inner loops control the aircraft attitude based on rate gyro error sensing and feedback to a control surface actuator. Outer loops are external inputs from air data which can be fed to the inner loop to achieve a desired flight profile
3
inner loops control the aircraft in pitch while outer loops control the aircraft in roll and yaw
4
inner loops control the aircraft based on air data such as airspeed and barometric altitude and rate gyro error sensing with feedback to maintain attitude. Outer loop control inputs are pilot inputs from the autopilot panel
2
inner loops control the aircraft attitude based on rate gyro error sensing and feedback to a control surface actuator. Outer loops are external inputs from air data which can be fed to the inner loop to achieve a desired flight profile
137
The component of the autopilot system which monitors the gyro sensing signal and ensures that the correct attitude reference is being maintained is -
1
the feedback comparitor
2
the servomotor
3
the control surface
4
the artificial feel
1
the feedback comparitor
138
In a pure turbojet, compared to a high by pass turbofan of the same thrust output, the rear (LP) turbine wheels are -
1
larger and rotate faster
2
smaller and rotate faster
3
larger and rotate slower
4
smaller and rotate slower
2
smaller and rotate faster
139
With regard to the cancellation of warnings and cautions in the Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System (EICAS) of a jet transport aircraft -
1
warnings and cautions can both be cancelled regardless of system status by using the cancel button
2
warnings and cautions may only be cancelled if the associated fault no longer exists
3
warnings are cancelled only when the condition is rectified but cautions may be cancelled using the cancel button
4
cautions are cancelled only when the condition is rectified but warnings may be cancelled using the cancel button
3
warnings are cancelled only when the condition is rectified but cautions may be cancelled using the cancel button
140
The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) modes which are able to generate both soft and hard warnings are -
1
excessive descent rate and below glideslope deviation
2
unsafe terrain clearance while not in the landing configuration and excessive terrain closure rate
3
excessive terrain closure rate and below glideslope deviation
4
excessive descent rate and excessive terrain closure rate
4
excessive descent rate and excessive terrain closure rate
141
With an increase in altitude the directional stability of an aircraft -
1
decreases
2
increases
3
increases if EAS is less than 1.5Vs
4
decreases if EAS is less than 1.5Vs
1
decreases
142
The primary purpose of a propeller brake fitted to a turboprop aircraft is -
1
to slow the propeller on descent
2
to allow the propeller to enter the groundfine range
3
to stop the propeller when in feather on the ground and rapidly decelerate the propeller after shutdown or when idling
4
to stop the propeller when in feather in the air
3
to stop the propeller when in feather on the ground and rapidly decelerate the propeller after shutdown or when idling
143
The nose attitude of an aircraft on approach with both the leading edge and trailing edge flaps extended as compared with only the trailing edge flaps would be -
1
lower
2
higher
3
the same
4
either higher or lower depending on the approach speed
2
higher
144
The correct statement regarding the purpose of a hydraulic accumulator is -
1
to act as a pressure reservoir
2
to reduce peak pump demand
3
to smooth out system pressure variation
4
to act as a fluid reservoir
3
to smooth out system pressure variation
145
A control surface activated by a main control linkage with a hinge moment causing deflection of the primary control surface is called a -
1
trim tab
2
spring loaded tab
3
servo tab
4
lagging tab
3
servo tab
146
In an aircraft equipped with three autopilots, the C autopilot fails.
Assuming all autopilots were engaged on a coupled approach, the failure would be indicated by -
1
a change in the autoland status annunciator (ASA) from LAND 3 to LAND 2
2
a synthetic voice warning
3
both autopilots disconnecting completely
4
all control panel lights extinguishing
1
a change in the autoland status annunciator (ASA) from LAND 3 to LAND 2
147
In comparison to an unswept wing, a swept wing will have a -
1
higer MAX CL at subsonic but lower MAX CL at supersonic speeds
2
lower MAX CL at subsonic but higher MAX CL at supersonic speeds
3
higher MAX CL only at subsonic speeds
4
lower MAX CL only at supersonic speeds
2
lower MAX CL at subsonic but higher MAX CL at supersonic speeds
148
In a hydraulic system with an operating pressure of 3000 PSI, the force exerted by a piston actuator measuring 25 cm x 25 cm is -
1
100 lb
2
300 lb
3
300000 lb
4
30000 lb
3
300000 lb
149
The indication that self sustaining speed has been achieved during the start cycle of a large gas turbine turbofan engine is -
1
the EGT first rises
2
the turbine first starts to drive the compressor
3
the starter disengages
4
the pressure starts to rise in the compressor
3
the starter disengages
150
Concerning a jet transport aircraft flying below the speed of sound -
1
there is no possibility of shockwave formation on the wings or fuselage of an aircraft in subsonic cruise
2
shockwaves may be present on the wings and fuselage due to local acceleration of the air
3
shockwaves are present at all times on an aircraft in subsonic cruise
4
shockwaves maybe present on the wings at any speed below MCRIT
2
shockwaves may be present on the wings and fuselage due to local acceleration of the air
151
Concerning a jet transport aircraft flying below the speed of sound -
1
there is no possibility of shockwave formation on the wings or fuselage of an aircraft in subsonic cruise
2
shockwaves may be present on the wings and fuselage due to local acceleration of the air
3
shockwaves are present at all times on an aircraft in subsonic cruise
4
shockwaves maybe present on the wings at any speed below MCRIT
2
shockwaves may be present on the wings and fuselage due to local acceleration of the air
152
The reason for the use of oil/fuel heat exchangers in the fuel system of a large turbine powered aircraft is -
1
to prevent fuel vaporisation
2
to prevent ice formation clogging the fuel lines
3
to prevent ice formation clogging the fuel filter
4
to heat the oil and prevent excessive viscosity
3
to prevent ice formation clogging the fuel filter
153
For a constant RPM in a gas turbine engine, a decrease in air density will result in -
1
increased fuel flow and increased thrust output
2
decreased fuel flow and increased thrust output
3
increased fuel flow and decreased thrust output
4
decreased fuel flow and decreased thrust output
4
decreased fuel flow and decreased thrust output
154
The two most critical factors in determining the in flight relight capability of a turbo jet engine are -
1
altitude and fuel pressure
2
fuel pressure and starter torque
3
igniter energy and starter torque
4
altitude and airspeed
4
altitude and airspeed
155
With regard to the operation of powered controls in an aircraft with 3 independent hydraulic systems consisting of 2 main systems plus a standby system -
1
all three systems supply the flight controls at all times providing automatic backup
2
only one system supplies the flight controls at any one time with the other systems providing backup automatically
3
the standby system only operates when selected to supply the flight controls in the event of a failure of one of the other systems
4
one system supplies the ailerons, one supplies the elevator and another supplies the rudder
3
the standby system only operates when selected to supply the flight controls in the event of a failure of one of the other systems
156
In a flight management system, conditional waypoints may be used when programming a flight.
The term conditional waypoint refers to -
1
a waypoint defined by an event or a condition which does not relate to a fixed geographical location
2
a manually entered waypoint without a name
3
a waypoint constructed by the crew which is not in the data base of the FMC
4
a waypoint which will only be overflown if certain in flight conditions are met
1
a waypoint defined by an event or a condition which does not relate to a fixed geographical location
157
A rupture of the starboard engine bleed air pneumatic duct, which supplies wing and engine anti ice will result in a DUCT LEAK caution message on the EICAS, and an associated DUCT LEAK light to illuminate.
The correct response to this situation would be to -
1
shut down the right hand side engine to prevent structural damage to the interior of the wing
2
isolate the leak and turn off the bleed source to prevent structural damage
3
increase bleed air flow on the left engine to ensure adequate supply for anti ice operation
4
decrease bleed air flow to prevent overheating of the interior wing structures
2
isolate the leak and turn off the bleed source to prevent structural damage
158
In a large jet transport category aircraft, the ailerons can be subjected to high loads at high speed.
To prevent excessive stress on the ailerons some aircraft designs incorporate -
1
an aileron lockout device and flight spoilers
2
yaw dampers
3
reverse thrust
4
powered controls
1
an aileron lockout device and flight spoilers
159
The **incorrect** statement concerning the effects of sweepback on aircraft performance is -
1
sweepback increases lateral stability
2
sweepback increases directional stability
3
sweepback increases trailing edge device effectiveness
4
sweepback increases the tendency for a wing to stall tip first
3
sweepback increases trailing edge device effectiveness
160
Stalling speed is relatively higher for an aircraft with wing sweep. This is because of the effective -
1
increase in chordwise airflow
2
decrease in chordwise airflow
3
decrease in spanwise airflow
4
increase in spanwise airflow
2
decrease in chordwise airflow
161
On a large jet transport aircraft, the Leading Edge Devices cannot be deployed.
The aircraft should approach at -
1
higher than normal speed and lower angle of attack
2
lower than normal speed and angle of attack
3
higher than normal speed and angle of attack
4
lower than normal speed and higher angle of attack
1
higher than normal speed and lower angle of attack
162
The **incorrect** statement is -
1
the take-off should be rejected before V1 if an engine fails
2
VR must always be greater than V1
3
V1 may be increased to a maximum of VR, if surplus runway/stopway is available
4
the take-off should not be rejected above V1 if an engine fails
2
VR must always be greater than V1
163
As altitude increases at constant EAS, for a large jet transport aircraft, spiral stability -
1
decreases
2
increases
3
remains the same
4
may increase or decrease, depending on aircraft type
2
increases
164
As altitude increases, for a large jet transport aircraft, with regard to stall speeds -
1
stall EAS increases, stall IAS decreases
2
stall EAS and stall IAS both increase with stall IAS increasing by a greater margin
3
stall EAS and stall IAS both decrease with stall EAS decreasing by a greater margin
4
stall EAS decreases, stall IAS increases
2
stall EAS and stall IAS both increase with stall IAS increasing by a greater margin
165
The primary purpose of leading and trailing edge flaps on jet transport aircraft is to -
1
increase drag to improve speed stability on the approach
2
improve visibility on the approach by permitting a high lift coefficient at a reasonable body angle
3
increase wing area
4
reduce landing and take-off speeds and distances required
4
reduce landing and take-off speeds and distances required
166
During a climb at constant Mach number, angle of attack will -
1
increase
2
decrease
3
remain constant
4
increase to the tropopause, then remain constant
1
increase
167
When an aircraft is climbed or descended using the Flight Level Change function of the auto flight system, with regard to the thrust settings used -
1
on climb, thrust is automatically set to max climb thrust and on descent, the throttles are automatically retarded to idle thrust
2
on climb or descent the thrust setting is determined according to the current IAS
3
in Flight Level Change mode, the autothrottle is disabled so all thrust settings must be manually selected by the pilot
4
on climb, thrust will be set to Max Continuous Thrust and on descent the thrust will be set to 50% N1
1
on climb, thrust is automatically set to max climb thrust and on descent, the throttles are automatically retarded to idle thrust
168
If an aircraft is flown with the centre of gravity ahead of the forward limit, it would display -
1
enhanced elevator authority
2
degraded elevator authority
3
improved lateral stability
4
decreased lateral stability
2
degraded elevator authority
169
The speed in a jet aircraft which is not controlled by auto throttle is -
1
vertical speed
2
approach speed
3
descent speed
4
engine rotation speed
5
cruise speed
1
vertical speed
170
Dynamic hydroplaning occurs as a result of the combination of -
1
aircraft weight and a wet runway
2
aircraft speed and locked brakes
3
aircraft speed, weight and a wet runway
4
aircraft speed, tyre pressure and a wet runway
4
aircraft speed, tyre pressure and a wet runway
171
With an increase in altitude, the longitudinal stability of an aircraft -
1
increases
2
decreases
3
remains constant
4
increases to the tropopause then decreases
2
decreases
172
A central air data computer (CADC) fitted to an aircraft receives -
1
static and pitot pressure from the pitot head and converts this data into electrical signals for instrument displays and use by the flight management system
2
electrical signals from the pitot head and converts this data into static and pitot pressure for instrument displays and use by the flight management system
3
static and pitot pressure from the instrument display and converts this data into electrical signals for the pitot head and use by the flight management system
4
static and pitot pressure from the flight management system and converts this data into electrical signals for instrument displays and use by the pitot head
1
static and pitot pressure from the pitot head and converts this data into electrical signals for instrument displays and use by the flight management system
173
The flight modes not able to be selected simultaneously on a typical autoflight system are -
1
THR HOLD, N1, V/S and FD
2
SPD, VNAV, LNAV and CMD
3
N1, V/S, HDG SEL and CMD
4
IDLE, G/S, LOC and F/D
1
THR HOLD, N1, V/S and FD
174
With regard to jet transport electrical systems -
1
with a split bus system the generators are always paralleled
2
with a parallel bus system the generators are paralleled
3
with a split bus system the generators are connected in series
4
with a parallel bus system the generators are connected in series
2 with a parallel bus system the generators are paralleled
175
On an aircraft with fully powered controls, manual reversion is required -
1
on all flight controls
2
on the rudder only
3
on the elevator only
4
unless triple redundancy is provided
4
unless triple redundancy is provided
176
On a turboprop aircraft the purpose of the safety coupling is to -
1
disconnect the propeller from the gearbox in the event of excessive negative torque
2
disconnect the engine from the gearbox in the event of excessive negative torque
3
disconnect the propeller from the gearbox in the event of excessive engine RPM
4
disconnect the engine from the gearbox in the event of excessive torque
2
disconnect the engine from the gearbox in the event of excessive negative torque
177
Airflow behind a normal (vertical) shockwave compared to ahead of the shock will have a decrease in -
1
static pressure
2
energy (total pressure)
3
density
4
temperature
2
energy (total pressure)
178
A Flight Management Computer (FMC) uses data from a variety of sources which may be termed internal or external.
An example of an external input would be -
1
airspeed
2
spiral stability
3
roll rate
4
pitch rate
1
airspeed
179
The thrust output of a turbojet powered aircraft be greatest -
1
on the brakes on the runway at full thrust
2
between V1 and VR on the runway during the takeoff roll
3
on climb at maximum thrust
4
at VMO/MMO
1
on the brakes on the runway at full thrust
180
The artificial feel system of a powered flight control system operates by feeding back control forces based on -
1
the difference between ambient pressure and dynamic pressure
2
the difference between static pressure and dynamic pressure
3
the difference between static pressure and pitot pressure
4
the difference between ambient pressure and total pressure
3
the difference between static pressure and pitot pressure
181
An aircraft hydraulic system that employs a constant displacement pump requires -
1
a piston type accumulator
2
an in-line reservoir
3
a double action hand pump
4
a pressure regulator
4
a pressure regulator
182
Various chemical methods are used in large jet aircraft to improve forward visibility in rain.
To ensure optimal performance of rain repellent fluid, it should be used -
1
only in conjunction with windshield wipers
2
only in light rain
3
periodically in heavy rain
4
prior to entering rain
3
periodically in heavy rain
183
The RPM of a gas turbine Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) in a large jet transport aircraft is controlled by -
1
the fuel governor
2
the speed sensitive switch
3
the tacho/gen
4
the throttle
1
the fuel governor
184
The fuel quantity indicating system on a modern jet transport aircraft may use capacitance type probes with compensators.
The compensators are designed to correct for variations in fuel -
1
temperature
2
density
3
volatility
4
viscosity
1
temperature
185
Regarding aileron reversal -
1
aileron reversal can be reduced by increasing airspeed
2
aileron reversal can be aggravated by increasing wing stiffness
3
aileron reversal can be reduced by the use of inboard ailerons
4
aileron reversal can be aggravated by the use of spoilers
3
aileron reversal can be reduced by the use of inboard ailerons
186
An advantage of NICAD batteries in an aircraft installation compared to lead acid batteries is -
1
no dangerous gases
2
no need for ventilation
3
greater load carrying capabilities
4
faster recharge cycle
4
faster recharge cycle
187
Regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady climb -
1
lift equals weight and thrust equals drag
2
lift is greater than weight and thrust is greater than drag
3
lift is less than weight and thrust is less than drag
4
lift is less than weight and thrust is greater than drag
4
lift is less than weight and thrust is greater than drag
188
The component of the autopilot system which safeguards against a servomotor runaway is -
1
the artificial feel
2
the trim system
3
the comparitor
4
the torque limiter
4
the torque limiter
189
The tracks provided between waypoints by the Flight Management Computer in a jet transport aircraft are -
1
great circles
2
rhumb lines
3
constant bearings
4
varying bearings
1
great circles
190
Concerning aircraft CG position -
1
at the aft limit the aircraft is less stable
2
at the aft limit the aircraft is more stable
3
at the forward limit the aircraft is less stable
4
the position of the CG has no effect on aircraft stability
1
at the aft limit the aircraft is less stable
191
If X is the speed for the maximum L/D ratio, the speed you would fly at for best angle of climb is -
1
X
2
greater than X
3
less than X
4
1.32 times X
1
X
192
The APU compressor mass air flow is greater than needed to run itself -
1
because of the extra cooling needed
2
because it needs to supply the hydraulic system
3
so that bleed air is available in large quantities for use by the pneumatic system
4
to keep the exhaust noise to reasonable levels
3
so that bleed air is available in large quantities for use by the pneumatic system
193
Flap should not be lowered at high flight levels.
One reason for this is -
1
the possibility of CAT
2
flap extension speed may be below the aircraft stall speed at high altitude
3
the increased effective wing camber would lead to early shockwave formation
4
the flap mechanism is disabled above FL150
2
flap extension speed may be below the aircraft stall speed at high altitude
194
You are about to descend through cloud containing heavy freezing rain.
The best descent configuration to minimise the risk of airframe ice in these conditions is -
1
engine RPM at idle and speedbrakes out
2
engine RPM at idle and speedbrakes in
3
engine RPM up slightly and speedbrakes out
4
engine RPM up slightly and speedbrakes in
3
engine RPM up slightly and speedbrakes out
195
The GPWS will provide no warning for -
1
excessive sink rate near the ground
2
an early touchdown in the landing configuration
3
going below the glidepath
4
sink rate after take-off
2
an early touchdown in the landing configuration
196
Weather radar returns may be displayed on the EHSI when -
1
in Map, VOR or ILS with an expanded compass scale selected
2
a full compass scale has been selected
3
in any mode
4
in Map mode only
1
in Map, VOR or ILS with an expanded compass scale selected
197
On a conventional flight director panel (not EFIS), regarding the difference between the APP AUTO mode and APP MAN mode -
1
APP AUTO mode arms capture of the ILS and GS when on an intercept heading and APP MAN mode commands an immediate capture of the ILS and GS with a selected intercept heading and a descent to acquire the glideslope from above
2
there is no difference between the modes for ILS capture but GS will not be captured from below in APP MAN
3
APP MAN mode arms capture of the ILS and GS when on an intercept heading and APP AUTO mode commands an immediate capture of the ILS and GS with a selected intercept heading and a descent to acquire the glideslope from above
4
there is no difference between the modes for ILS capture but GS will not be captured from above in APP MAN
1
APP AUTO mode arms capture of the ILS and GS when on an intercept heading and APP MAN mode commands an immediate capture of the ILS and GS with a selected intercept heading and a descent to acquire the glideslope from above
198
In a turbo jet, the right engine fails after takeoff in IMC. The pilot maintains balance control of the aircraft with rudder input and 5 degrees bank towards the live engine. The bank minimises the -
1
weight side force
2
assymetric thrust
3
side slip force
4
torque effect
3
side slip force
199
The component of an aircraft electrical system providing the initial excitation field for a constant speed PMG type alternator is -
1
the permanent magnet generator or pilot exciter
2
the main exciter
3
the static inverter
4
there is no initial excitation required with an alternator
the permanent magnet generator or pilot exciter
200
The autothrottle mode which will not provide the FMC commanded thrust setting is -
1
THR HOLD
2
N1
3
SPD
4
IDLE
1
THR HOLD
201
The specific gravity (SG) of a particular turbine fuel is 0.787.
This means that -
1
100 kg of the fuel will occupy a volume of 78.7 lt
2
100 lt of the fuel will weigh 78.7 kg
3
1000 kg of the fuel will occupy a volume of 787 lt
4
1000 lt of the fuel will weigh 78.7 kg
2
100 lt of the fuel will weigh 78.7 kg
202
In an aircraft equipped with two flight management computers and the EHSI's selected to map mode, a failure of the Captain's (L) FMC will cause -
1
the Captain's Map display on the EHSI to be supplied automatically from the opposite side FMC, with an FMC FAIL message on the EHSI
2
the Captain's Map display to show a map flag, with an FMC FAIL message on the CDU. The map display can be restored by selecting the alternate (ALTN) FMC switch, which feeds the Captain's map display from the opposite side FMC
3
the Captain's Map display to show an FMC FAIL flag, with an FMC fail message on the CDU. The map display is automatically restored by data from the opposite side FMC
4
the Captain's Map display to go blank, with a map fail message on the CDU. The map display can be restored by selecting the alternate (ALTN) map switch, which feeds the Captain's map display from the opposite side EHSI
2
the Captain's Map display to show a map flag, with an FMC FAIL message on the CDU. The map display can be restored by selecting the alternate (ALTN) FMC switch, which feeds the Captain's map display from the opposite side FMC
203
The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) fitted to a particular aircraft alerts the flight crew when one of the following mode thresholds are exceeded between 50 ft and 2450 ft radio altitude:
1 excessive descent rate
2 excessive terrain closure rate
3 altitude loss after take off or go around
4 unsafe terrain clearance while not in the landing configuration
5 below glideslope deviation
A 'WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP' aural warning can be given by -
1
modes 1, 2 and 5
2
modes 2 and 4
3
all modes
4
modes 1 and 2
4
modes 1 and 2
204
With regard to a conventional flight instrument display when an aircraft is on an ILS -
1
no manual pitch control is available
2
altitude hold is not available
3
the TO/FROM indicator covered by a red warning flag
4
the TO/FROM indicator is not displayed
4
the TO/FROM indicator is not displayed
205
As altitude increases, the indicated minimum control speed airborne VMCA with the critical engine inoperative and the other engine(s) at maximum continuous thrust, will -
1
increase as directional stability decreases
2
decrease up to the altitude where the stall speed becomes the limiting factor
3
remain constant
4
increase or decrease, depending on aircraft and engine type
2
decrease up to the altitude where the stall speed becomes the limiting factor
206
The pilot of a large, heavy aircraft on approach to land with an excessively aft CG will experience -
1
heavy elevator controls and decreased pitch stability
2
heavy elevator controls and increased pitch stability
3
light elevator controls and decreased pitch stability
4
light elevator controls and increased pitch stability
3
light elevator controls and decreased pitch stability
207
In an aircraft flying beyond M CRIT, turbulence felt through the elevator controls is likely to be due to -
1
high speed stall
2
high speed buffet
3
symptoms of MMO
4
Mach tuck
2
high speed buffet
208
In a supersonic air stream, the static pressure behind the expansion wave -
1
decreases
2
increases
3
experiences no change
4
increases then decreases
5
increases to ambient static pressure
decreases
209
The auto pilot depends on devices to measure aircraft attitude changes so that information may be used to achieve controlled flight. Accelerometers assist in a -
1
coordinated turn
2
set rate of climb and descent
3
coordinated climb and descent
4
level turn
2
set rate of climb and descent
210
On an EADI the ATT flag appears. Other affected elements of the display are -
1
pitch and roll information and airspeed
2
pitch and roll information, flight director bars and glideslope and localiser deviation
3
all display symbols
4
pitch and roll information and flight director bars
4
pitch and roll information and flight director bars
211
The highest gas pressure in a gas turbine engine is found -
1
at the combustion chamber entry
2
at the compressor inlet
3
at the nozzle guide vanes
4
in the exhaust duct
1
at the combustion chamber entry
212
With regard to the thrust output of a jet engine -
1
approximately 50% of the thrust is produced by the top 50% of RPM
2
approximately 50% of the thrust is produced by the top 25% of RPM
3
approximately 50% of the thrust is produced by the top 10% of RPM
4
approximately 50% of the thrust is produced by the top 5% of RPM
2
approximately 50% of the thrust is produced by the top 25% of RPM
213
Buffet boundaries for a jet transport category aircraft will increase with an increase in -
1
altitude
2
gross weight
3
mach number
4
fuel burn
4
fuel burn
214
A method of airflow control in an axial flow compressor of a gas turbine engine is -
1
variable nozzle guide vanes
2
variable propelling nozzles
3
variable stator vanes
4
variable rotor blades
3
variable stator vanes
215
The CSD of a large jet aircraft electrical system is required to control -
1
DC generator output to ensure maximum load sharing capacity
2
AC generator output to ensure maximum load sharing capacity
3
AC generator output to ensure a constant output frequency
4
DC generator output to ensure a constant output frequency
3
AC generator output to ensure a constant output frequency
216
Vortex generators may be used on the wings of a high speed aircraft to delay the onset of compressibility buffet and high speed drag associated with shock induced flow separation.
In this case the vortex generators are placed on -
1
the upper wing surface only
2
the lower wing surface only
3
surfaces which do not suffer from high speed drag problems
4
both the upper and lower wing surfaces
1
the upper wing surface only
217
The nosewheel centering system of large jet aircraft operates to straighten the nose wheel -
1
prior to gear retraction
2
during gear retraction
3
after gear retraction
4
prior to gear extension
1
prior to gear retraction
218
Gas turbine engine mass air flow is governed primarily by -
1
the number of combustion chambers, the number of compressor stages and the turbine inlet temperature
2
the RPM, the number of compressor stages and the turbine inlet temperature
3
the turbine inlet temperature, the RPM and the number of combustion chambers
4
the RPM, the airspeed and the air density
4
the RPM, the airspeed and the air density
219
The angle of attack of compressor blades in a gas turbine engine depends primarily on -
1
compressor outlet pressure, air temperature and density
2
compressor inlet pressure, indicated airspeed and RPM
3
true airspeed, RPM and compressor outlet pressure
4
compressor inlet temperature, indicated airspeed and RPM
3
true airspeed, RPM and compressor outlet pressure
220
The hydraulic reservoir in a jet aircraft hydraulic system is pressurised by bleed air to -
1
reduce foaming as altitude increases
2
ensure a positive fluid supply to the pumps at all times
3
maintain hydraulic fluid temperature at the required level
4
pressurise the supply lines to the using systems
2
ensure a positive fluid supply to the pumps at all times
221
The inlet duct of a jet engine at subsonic speeds is designed to convert -
1
kinetic energy into pressure energy
2
potential energy into kinetic energy
3
kinetic energy into potential energy
4
potential energy into pressure energy
1
kinetic energy into pressure energy
222
On the MAP mode of the B767 EHSI display, the aircraft current position is depicted by -
1
the apex of the triangle symbol
2
the base of the triangle symbol
3
the centre of the triangle symbol
4
different symbols at different ranges
1
the apex of the triangle symbol
223
On the MAP mode of the B767 EHSI display the track trend vector shows -
1
the predicted path of the aircraft over the ground based on current bank angle and groundspeed using segments representing 30, 60 and 90 second time intervals
2
the angle of bank required for a rate one turn based on current airspeed
3
the recommended entry procedure for a holding pattern (direct, offset, parallel) based on track crossing the holding fix
4
the recommended entry procedure for a holding pattern (direct, offset, parallel) based on heading crossing the holding fix
1
the predicted path of the aircraft over the ground based on current bank angle and groundspeed using segments representing 30, 60 and 90 second time intervals
224
In an aircraft equipped with 2 Electronic Attitude Director Indicators (EADIs) and 2 Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicators (EHSIs), one each for the captain and first officer, the number of Symbol Generators (SGs) required is -
1
three
2
two
3
one
4
four
1
three
225
The incorrect statement regarding the purpose of a hydraulic accumulator is -
1
to act as a pressure reservoir
2
to reduce peak pump demand
3
to smooth out system pressure variation
4
to act as a fluid reservoir
4
to act as a fluid reservoir
226
The angle of attack of compressor blades in a gas turbine engine depends primarily on -
1
compressor outlet pressure, air temperature and density
2
compressor inlet pressure, indicated airspeed and RPM
3
true airspeed, RPM and compressor outlet pressure
4
compressor inlet temperature, indicated airspeed and RPM
3
true airspeed, RPM and compressor outlet pressure
227
Comparing a swept wing aircraft and a straight wing aircraft both with an increasing angle of attack -
1
the swept wing aircraft will have a greater drag increase and a lesser lift increase
2
the swept wing aircraft will have a greater drag increase and a greater lift increase
3
the swept wing aircraft will have a lesser drag increase and a greater lift increase
4
the swept wing aircraft will have a lesser drag increase and a lesser lift increase
1
the swept wing aircraft will have a greater drag increase and a lesser lift increase
228
Concerning the effect of increasing altitude on the spiral stability of a particular aircraft -
1
spiral stability increases with increase in altitude
2
spiral stability decreases with increase in altitude
3
spiral stability remains the same with increase in altitude
4
spiral stability only changes with changing CG position
1
spiral stability increases with increase in altitude
229
The item of jet engine performance that remains constant in a climb if the thrust lever position remains unchanged is -
1
N1 RPM
2
EGT
3
EPR
4
Fuel Flow
1
N1 RPM
230
The speed of operation of pneumatic brake systems compared to a hydraulic brake systems is -
1
faster for application and increased pressure for the same operating pressure
2
slower for application and increased pressure for the same operating pressure
3
faster for application and less pressure for the same operating pressure
4
slower for application and less force transmitted for the same operating pressure
4
slower for application and less force transmitted for the same operating pressure
231
Regarding the EHSI, the difference between the display in Plan and Map mode is -
1
Plan is the normally used display and shows information against a moving map background
2
Plan shows a static map background with the FMC flight plan displayed without current track and heading information
3
Plan shows a static map background with the FMC flight plan displayed with the current track and heading information at the top of the screen
4
Map shows the flight plan displayed against a small scale map of the route to be flown
4
Map shows the flight plan displayed against a small scale map of the route to be flown
232
Compresser stall/surge will cause
RPM
FUEL FLOW
EGT
RPM FALL
FUEL FLOW RISE
EGT RISE
233
The correct air to fuel mixture ratio is?
15:1
234
The effect of an increase in altitude alone will have on the Low Pressure compressor of a gas turbine engine if constant thrust is maintained is?
1 it will stall more readily
2 discharge pressure will increase
3 rpm will decrease
4 rpm will increase
4 rpm will increase
235
Ram effect
1- has a negligible effect on the efficiency of a jet engine as aircraft speed varies
2- lowers the efficiency of a jet engine as aircraft speed increases
3- raises the thrust output of a jet engine as aircraft speed increases
4- cools the air as it enters the engine intake
3- raises the thrust output of a jet engine as aircraft speed increases
236
In passing through the turbine section of a pure turbojet engine -
1 gas pressure, velocity and temp decrease
2 gas pressure increases, velocity falls and temp increases
3 gas pressure remains constant and temp increases
4 gas pressure reduces, velocity increases and temp decreases
4 gas pressure reduces, velocity increases and temp decreases
237
Most modern turbofan engines have two or more spools because
1 this allows the compressors to run closer to their ideal RPM
2 manufacturing is made simpler and cheaper
3 maintenance is simplified
4 shaft strength is increased
1 this allows the compressors to run closer to their ideal RPM
238
An ideal jet engine air intake delivers air to the compressor with
1 no turbulence and pressure lower than ambient
2 no turbulence and temperature higher than ambient
3 no turbulence and velocity higher than ambient
4 no turbulence and pressure higher than ambient
4 no turbulence and pressure higher than ambient
239
Air that is bypassed through a turbofan engine
1 goes to the rear of the of the combustion chamber for cooling
2 does not pass through the compressor
3 is stored for later use
4 is used to drive the air turbine
2 does not pass through the compressor
240
One compressor bleed outlet is for cabin pressurisation and air conditioning. Another is used to
1 reduce combustion chamber back pressure
2 give balance to the air loses
3 prevent compressor stall and surge when operating off design RPM
4 cool the brakes
3 prevent compressor stall and surge when operating off design RPM
241
The row of stator blades after each row of rotating in compressor blades is designed to
1 longitudinally balance the engine
2 stop the swirl that would otherwise form
3 convert kinetic energy into pressure energy
4 increase the velocity of the air
3 convert kinetic energy into pressure energy
242
A turbofan is more efficient than a turbojet because
1 it accelerates a relatively large mass of air to a relatively low velocity
2 it accelerates a relatively small mass of air to a relatively high velocity
3 it accelerates a relatively small mass of air to a relatively low velocity
4 it accelerates a relatively large mass of air to a relatively high velocity
1 it accelerates a relatively large mass of air to a relatively low velocity
243
Apart from bigger, stronger blades a turbofan enjoys better FOD protection than a pure turbojet because
1 these engines have intake screens
2 most of the air bypasses the engine
3 most FOD are smaller than the blades
4 the engine RPM is lower
2 most of the air bypasses the engine
244
A turbofan is not as efficient as a turboprop at low speeds. This is because the turbofan has
1 A lower airmass accelerated to a lower velocity
2 A higher airmass accelerated to a higher velocity
3 A lower airmass accelerated to a higher velocity
4 A higher airmass accelerated to a lower velocity
3 A lower airmass accelerated to a higher velocity
245
A turboprop cannot operate at high speeds of a turbofan because the turboprop has
1 inadequate power output
2 gearbox rpm limitations
3 shockwaves at prop blade tips at high Mach number
4 no wing sweep
3 shockwaves at prop blade tips at high Mach number
246
A free turbine turboprop uses a smaller starter motor than other turboprops because
1 of the need to save weight
2 of the simpler design
3 only the engine core is rotated for starting
4 the engine as a whole is lighter
3 only the engine core is rotated for starting
247
One way to increase performance of a jet engine would be to
1 introduce the air into the engine at low speed
2 increase the engine operating temperature
3 alter the angle of the nozzle guide vanes
4 reduce the engine operating RPM
2 increase the engine operating temperature
248
Of a turbofans total air intake 20% passes through the core. This bypass ratio would be closest to
1 4:1
2 5:1
3 1:4
4 1:5
1 4:1
249
Turboprops are designed for which type of flying
1 high speed long
2 low speed short
3 high speed short
4 low speed long
2 low speed short
250
An aircraft may need to dump fuel. To ensure that the total fuel supply is not dumped
1 manual shut off fuel when enough has been dumped
2 automatic shut off fuel when a preset amount has been dumped
3 use of standpipes in the fuel dumping system
4 use a timer controlled cut off switch
3 use of standpipes in the fuel dumping system
251
A turbofan produces less thrust at take off than a similar sized turboprop because
1 a turboprop is very efficient at modestly accelerating a large mass of air
2 prop blades can bite the air faster
3 the fan is experiencing mach number interference at take off rpm
4 turbofan cant take off at full thrust for noise considerations
1 a turboprop is very efficient at modestly accelerating a large mass of air
252
With a CSU turboprop engine power output in controlled by fuel flow. The pilot controls this by
1 control of the fuel flow control unit
2 control of the prop blade angle
3 control of the CSU
4 direct control of air fuel ratio
1 control of the fuel flow control unit
253
The primary engine power gauge of a turboprop is
1 fuel flow
2 engine temp gauge
3 TRQ
4 EPR gauge
3 TRQ
254
One reason jet aircraft use kerosene and not avgas is that kerosene has
1 a higher flashpoint
2 less calorific value
3 less viscosity
4 less chemical instability
1 a higher flashpoint
255
The APU of a b767 may be operated
1 in flight only
2 on the ground only
3 whenever it is required
4 anytime, but only if monitored by an on board crew member
3 whenever it is required
256
The purpose of the fuel system filter bypass is
1 to save wear on the filter when the fuel is warm
2 to ensure fuel flow even when the filter is blocked
3 to maintain a constant pressure differential
4 to recirc fuel
2 to ensure fuel flow even when the filter is blocked
257
If a turbojet thrust lever unlocked light comes on during flight
1 the situation is not potentially serious, keep an eye on it
2 the situation is potentially serious, be prepared to reduce thrust if the level comes up
3 the situation is not series as it is impossible for a reverser to deploy in flight
4 the situation is potentially critical shut down the engine if yaw loss of airspeed or buffet is detected
4 the situation is potentially critical shut down the engine if yaw loss of airspeed or buffet is detected
258
The main reason for stating upper limit fuel temp
1 allow greatest temp rise through engine
2 ensure fuel lubricant properties are maintained
3 to stop chemical breakdown
4 to ensure vapour release (vapour lock) does not occur
4 to ensure vapour release (vapour lock) does not occur
259
An APU auto shutdown will not be caused by
1 overspeed
2 underspeed
3 low oil pressure
4 fire
2 underspeed
260
the apu does not directly provide
1 shaft power to drive electric gen
2 hydraulic pressure
3 bleed air for air con
4 bleed air for pneumatics
2 hydraulic pressure
261
An in flight problem a turbine engine with low flight idling RPM may have is
1 excessive turbine temp in climb in cruise
2 flame out on descent
3 excessive rapid acceleration
4 maximum rpm not available
2 flame out on descent
262
Air turbine starters for gas turbine engines normally
1 cannot be used if the apu of another engine or compressed air source is available
2 have a cockpit light to warn of low air pressure
3 are used on small turbine engines
4 can be used to supply the pneumatic system
1 cannot be used if the apu of another engine or compressed air source is available
263
The safeguards to prevent inadvertent engine thrust reverser deployment in flight are
1 through crew training
2 an autostow mechanism and mechanical and electrical interlocks and isolation valves which prevent full reverse thrust unless the thrust levers are at idle and the reversers are fully deployed
3 hydraulic pressure required to activate deployment
4 guarded buttons
2 an autostow mechanism and mechanical and electrical interlocks and isolation valves which prevent full reverse thrust unless the thrust levers are at idle and the reversers are fully deployed
264
The a gas turbine engine with a free power turbine
1 the free power turbine is independent of the other engine spools
2 the free power turbine drives the compressor
3 a free power turbine wheel is independent of all other turbine wheels
4 the free power turbine is driven by the compressor
1 the free power turbine is independent of the other engine spools
265
The advantages of an axial flow compressor compared to a centrifugal flow compressor of the same frontal area are
1 ruggedness and compactness
2 higher pressure ratios and greater mass airflow
3 high resistence to FOD
4 higher SFC
2 higher pressure ratios and greater mass airflow
266
A TRQ meter in a turboprop is required for the operation of
1 autofeather
2 beta
3 pitch lock
4 prop governor
1 autofeather
267
Regarding the measurement of temperature in a gas turbine engine
1 EGT measures turbine entry gas temp
2 TOT measures combustion gas temp
3 JPT measures jet pipe gas temp
4 ITT measures compressor outlet temp
3 JPT measures jet pipe gas temp
268
Function of negative torque system in a turboprop is to
1 disconnect prop from gearbox in the event of overspeed
2 increase prop blade angle to prevent the turbine from being driven by the propeller
3 prevent the prop from reversing its direction
4 stop the PNF from accidentally feathering engines
2 increase prop blade angle to prevent the turbine from being driven by the propeller
269
The EPR gauge in a jet aircraft measure
1 pressure intake through engine
2 pressure ratio between the exhaust air and intake (ambient) air
3 the pressure ratio between the compressor and combustion chamber
4 torque on main drive shaft
2 pressure ratio between the exhaust air and intake (ambient) air
270
The n1 gauge on turbofan indicates
1 fan rpm
2 high pressure compressor temp
3 turbine speed
4 turbine temp
1 fan rpm
271
A turbofan climbs through the tropopause thrust will
1 increase
2 remain constant
3 reduce at the same rate below the trop
4 reduce at a greater rate compared to below the tropopause
4 reduce at a greater rate compared to below the tropopause
272
In a turboprop the term powerplant refers to
1 the compressor combustion chamber and turbine
2 gas turbine engine gearbox and prop
3 gas turbine engine gearbox
4 prop and gearbox
2 gas turbine engine, gearbox and prop
273
The reverse thrust system on a turbojet aircraft has interlocks to prevent
1 full reverse thrust from being applied at low speed
2 full reverse thrust until the reversers are in the full reverse position
3 the prop from going into negative pitch
4 the fan from reversing direction in flight
2 full reverse thrust until the reversers are in the full reverse position
274
With reference to a gas turbine engine
1 TIT is the temp of the gas between the HP and LP compressor
2 EGT is the temp of the gas entering the turbine
3 JPT is the temp of the gas exiting the combustion chamber
4 TGT is the temp of the gas between the turbine stages
5 N2 is the temp of the gas at the front of the high pressure compressor
4 TGT is the temp of the gas between the turbine stages
275
A b727 is maintaining a constant flight level and the TAS is increased from 180 to 460kt thrust available at max thrust is
1 increase
2 decrease
3 increase then decrease
4 decrease then increase
3 increase then decrease
276
the flow flow transmitter on a large jet is loaded?
1 inlet to high pressure pump
2 outlet to high pressure pump
3 inlet to fuel control unit
4 outlet from fuel control unit
4 outlet from fuel control unit
277
As the thrust levers of a turbojet engined aircraft are advanced for take off
1 airflow increases causing higher fuel flow and rpm
2 fuel flow increases causing a higher egt and increased rpm
3 egt increases causing a higher mass airflow and increassed fuel flow
4 thrust increases causing increase exhaust gas velocity
2 fuel flow increases causing a higher egt and increased rpm
278
The pressure rise in the centrifugal compressor of a gas turbine occurs
1 impeller only
2 diffuser only
3 impeller and diffuser
4 the stator vanes
3 impeller and diffuser
279
On a wet day takeoff in a jet engine the igniter plugs may be selected to continuous ignition. In this case the spark will be
1 high value low volt to prevent overheating nozzle
2 low value high voltage to preserve the igniter plus and ignition unit
3 high value at high voltage to ensure fast relight in the event of a flame out
4 low value low volt to conserve power
2 low value high voltage to preserve the igniter plus and ignition unit
280
The design feature which not an advantage of an annular combustion chamber design in a modern gas turbine compared to other multi chamber designs is
1 improved combustion efficiency
2 less cooling air required
3 elimination of flame propagation problems
4 compact
5 greater structural integrity
5 greater structural integrity
it is NOT more structurally sound
281
A particular turbine fuel has a specific gravity of .8 at a given temperature. A temperature rise of 20 degrees will result in a calorific value for a fuel which is
1 the same energy value as for the original temp per litre of fuel
2 the same energy value as for the original temp per kg of fuel
3 less energy than for the original temp per kg of fuel
4 more energy than for the original temp per kg of fuel
5 more energy than for the original temp per litre of fuel
2 the same energy value as for the original temp per kg of fuel
282
The function of the torque meter in a turboprop powered aircraft is to
1 brake the prop
2 feather the prop
3 lock the propeller at the fine pitch lock
4 monitor shaft output power
4 monitor shaft output power
283
Boost pumps in the fuel system of a large jet transport category aircraft are generally
1 piston
2 variable displacement
3 gear type or impeller type
4 plunger type
3 gear type or impeller type
284
The effect of a change in temp on the specific gravity of AVTUR is
1 variations in temp have no effect on SG
2 specific gravity increases as temp increases
3 specific gravity decreases as temp decreases
3 specific gravity decreases as temp decreases
285
Air in the combustion chamber is slowed to
1 provide better mixture for combustion
2 reduce possibility of flameout
3 contain flame in small area
4 keep combustion area cool
2 reduce possibility of flameout
286
Turbine fuel requires
1 high viscosity
2 high calorific value
3 high compressibility
4 low chemical stability
2 high calorific value
287
When climbing at a constant Mach number the CAS will
1decrease if temp decreases
2 decrease
3 decrease if the temp increases
4 increase
5 remain constant
2 decrease
288
When climbing at a constant Mach number the TAS will
1decrease if temp decreases
2 decrease
3 decrease if the temp increases
4 increase
5 remain constant
1decrease if temp decreases
289
As an aircraft accelerates from subsonic to supersonic to Cd will
1 increase
2 decrease
3 increase then decrease
4 decrease then increase
5 remain constant
3 increase then decrease
290
The variable most directly affecting the speed of sound is
1 density
2 pressure
3 altitude
4 temp
4 temp
291
For high subsonic speeds the reason best to delay the formation of wing shockwaves is
1 minimise noise
2 keep drag penalty to a minimum
3 so that mach trimmers are not required
4 to stop tailplane vibration
2 keep drag penalty to a minimum
292
Fast transport aircraft may have a supercritical wing section. This is to
1 give maximum lift at low speed
2 give maximum lift at high speed
3 reduce the top wing surface acceleration
4 reduce the bottom wing surface acceleration
3 reduce the top wing surface acceleration
293
An aircraft is slowly accelerating through its Mcrit to transonic cruise. the Co of L
1 decrease then increase
2 increase then decrease
3 keeps increasing
4 keeps decreasing
2 increase then decrease
294
Jet aircraft maximum rate of climb Vy is determined by
1 thrust over weight
2 drag over thrust
3 excess power over weight
4 excess power over drag
3 excess power over weight
295
Vs is
1 minimum steady flight speed
2 stall speed
3 the sinking speed
1 minimum steady flight speed
296
You want your jet aircraft to stay airborne as long as possible. You would achieve this by flying -
1 at the appropriate holding speed at any level
2 at an altitude where use of the engine design RPM would result in a speed of Vimd
3 as high as possible at a speed of 1.32 Vimd
4 as low as possible at a speed of Vimd
2 at an altitude where use of the engine design RPM would result in a speed of Vimd
297
To achieve maximum angle of climb, you would climb at
1Vmo using max cruise power
2 Vs using maximum climb power
3 Vref using max thrust
4 Vimd using maximum thrust
4 Vimd using maximum thrust
298
Va is
manoeuvring
299
Swept wing employ a stick pusher which operates at
1 Vs 1.3
2 10 kt above stalling
3 the speed below which controlled level flight is not sustainable
4 15 degrees AoA
3 the speed below which controlled level flight is not sustainable
300
Jet aircraft overspeed warnings occur at
1 At Vmo/Mmo
2 slightly above Vmo/Mmo
3 slightly below Vmo/Mmo
4 slightly below Vdf/Mdf
2 slightly above Vmo/Mmo
301
Airflow through a shockwave will experience
1 a decrease in temp, density and pressure but an increase in velocity
2 a decrease in temp density pressure and velocity
3 an increase in temp density pressure and velocity
4 an increase in temp, density and pressure but a decrease in velocity
4 an increase in temp, density and pressure but a decrease in velocity
302
Jet aircraft SAR as as comparison of air distance per tonne of fuel consumed would be expressed in the form
1 10anm/100kg
2 100anm/1000kg
3 1anm/10kg
4 10kg/anm
2 100anm/1000kg
303
Optimum range is achieved by flying at
1 a constant flight level 1.32 Vimd and max cruise RPM
2 a cruise climb 1.32 Vimd and max continuous RPM
3 a constant flight level 1.32 Vimd and design RPM
4 a cruise climb 1.32 Vimd and design RPM
4 a cruise climb 1.32 Vimd and design RPM
304
Climb IAS decreases with increased altitude because
1 maximum excess power occurs at a lower IAS at high altitude
2 maximum excess power occurs at a lower TAS at high altitude
3 a constant AoA is required
4 the engines are producing less thrust as altitude increases
1 maximum excess power occurs at a lower IAS at high altitude
305
A jet aircraft climbs at a certain mach number after a certain altitude has been reached because
1 we need to maintain a constant AoA
2 This equates with the required reducing IAS and to prevent Mach overspeed
3 This equates with the required reducing TAS
4 the IAS is too low to use accurately
2 This equates with the required reducing IAS and to prevent Mach overspeed
306
If required to cruise at a level with significant headwind when max range is required is required?
1 you would fly faster than the theoretical maximum range speed because you need to arrive with planned reserves in tact
2 you would fly faster than the nil wind maximum range speed because you need to achieve the best GS/Drag ratio
2 you would fly faster than the nil wind maximum range speed because you need to achieve the best GS/Drag ratio
307
In a steady climb compared to nil wind a headwind will affect
1 rate of climb only
2 angle of climb and rate of climb
3 neither rate or angle of climb
4 angle of climb only
4 angle of climb only
308
Va is
1 fixed for all weights and alts
2 higher at higher gross weights and lower at lower gross weights
2 higher at higher gross weights and lower at lower gross weights
309
As airflow passes through a normal shockwave
1 velocity changes from subsonic to supersonic with no change in direction
2 velocity changes from supersonic to subsonic with no change in direction
2 velocity changes from supersonic to subsonic with no change in direction
310
Concerning slotted and fowler flaps
1 slotted flaps increase the camber and preserve the energy in the boundary layer while fowler flaps increase the camber and chord
311
312
Q14 The component in the hydraulic system which can prevent excessive hydraulic fluid loss is the -
A priority valve
B check valve
C pressure relief valve
D hydraulic fuse
D hydraulic fuse
313
In gas turbine engines, effective thrust output during reverse thrust is less than forward thrust
because during reverse the -
A exhaust gas discharge angle is aerodynamically limited
B engine rpm is limited to 70% N1
C turbine is not as effective due to build up of back pressure
D ingestion of exhaust gas causes compressor stall and loss of engine thrust
A exhaust gas discharge angle is aerodynamically limited
314
922 In a conventional flight instrument system in an aircraft, the autopilot altitude hold information
comes from -
A the captain's altimeter
B the co-pilot's altimeter
Cthe Air Data Computer (ADC
D the autopilot aneroid
D the autopilot aneroid
315
In an B767 with three autopilots, for a fail operational autoland approach, the number of electrical systems required is -
1 AC/DC system
2 AC/DC systems
3 AC/DC systems
4 AC/ DC systems
3 AC/DC systems
316
In a B767 EFI system, if the Heading Reference Switch is selected to TRUE, and the aeroplane is flying from SYDNEY to PERTH, the following EHSI mode which will NOT display TRUE track UP is -
A plan
B map
C VOR
C VOR
317
Hot air for engine and nacelle anti-icing is normally obtained from the -
A high pressure compressor stage
B Low pressure compressor stages
Cturbine outlet
D compressor outlet
B Low pressure compressor stages
318
The environmental variable which will result in an increased Vmca in a multi-engine aeroplane is an increase in -
A temperature
B density
C pressure altitude
D humidity
B density
319
A b767 is in crise with stabiliser trim set correctly for a relatively forward Centre of Gram, position of the elevator would be
A up
B down
C faired
D automatically adiusted by the autopilot
C faired
320
An increase in gross weight will cause the position of the total drag curve to move -
A up and left
Bup and right
Bup and right
321
The deployment of spoilers will cause the position of the total drag curve to move -
A up and left
B up and right
B up and right
322
More range will be achieved in a gas turbine powered aircraft with -
A 1 kg of AVTUR
B 1L of AVTUR
C neither, the range is the same for both
D either, it depends on the temperature
A 1 kg of AVTUR
323
In the event of total hydraulic failure with nose wheel steering, safety valves (emergency valves) .
Acentralise the nose wheel
Blimit the angle of turn
C allow the nose wheel to swivel
D prevent nosewheel shimmy
C allow the nose wheel to swivel
324
The function of a pneumatic restrictor valve in an large aircraft pneumatic system is to -
adjust the speed of the air flow
adjust the speed of the air flow
325
The type of rectifiers normally used in large aircraft AC generators to provide DC for field excitation of the main generator are
1 half wave rectifier
2 quarter wave rectifier
3 three wave rectifier
4 full wave bridge rectifier
4 full wave bridge rectifier
326
D
327
A
328
B
329
KvaREACTIVE
330
331
B
332
A
333
A
A
B
334
B
C
B
335
D
336
B
337
C
A
B
A
338
A
C
339
B
B
340
D
D
341
B
A
342
C
343
Hardover
344
C
C
D
345
D
A
B
C
346
C
347
A
C
348
D
349
E
350
C
D
351
A
352
D
353
B
354
A
C
355
B
D
356
C
357
C
358
B
