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OPC Reviews > Exam Review #1 > Flashcards

Exam Review #1 Flashcards

1
Q

For arrest purposes, how are dual procedure offences considered?

A

As indictable offences

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2
Q

What must be proved in a criminal case after an information is
commenced?

A

Facts in issue

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3
Q

What is the definition of ‘psychological detention’?

A

A suspension of an individual's liberty by psychological restraint

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4
Q

What is required for an arrest to be considered accomplished?

A

The person must be physically controlled with the intent to detain

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5
Q

What is the test for ‘reasonable grounds’ for arrest?

A

There must be such facts as would cause a reasonable person to believe that
the suspect has committed or is about to commit an offence

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6
Q

What term is applied to a criminal offence which may be tried by
summary conviction procedure or by indictment at the option of the
prosecutor?

A

Dual procedure offence

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7
Q

Upon arrest or detention, everyone has a right to be:

A

informed promptly of the reason for arrest or detention

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8
Q

What can a person do if their rights or freedoms guaranteed by the
Charter have been infringed or denied?

A

Apply to a court of competent jurisdiction to obtain a remedy

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9
Q

Under what circumstances should evidence be excluded?

A

If the evidence was obtained in a manner that infringed or denied any rights or
freedoms guaranteed by the Charter

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10
Q

Under what circumstances can anyone arrest a person without warrant
as per Section 494(1)(a) C.C.?

A

If the person is found committing an indictable offence

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11
Q

What action is required of anyone other than a peace officer who arrests
a person without warrant as per Section 494(3) C.C.?

A

They must deliver the person to a peace officer forthwith

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12
Q

Which of the following is true regarding officers’ notes in
investigations?

A

Officers have a duty to prepare accurate, detailed, and comprehensive notes

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13
Q

What should be included when making a late entry in the notebook?

A

A brief summary of the event and the reason for the late entry

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14
Q

When arresting someone, what details take precedence in your notes?

A

Articulating arrest grounds, arrest details, and charter obligations

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15
Q

What is the overall mission of ICEN?

A

To improve communication in potentially volatile situations

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16
Q

What does NRA stand for in the context of Officer Safety?

A

Acceptable Risk Effective Necessary

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17
Q

What type of approach would the statement 'I can see you are
struggling, I’m here to help you' be classified as?

A

Relational

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18
Q

What is the purpose of the Ontario Public-Police Interactions Training
Aid?

A

To provide training and context to understand police officers’ decisions during
public interactions.

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19
Q

What can the verbal and non-verbal approaches taken by people in
potentially volatile situations be referred to as?

A

De-escalation Strategies

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20
Q

What should an officer be assessing in the ‘Assess’ portion of ‘Assess-
Plan-Act’?

A

themselves and the situation, continuously

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21
Q

According to the Highway Traffic Act, what is the minimum age to
operate a motor vehicle on a Highway in Ontario?

A

16 years

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22
Q

What is the primary purpose of the driver’s license system in Ontario?

A

To protect the public and maintain safety on highways

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23
Q

According to HTA 44.1 and 44.2, what are the conditions for a Class ‘G1’
(novice) driver regarding alcohol and drugs?

A

Zero Alcohol (BAC) and no Presence of Drugs allowed

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24
Q

Which of the following is a ‘MOTOR VEHICLE’ as defined by the Highway
Traffic Act?

A

A motorcycle

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25
Q

What is the definition of 'Motor Vehicle' according to the HTA?

A

Automobile, motorcycle, motor-assisted bicycle, other vehicle not powered by
muscular power but not a motorized snow vehicle, power assisted bicycle,
farm tractor, self-propelled implement of husbandry, road building machine,
streetcar or traction engine

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26
Q

What does the term 'Roadway' refer to, as per the HTA?

A

The part of the highway that is improved, designed or ordinarily used for
vehicular traffic, excluding the shoulder

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27
Q

For which condition of the driver's license can police stop and search a
vehicle to check for an ignition interlock device under the Highway
Traffic Act?

A

Condition ‘I’

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28
Q

What is required for a provincial offences officer to lay a charge under
Part I of the Provincial Offences Act?

A

Belief

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29
Q

When must the 'certificate of offence' be filed with the office of the
court?

A

As soon as is practicable after service, but no later than 7 days

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30
Q

Who may lay information before a Justice in the Part III process?

A

Anyone

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31
Q

When is a Short Form Summons used in the Part III process?

A

When the defendant is found by a Provincial Offences Officer to be ‘at or near’
the place where the offence occurred

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32
Q

What must a provincial offences officer have to commence proceedings
under Part III of the Provincial Offences Act?

A

Reasonable and probable grounds to believe an offence has been committed

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33
Q

What is the maximum fine that must not be exceeded when serving a
certificate of offence on a person before court?

A

$1000 excluding court costs and the victim surcharge

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34
Q

What charge document is used for a more serious Provincial Offences
Act (POA) offence?

A

Part III long or short form summons

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35
Q

What specific criteria is required for a Short Form Summons to be
issued?

A

The offender must be found at or near the place of offence.

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36
Q

What is the purpose of an Information in the context of POA offences?

A

To commence proceedings under a Part III process

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37
Q

How many number plates are required on a motor vehicle in Ontario?

A

2 plates front and rear

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38
Q

What is the maximum number of days a buyer has to notify the Ministry
after purchasing a motor vehicle?

A

6 days

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39
Q

What are some examples of extrajudicial measures provided by the
Youth Criminal Justice Act (YCJA)?

A

No further action, warn the young person, administer a caution, refer to a
program

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40
Q

What is the actus reus?

A

The physical act of committing the crime

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41
Q

What does a “legal justification” or “excuse” mean in court?

A

A sufficient or acceptable excuse or explanation made in court that justifies an
otherwise illegal/criminal act

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42
Q

What is the purpose of ‘Slicing the Pie’ in the context of building
searches?

A

To methodically clear an area for potential threats

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43
Q

What percentage of officers wearing duty belts experience chronic lower
back pain?

A

86%

44
Q

When is the spine most vulnerable?

A

Flexed and laterally bent

45
Q

How long should one be able to front plank/side plank for minimum to
minimize the risk of developing lower back pain?

A

3 min/1 min

46
Q

Which indicator suggests that a person may be in a mental health crisis
rather than behaving like a criminal offender?

A

The subject appears to be depressed

47
Q

What is the actual danger area for a vehicle stop?

A

Rearward danger area

48
Q

Where should an officer position themselves during a vehicle stop?

A

Actual danger area

49
Q

When can a peace officer apprehend a child under 16 years without a
warrant?

A

When the child is found in a public place between 12am-6am without an
authorized person over 18

50
Q

Under what circumstances can a peace officer enter premises by force
to search for and remove a child?

A

When the child is in need of protection and there is a substantial risk.

51
Q

When can a peace officer bring a child actually or apparently younger
than 12 to a place of safety without a warrant?

A

If the child has committed an act for which a person 12 or older could be
found guilty of an offence

52
Q

What is the maximum amount an accused may be requested to pay if
they fail to comply with any condition of the undertaking?

A

Not more than$500

53
Q

Which form is used to compel someone to court for a summary
conviction offence when the police officer did not witness the offence?

A

Form 6 Criminal Summons

54
Q

According to the ladder approach, which form of release in a release
order is to be the least onerous for the offender?

A

Release order without financial obligations

55
Q

What constitutes disarming a police officer?
Taking or attempting to take a weapon without the officer's consent

A

Taking or attempting to take a weapon without the officer’s consent

56
Q

When does the offence of voyeurism apply under the Criminal Code?

A

Recording a person in a state of nudity or engaging in sexual activity without
their consent

57
Q

What does 'cause disturbance' under Section 175(1)(a) of the Criminal
Code encompass?

A

Causing a disturbance in a public place by fighting, screaming, shouting,
swearing, being drunk, or impeding or molesting others

58
Q

What is the requirement for approaching a stopped emergency vehicle?

A

Driver must slow down, proceed with caution, and move into the other lane if
safe

59
Q

What is the appropriate charge for a driver leaving a shopping mall
parking lot with a stop sign at the exit, making a left turn onto a highway
and colliding with an oncoming car?

A

Fail to Yield From Private Drive s139(1) HTA

60
Q

When are pedestrians required to identify themselves

A

When they refuse to identify themselves in specific situations covered by
sections 185(3) HTA and 177(2)

61
Q

What are the duties of a driver approaching a pedestrian crossover
when a pedestrian is crossing on the roadway within the crossover?

A

Shall stop before entering crossover, shall not overtake another vehicle
already stopped at the crossover, and shall not proceed into the crossover
until the pedestrian is no longer on the roadway

62
Q

What are examples of distractions that constitute careless driving?

A

Eating, applying makeup, reading

63
Q

What is a requirement for dangerous driving causing bodily harm and
death?

A

The harm must be more than transient or trifling

64
Q

In what stage of sleep does the body recover psychologically?

A

REM

65
Q

Which of the following statements about melatonin are true?
.

A

All of the options are true

66
Q

Prescription sleeping meds may cause:

A

depression, further exacerbating sleep issues.

67
Q

What is the primary objective of police officers in an active attacker
situation?

A

To disrupt the attacker’s plans to save lives

68
Q

What is the responsibility of the Rescue Team in an active attacker
event?

A

To locate and extract victims after the Contact/Search Team has made contact
with the suspect

69
Q

How can an OODA loop be interrupted in an active attacker event?

A

By splitting personnel up and moving off the line of attack

70
Q

Lessons learned from active shooter incidents illustrate the importance
of:

A

of Immediate Rapid Deployment (IRD) in response

71
Q

What was the outcome of the swift response of officers in the Dawson
College shooting?

A

Prevented further casualties by changing the attacker’s focus

72
Q

What is a highlighted need from the Century 16 Theatre shooting
incident?

A

Advanced life-saving techniques and training

73
Q

What is one of the ways to determine if a young person understands
their rights?

A

Asking, “What does this mean to you in your own words?”

74
Q

What is the primary aim of the Youth Criminal Justice Act (YCJA)
regarding the publication of the identity of young persons involved in
the criminal justice system?

A

To protect the identity of young persons, with exceptions for situations where
publication is deemed necessary for public safety.

75
Q

In what circumstances can adult sentences be imposed on youth under
the YCJA?

A

When the presumption of diminished moral blameworthiness is rebutted and a
youth sentence is not sufficient.

76
Q

According to common law, the purpose of investigative detention is to
detain:

A

a person when there are reasonable grounds to suspect their connection to a
crime being investigated.

77
Q

What must police officers consider before conducting a search incident
to investigative detention?

A

Reasonable grounds to believe that the officer’s or anyone’s safety is at risk.

78
Q

According to the Principle of Restraint, what should officers consider
when using the ladder approach for release?

A

The earliest opportunity for release.

79
Q

Under what circumstances can an accused be arrested without a
warrant according to section 495.1?

A

If they are about to breach a form of release or commit an indictable offense
while on a previous form of release.

80
Q

What must be satisfied before you can release an accused from your
custody?

A

PRICES

81
Q

In the acronym PIC, PRICE and PRICES, what does PRICES
represent/stand for?

A

Limitation to release.

82
Q

What must not be satisfied in order to detain someone for a show cause
hearing?

A

PRICES

83
Q

Which Act is designed to promote the best interest and well being of
children

A

Child, Youth, and Family Services Act

84
Q

You receive information that a step-parent may have sexually molested a
15-year-old female. As a police officer you are obliged to?

A

Investigate, report the matter to the Children’s Aid Society and lay appropriate
charges

85
Q

What is the role of the police in response to elder abuse?

A

They must be aware of the different forms of abuse and know what actions
are required.

86
Q

According to HTA Sec 106(2), what is the requirement for the driver of a
motor vehicle with a seat belt assembly provided?

A

The driver must wear the complete assembly

87
Q

If the passenger in a motor vehicle is under 16 and not wearing a
seatbelt, who is responsible according to HTA Sec 106(4)(a)(i)?

A

The driver of the vehicle

88
Q

Which of the given drivers are exempt from wearing a seatbelt according
to HTA Sec 106(6)?

A

Persons of a certain size

89
Q

What is considered reasonable identification for an adult passenger who
is contravening the seatbelt legislation?

A

name, address, and date of birth

90
Q

What should be documented in the occurrence report for criminal
harassment?

A

All facts and reasons for decisions taken

91
Q

What should be considered in the decision to detain the accused by
Justice?

A

Is the continued detention necessary for the safety of the victim (and the
public)

92
Q

What is the acute response for individuals not previously exposed to OC
effects?

A

Involuntary closing of the eyes, sensation of airway restriction, intense pain

93
Q

When engaging in a foot pursuit, effective communication is key to
officer and public safety; however, officers need NOT communicate with:

A

The media

94
Q

When turning corners in foot pursuit officers should:
.

A

take wide corners and slowly look around wall to avoid walking into a waiting
suspect and then assess situation

95
Q

Tactics to optimize safety when running behind a fleeing suspect
include:

A

offset to the left.

96
Q

What is the first priority of police when responding to an aquatic
emergency?

A

officer safety

97
Q

What is the primary purpose of Cognitive Behavior Therapy (CBT)?

A

Identify and change negative patterns of thinking, improving mood and
behavior

98
Q

What is the primary consideration when using an aerosol weapon as per
the legislation affecting OC spray?

A

The presence of risk of injury to the subject or police officer

99
Q

What does Criminal Code Sec 26 specify about the use of force?

A

Anyone authorized to use force is criminally responsible for any excess
thereof

100
Q

According to the legislation, when should an officer use an aerosol weapon like OC spray?

A

Only when alternatives present a risk of injury to the subject or police officer

101
Q

In order for a criminal threat to take place the receiving party only has
to:

A

believe that the offender wanted to be taken seriously.

102
Q

In order for a criminal threat to be considered by police, it must be
delivered:

A

to the intended victim, but can be through a third party.

103
Q

A threat warranting a criminal charge must be to cause:

A

death, bodily harm, damage to property, or to injure pet(s) or animal(s).

104
Q

One of the key elements in a criminal harassment is to:

A

cause the victim to reasonable fear for their safety.

105
Q

According to the procedures, what should officers responding to an
occurrence or undertaking an investigation of elder and vulnerable adult
abuse do?

A

Ensure the safety of the victim, assess their needs, and refer them to
community resources

106
Q

The physical act of committing the crime is termed:

A

Actus Reus

OPC Reviews (3 decks)

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