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CLP not Krysten > Exam Review pt 2 > Flashcards

Exam Review pt 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What does PCV mean?

A

Packed cell volume: the volume of blood occupied by RBCs

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2
Q

What are the different layers of centrifuged anti-coagulated blood?

A

plasma, buffy coat, RBCs

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3
Q

What does the buffy coat consist of?

A

platelets, WBCs, nucleated RBCs (if present)

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4
Q

True or false: it is important to run more than one sample for PCV per patient

A

true; should see values within 1-2%

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5
Q

What mechanism delivers oxygen to the blood?

A

hemoglobin

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6
Q

What are the reference intervals for PCV for dogs?

A

37-55% or 0.37-0.55 L/L

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7
Q

What are the reference intervals for PCV for cats?

A

27-45% or 0.27-0.45 L/L

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8
Q

Plasma is the fluid component of blood. What is contained in plasma?

A

proteins, electrolytes, etcetera

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9
Q

True or false: plasma is produced from coagulated blood

A

false; plasma is produced from ANTI-coagulated blood

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10
Q

What is the difference between plasma and serum?

A

serum is just like plasma except the blood has CLOTTED before fluid is collected

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11
Q

Will serum have a higher or lower protein content than plasma?

A

serum has a LOWER protein content due to coagulation

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12
Q

Which tube do you collect blood for serum in?

A

red top tube

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13
Q

How long does your blood sample need to sit before centrifuging for serum?

A

20 minutes

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14
Q

True or false: it is okay to wait a while to remove the serum from a centrifuged blood sample

A

false; serum needs to be removed immediately and placed in a new red top tube

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15
Q

List three causes of yellow plasma

A

hemolysis, liver disease, biliary obstruction

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16
Q

What animals can have routinely yellow plasma?

A

large animals

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17
Q

What is the scientific name for yellow plasma?

A

icteric

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18
Q

What is lipemia?

A

white plasma

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19
Q

List causes of lipemia

A

sample collected too soon after a meal, pancreatitis, hypothyroidism, diabetes mellitus, liver disease, hyperadrenocorticism

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20
Q

What is the cause of red plasma?

A

hemolysis

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21
Q

True or false: poor technique for blood collection can lead to red plasma

A

true

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22
Q

What organ of the body produces protein?

A

liver

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23
Q

Will plasma protein values be the same as serum protein?

A

no, plasma should read slightly higher than serum

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24
Q

Albumin and globulins are examples of what?

A

proteins

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25
Q

What tool is used in clinic to measure protein?

A

refractometer

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26
Q

What are the basic steps of using a refractomer to measure protein?

A
  • zero with distilled water (should read 1.000)
  • apply the sample to the platform (serum or plasma)
  • read the SP scale (look for g/dL or g/100mL on scale)
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27
Q

What is serum electrophoresis? Who performs it?

A

only performed at reference labs, breaks proteins into fractions

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28
Q

What causes hyperproteinemia?

A

Hyperalbuminemia (dehydration), hyperglobulinemia (increased antibody production)

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29
Q

What happens to protein values when a patient is dehydrated?

A

the relative amount of protein INCREASES as the patient dehydrates

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30
Q

What causes hypoproteinemia?

A

hypoalbuminemia, caused by liver disease (therefore less protein being produced)

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31
Q

What is the difference between thrombocytes and platelets?

A

the term thrombocytes can be used in all species (nucleated, non-nucleated thrombocytes), platelets can only be used for mammals (non-nucleated thrombocytes)

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32
Q

What/where are platelets produced from?

A

Megakaryocytes in bone marrow

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33
Q

What is the average lifespan of a platelet?

A

up to 3-7 days

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34
Q

What are basic functions of platelets?

A

form plugs to seal holes (i.e. damaged blood vessels), initiate and accelerate coagulation mechanisms

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35
Q

How would you comment on <8 platelets per field on a smear?

A

without clumping: thrombocytopenia

with clumping: cannot comment

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36
Q

How would you comment on >29 platelets per field of a smear?

A

with or without clumping: thrombocytosis

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37
Q

What is the normal range of platelets per field for canine smears?

A

8-29

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38
Q

What is the normal range of platelets per field for feline smears?

A

10-30

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39
Q

What is the appropriate comment for 12-15 platelets/field for canine?

A

within normal limits

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40
Q

Appropriate comment for 3 platelets/field with clumping for a canine smear?

A

cannot comment due to clumping

41
Q

Comment on 40-45 platelets/field with clumping on a canine smear.

A

thrombocytosis

42
Q

If platelets are clumped, how will this affect electronic counters results?

A

counts can be misleadingly low due to clumping

43
Q

What can happen with fat droplets and RBCs when using electronic platelet counters?

A

RBCs and fat can be mistaken for platelets; inaccurate results

44
Q

true or false: exercise and excitement can cause a high platelet count

A

true

45
Q

what are the three types of hematology analyzers?

A

buffy coat analysis, impedance counter, laser flow cytometry

46
Q

what are some limitations of buffy coat analysis?

A

inadequate separation of layers, grouping together of values (granulocytes, monocytes and lymphocytes)

47
Q

How many fields do you count when counting for a WBC estimate?

A

10 fields

48
Q

true or false: when estimating WBC count, you count only the nucleated cells in 10 random fields

A

true

49
Q

What role do neutrophils play in inflammation?

A

they release inflammatory mediators

50
Q

true or false: neutrophils can kill or inactivate bacteria

A

true

51
Q

what is the main function of eosinophils?

A

to deactivate histamine; increased number of eosinophils seen in allergic reactions

52
Q

How do basophils initiate inflammation?

A

release of their granules initiate inflammation

53
Q

What are some components of basophil granules?

A

heparin, histamine, serotonin and hyaluronic acid

54
Q

What other leukocyte is attracted to basophils by histamine and serotonin?

A

eosinophils

55
Q

Why would eosinophils be attracted to basophils? (think components)

A

basophils contain histamine and eosinophils have an anti-histamine

56
Q

Are we able to distinguish between types of lymphocytes (B, T, etc)?

A

no; only exception is plasma cells

57
Q

T-cells assist with ____ immunity?

A

cell-mediated immunity

58
Q

B-cells play a role in ____ immunity?

A

humoral immunity; b-cells become plasma cells (i.e. antibody production)

59
Q

Why are monocytes referred to as the “dump truck” cells?

A

they are phagocytic, collect large substances like necrotic debris

60
Q

what is commonly seen on a smear when there is inflammation present in a patient?

A

increased neutrophils-neutrophilia

61
Q

what will a smear contain/look like when a patient is having an allergic or parasitic reaction?

A

eosinophilia (occasionally see basophilia)

62
Q

what are the main functions of erythrocytes?

A

transport O2 and CO2, remove wastes from plasma/delivery to phagocytes

63
Q

where are erythrocytes produced in the body?

A

bone marrow

64
Q

what hormone stimulates erythrocyte production?

A

erythropoietin; hormone from the kidney

65
Q

how long does it take for the full production of RBCs to take place?

A

4-6 days

66
Q

are immature RBCs larger or smaller than mature cells?

A

immature are larger cells

67
Q

why do RBCs settle to the bottom of the microhematocrit tube when centrifuged?

A

RBCs have highest S.G. out of all the components of blood

68
Q

what is the term for an increased PCV value?

A

polycythemia

69
Q

what is the term for decreased PCV value?

A

anemia

70
Q

what errors in your process can affect PCV results?

A

inadequate mixing of blood, dilution of blood by anticoagulant in under-filled EDTA tube, vigorous mixing of sample (hemolysis)

71
Q

what way do the sealed ends of microhematocrit tubes face when placed in the centrifuge?

A

sealed ends face OUTWARDS

72
Q

what will happen to your PCV if the sample is spun too fast or too long?

A

decreased PCV

73
Q

what will happen to our PCV if the sample is spun too slow or not long enough?

A

elevated PCV

74
Q

define: hypoalbuminemia

A

decreased albumin

75
Q

define: normoalbuminemia

A

WNL albumin

76
Q

define: hyperalbuminemia

A

increased albumin

77
Q

define: hypoamylasemia

A

decreased amylase

78
Q

define: normoamylasemia

A

WNL amylase

79
Q

define: hyperamylasemia

A

increased amylase

80
Q

define: hypobiliubinemia

A

decreased bilirubin

81
Q

define: normobilirubinemia

A

WNL bilirubin

82
Q

define: hyperbilirubinemia

A

increased bilirubin

83
Q

define: hypocalcemia

A

decreased calcium

84
Q

define: normocalcemia

A

WNL calcium

85
Q

define: hypercalcemia

A

increased calcium

86
Q

define: hypochloremia

A

decreased chloride

87
Q

define: normochloremia

A

WNL chloride

88
Q

define: hyperchloremia

A

increased chloride

89
Q

define: hypocholesterolemia

A

decreased cholesterol

90
Q

define: hypercholesterolemia

A

increased cholesterol

91
Q

define: hypofibrinogenemia

A

decreased fibrinogen

92
Q

define: hyperfibrinogenemia

A

increased fibrinogen

93
Q

define: hypoglobulinemia

A

decreased globulin

94
Q

define: hyperglobulinemia

A

increased globulin

95
Q

define: hypoglycemia

A

decreased glucose

96
Q

define: hyperglobulinemia

A

increased glucose

97
Q

define: hypokalemia

A

decreased potassium

98
Q

define: hyperkalemia

A

increased potassium

CLP not Krysten (1 decks)

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