Exam Review 2 (s1) Flashcards
1
Q
CH 20
The goal of a radiologic technologist in a medical emergency is to:
A
- recognize an emergency
- Preserve life
- Avoid further harm
- Get help
2
Q
R.T’s should be alert for changes to a patients:
(CH 20)
A
- level of consciousness
- Demeaner
- Pain level
- Respiration
- Speech patterns
3
Q
Types of shock:
(CH 20)
A
hypovolemic- loss of blood or fluids
Cardiogenic- Cardiac disorders (MI)
Neurogenic- spinal cord damage
Vasogenic- anaphylaxis
4
Q
Hypovolemic
A
Shock due to loss of blood or fluids
5
Q
Cardiogenic
A
Cardiac disorders
6
Q
Neurogenic
A
spinal cord damage
7
Q
Vasogenic
A
anaphylaxis
8
Q
Signs of stoke:
A
- slurred speech
- dizziness
- loss of vision
- one-side paralysis
9
Q
(CH 21-22)
(Drug Nomenclature)
Generic name
A
name given to drug when commercially available
10
Q
(CH 21-22)
(Drug Nomenclature)
Chemical name
A
identifies chemical structure of drug
11
Q
(CH 21-22)
(Drug Nomenclature)
Trade name
A
Name given to a drug manufactured by specific company
(brand name, propriety name, trademark)
12
Q
(CH 21-22)
(Classification by Drug action)
Antiarrhythmics
A
Adenosine
13
Q
(CH 21-22)
(Classification by Drug action)
Antidiabetic drugs
A
Metformin
(Glucophage)
14
Q
(CH 21-22)
(Classification by Drug action)
Antihistamines
A
diphenhydramine
(Benadryl)
15
Q
(CH 21-22)
(Classification by Drug action)
Antiplatelets
A
aspirin
16
Q
(CH 21-22)
(Classification by Drug action)
vasodilators
A
nitroglycerin
17
Q
(CH 21-22)
Factors that influence drug action (7)
A
- patient age
- health status
- time of day
- emotional status
- other drugs in the body
- genetics (genetic variations)
- disease state of the body (kidney/liver function)
18
Q
(CH 21-22)
Drug reactions: Mild consist of:
A
Anxiety
lightheadedness
nausea
vomiting
itching
19
Q
(CH 21-22)
Drug reactions: Moderate consist of:
A
urticaria
bronchospasm
angioedema
hypotension
Tachycardia (<100 beats/min)
20
Q
(CH 21-22)
Drug reactions: severe consists of: (8)
A
Bradycardia (<50 beats/min)
cardiac arrythmias
laryngeal swelling
convulsions
loss of consciousness
cardiac arrest
respiratory arrest
no detectable pulse
21
Q
(CH 21-22)
idiosyncratic reactions
A
abnormal response to a drug cause by individual genetic differences
22
Q
(CH 21-22)
5 rights of drug administration:
A
right drug
right amount
right patient
right time
right route
23
Q
(CH 21-22)
Methods of administration
Topical:
A
application of drug directly on skin
24
Q
(CH 21-22)
Methods of administration
Enteral:
A
Drug administration through digestive system
oral
sublingual
buccal
rectal
25
(CH 21-22)
Methods of administration
Parenteral:
administered NOT through digestive (anything but)
Usually needles/syringes
intradermal
intramuscular
intravenous
subcutaneous
26
(CH 21-22)
Needles:
(diameter and length)
diameter expressed in gauges from 14-28
(smaller # is bigger diameter)
Vary in length .25 inches to 5 inches
most common is 1-1.5 inches
27
(CH 21-22)
venipuncture procedure:
insert needle next to vein at 15-30 degree angle
28
(CH 21-22)
infiltration:
medicine leaking into the soft tissue WITHOUT irritation
29
(CH 21-22)
extravasation
medicine leaking into the tissue WITH irritation
30
(CH 21-22)
Common medical abbreviations:
_
C:
IM:
IV:
PO:
With
Intramuscular
intravenously
by mouth
31
(CH 21-22)
Common medical abbreviations:
_
S:
NPO:
SC:
Stat:
Without
nothing by mouth
subcutaneously
immediately
32
(CH 23)
Negative contrast media:
Atomic #?
How does it appear?
Examples?
composed of low atomic number elements
appears radiolucent on image
Examples: air/gas (CO2)
33
(CH 23)
Positive contrast media:
Composed of higher atomic number elements
appears radiopaque on image
barium sulfate
water-soluble iodine contrast agents
34
(CH 23)
Barium Sulfate:
(BaSO4)
z=56
suspension
flocculation (tendency)
Screen patient for contraindication
35
(CH 23)
suspension means?
must be continually mixed
36
(CH 23)
Flocculation in barium sulfate:
tendency for barium sulfate to clump without the addition of sodium carbonate/sodium citrate
37
(CH 23)
_____ _____ following barium studies
push fluids
38
(CH 23)
what is contraindication?
suspected cases of Bowel Perforation
(always check before giving barium sulfate)
39
(CH 23)
water soluble iodine contrast agents
ionic & non-ionic contrast media
40
(CH 23)
ionic contrast media:
uses iodine as the contrast material (z=53)
Dissociates into two ions
Anion (negative)
&
cation (positive)
(increased osmolality/viscosity)
41
(CH 23)
increased osmolality:
the measure of the total number of particles in a solution per kilogram of water
42
increased viscosity:
43
Most adverse reactions to contrast result from the:
osmolality of the agent
44
(CH 23)
contrast considerations:
renal function
metformin (Glucophage) should be discontinued for 48 hrs before and after the use of iodine contrast
45
(CH 23)
radiopharmaceuticals:
typically emit gamma radiation
monitored (detected) by gamma camera in nuclear department
46
(CH 23)
non-ionic contrast media:
uses iodine as the contrast material (z=53)
low osmolality contrast media (LOCM) -typically
does not associate into cation and anion
less likely to cause patient reaction
47
(CH 23)
two types of radiopharmaceutical contamination:
external- spilled on
Internal- ingested
48
(CH 24)
ethical dilemmas occur when:
the correct choice is not clear and personal values may conflict
49
(CH 24)
ethical theories: (6)
consequentialism
non-consequentialism
social contracts
virtue based ethics
rights based ethics
principle based ethics
50
(CH 24)
Consequentialism:
(Decision is right or wrong based on consequences)
the decision is right or wrong based on the outcome or consequences
51
(CH 24)
non-consequentialism:
(Right or wrong the outcome is not important)
the outcome is unimportant to what is right or wrong
52
(CH 24)
social contracts:
expectations based on a relationship
(RT and Patient)
(server and customer)
(pilot and passenger)
53
(CH 24)
virtue based ethics:
Character traits guides ethical decisions
54
(CH 24)
rights-based ethics:
decisions based on the fact that individuals have rights
55
(CH 24)
principle based ethics:
the use of ethical principles to guide decision making
56
(CH 24)
Principle based ethics:
beneficence
nonmaleficence
autonomy
veracity
fidelity
justice
57
(CH 24)
beneficence
actions should always benefit the patient
58
(CH 24)
nonmaleficence
actions should not harm the patient
59
(CH 24)
autonomy
actions should respect patient independence
60
(CH 24)
veracity
always be truthful
61
(CH 24)
fidelity
actions should always meet promises
62
(CH 24)
justice
actions should be fair
63
(CH 24)
professional ethics:
society expects professions to self-regulate
64
(CH 24)
In medical imaging and radiation therapy professional ethics are primarily maintained by the ______ in its _________ which contains __ main sections
ARRT
Standard of ethics
2
65
(CH 24)
2 main sections of ARRT standard of ethics:
Code of ethics
Rules of ethics
66
(CH 24)
Code of ethics:
behaviors a professional should aspire to achieve
67
(CH 24)
Rules of ethics:
(mandatory rules that outline how a professional should behave)
mandatory rules of acceptable professional conduct
68
(CH 25)
Electronic medical record (EMR):
medical records that are controlled by a single institution
a patient can see their EMR apon request
69
(CH 25)
Electronic health record (HER):
medical records that are easily accessed by patient
multiple medical institutions
(patient portal)
70
(CH 25)
Hosptial (healthcare) information system (HIS):
designed to share patient data:
scheduling
billing
assigns patient number
71
(CH 25)
Radiology information system (RIS):
manages patient scheduling, billing, and orders in RAD department
assigns accession number #
72
(CH 25)
Health insurance companies
Medical necessity:
healthcare services needed to diagnose and treat a disease or injury
(proof so insurance covers)
73
(CH 25)
ICD-10-CM
reason for the visit translated into a code
74
(CH 25)
health insurance portability and accountability act 1996
(HIPAA)
defines standards for protecting patient information
75
(CH 25)
CPT-4:
codes used for specific diagnostic procedures and services
76
(CH 25)
Privacy rule
what patient information is protected? (9)
medical history
current medical conditions
prognosis
current treatment
financial information
birth date
social security number #
address
name
77
(CH 25)
How is patient information protected?
administrative safeguards
physical safeguards
technical safeguards
organizational safeguards
78
(CH 25)
administrative safeguards
policy/procedure that:
prevent
detect
contain
& correct security violations
79
(CH 25)
physical safeguards
badges
locked doors
80
(CH 25)
technical safeguards
passwords
automatic log-off
surveillance
81
(CH 25)
organizational safeguards
business agreements and training
82
(CH 25)
HIPPA is enforced by:
the US Department of Health and Human Services
83
(CH 26)
Medical law
What are the types of law? (4)
constitutional
legislative
case
contract
84
(CH 26) constitutional:
the supreme law of the land
85
(CH 26) legislative:
statues and regulations that direct much of our daily lives
86
(CH 26) case:
decided by a judge or jury
87
(CH 26) Contract:
(NDA)
a legally enforceable agreement
(NDA)
88
(CH 26)
10% of all medical negligence lawsuits originate from:
medical imaging
(mis-diagnosis)
89
(CH 26)
assault:
a patient believes he/she has been threatened an fears they are about to be harmed
90
(CH 26)
torts:
(patient believes they have been wronged or injured and can sue)
patients can claim they have been wronged or sustained some injury (other than breach of contract) for which they can sue for damages
91
(CH 26)
battery:
unlawful touching
can occur w/o injury
92
(CH 26)
false imprisonment:
a patient is restrained against there will
93
(CH 26) Defamation:
two forms:
protected health information is released
could cause:
ridicule
scorn
contempt
Written & Slander
94
(CH 26)
libel:
written
95
(CH 26)
slander:
spoken defamation
96
(CH 26)
fraud:
intentional misrepresentation of facts that cause harm to individual
97
(CH 26)
breach of privacy:
sharing protected health information without consent
98
(CH 26)
negligence:
failure to use proper-care as reasonably prudent person would use under the same circumstance
99
(CH 26)
standard of care:
RT's put themselves at legal risk if they perform an act outside the standard of care
100
(CH 26)
Standard of care is defined by:
the ASRT practice standards
for medical imaging and radiation therapy
101
(CH 26)
informed consent:
requires written consent for an invasive procedure
102
(CH 26)
consent:
patients have the right to make informed decisions about their care
103
(CH 26)
Res ipsa loquitur
(REGISTRY/EXAM QUESTION)
"the thing speaks for itself"
the only explanation for the injury is the medical procedure and staff
104
(CH 26)
implied consent:
consent assumed for simple procedures
(because patient showed up to the appointment)
105
(CH 26)
(REGISTRY/EXAM QUESTION)
Respondeat superior:
" the master speaks for the servant"
physician or institution is responsible
106
(CH 26)
Patient bill of rights:
a list of patient rights developed by the American Hospital Association
107
What are water-soluble iodine contrast agents?
Ionic contrast media
non-ionic contrast media
108
What is the main difference between non-ionic and ionic contrast media?
Patient reactions
osmolarity/viscosity
Ions
non-ionic:
is better for patient reactions and ions don't disassociate & low osmolarity/viscosity
